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Schoolcraft Nursing 104 Pharmacology > Exam 3 Practice Questions > Flashcards

Exam 3 Practice Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of action of less than 15 minutes?
A) insulin glargine (Lantus)
B) insulin aspart (Novolog)
C) regular insulin (Humulin R)
D) insulin detemir (Levemir)

A

B
Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin.
Insulin glargine and insulin detemir are long-acting insulins.
Regular insulin is short acting.

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2
Q

Which long-acting insulin mimics natural, basal insulin with no peak action and a duration of 24 hours?
A. Insulin glulisine
B. Insulin glargine
C. Regular insulin
D. NPH insulin

A

B Glargine

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3
Q

Which insulin can be administered by continuous intravenous (IV) infusion?
A. Insulin aspart
B. Insulin detemir
C. Insulin glargine
D. Regular insulin

A

D Regular insulin

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4
Q

The nurse caring for a patient hospitalized with diabetes mellitus would look for which laboratory test result to obtain information on the patient’s past glucose control?

A. Prealbumin level
B. Urine ketone level
C. Fasting glucose level
D. A1C level

A

D. A1C (Glycosylated hemoglobin level)

A1C level detects the amount of glucose that is bound to red blood cells (RBCs). When circulating glucose levels are high, glucose attaches to the RBCs and remains there for the life of the blood cell, which is approximately 120 days. Thus the test can give an indication of glycemic control over approximately 2 to 3 months. The prealbumin level is used to establish nutritional status and is unrelated to past glucose control. The urine ketone level will only show that hyperglycemia or starvation is probably currently occurring. The fasting glucose level only indicates current glucose control.

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5
Q

A patient is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. What distinguishing characteristic is associated with type 1 diabetes?

A. The disease always starts in childhood.
B. Oral agents can control blood sugar.
C. Exogenous insulin is required for life.
D. Blood glucose levels can be controlled by diet.

A

C Exogenous insulin is required for life.

Type 1 diabetes will result in eventual destruction of beta cells, and no insulin is produced. The blood glucose level can only be controlled by diet in type 2 diabetes. In type 2 diabetes, oral agents can be administered. Type 1 diabetes is diagnosed at many ages, not only in childhood.

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6
Q

The nurse has just completed teaching a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes about rapid-acting insulin. The nurse determines that teaching was effective when the client selects:
-Humalog
-Regular
-NPH
-Glargine

A

Humalog
–There are four principal types of insulin: short acting, rapid acting, intermediate acting, and long acting. Regular insulin is short-acting insulin whose effects begin within 30 minutes after subcutaneous injection and generally last for 5 to 8 hours. The rapid-acting insulins (humalog, novalog and glulisine) have a more rapid onset, peak, and duration of action than short-acting regular insulin and are administered immediately before a meal. Intermediate- to long-acting insulins include NPH, glargine, and Lente. These insulins have slower onsets and a longer duration of action.–

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7
Q

A patient is in diabetic ketoacidosis. The patient blood glucose level is over 600 mg/dL. The physician has ordered the patient to receive an initial dose of 25 units of insulin intravenously. What type of insulin will most likely be administered?

A. Glargine insulin
B. Lente insulin
C. Regular insulin
D. NPH insulin

A

Regular insulin

Regular insulin has rapid onset of action and can be given via IV. It is the drug of choice for acute situations, such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Isophane insulin (NPH) is used for long-term insulin therapy. Lente insulin is an intermediate-acting insulin. Glargine is a long acting insulin

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8
Q

A nurse is evaluating patients for the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Which of the following patients has the highest risk?
-A 45-year-old obese woman with a sedentary lifestyle
-A 10-year-old boy whose grandmother has type 2 diabetes
-A 40-year-old man who has an active lifestyle
-A 60-year-old woman with a history of gestational diabetes

A

A 45-year-old obese woman with a sedentary lifestyle
–The person most at risk for developing type 2 diabetes is the 45-year-old obese woman with a sedentary lifestyle. Other risk factors include family history, age older than 40, and history of gestational diabetes. The 10-year-old boy, despite family history, would be at low risk as long as obesity and sedentary lifestyle are avoided. The 60-year-old woman most likely would have developed type 2 diabetes within 20 years after the pregnancy.–

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9
Q

T/F: Insulin is produced by the pancreatic beta cells in the islets of Langerhans.

A

True

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10
Q

The nurse is evaluating a 45-year-old patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which symptom reported by the patient is considered one of the classic clinical manifestations of diabetes?

A. Excessive thirst
B. Gradual weight gain
C. Overwhelming fatigue
D. Recurrent blurred vision

A

A. Excessive thirst

The classic symptoms of diabetes are polydipsia (excessive thirst), polyuria, (excessive urine output), and polyphagia (increased hunger). Weight gain, fatigue, and blurred vision may all occur with type 2 diabetes, but are not classic manifestations.

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11
Q

During a teaching session on the care of the diabetic patient, a family member asks why her daughter has a different insulin than her best friend. The nurse should make which of the following statements to explain the differences in insulin?

A. “Insulin is prescribed based on the insurer’s criteria for reimbursement.”
B. “Insulins have different onsets and durations of action.”
C. “Insulin type is matched with the appropriate oral hypoglycemic agent.”
D. “Insulin is prescribed based on the patient’s age.”

A

“Insulins have different onsets and durations of action.”

When insulin therapy is indicated, the physician may choose from several preparations that vary in composition, onset, duration of action, and other characteristics. Insulin is not prescribed based solely on cost. Insulin is not prescribed based solely on the patient’s age. Insulin is not usually matched with oral hypoglycemic agents.

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12
Q

The nurse is preparing a patient for a computed tomography scan using iodine contrast media. Which medication should the nurse question if prescribed one day before the scheduled procedure?
A. Pioglitazone
B. Acarbose
C. Repaglinide
D. Metformin

A

D Metformin

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13
Q

The nurse and nursing student are caring for a client undergoing a severe stressor with release of epinephrine into the bloodstream. Which of these effects on blood glucose levels does the nurse teach the student epinephrine will cause?
-Blood glucose will elevate.
-Hypoglycemia will occur.
-An unusable form of glucose will be released.
-Gluconeogenesis will occur.

A

Blood glucose will elevate
–Epinephrine, a catecholamine, helps to maintain blood glucose levels during periods of stress. Epinephrine causes glycogenolysis in the liver, thus causing large quantities of glucose to be released into the blood.–

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14
Q

You are caring for a patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes. What information is essential to include in your patient teaching before discharge from the hospital (select all that apply)
A. Insulin administration
B. Elimination of sugar from diet
C. Need to reduce physical activity
D. Use of a portable blood glucose monitor
E. Hypoglycemia prevention, symptoms, and treatment

A

a. insulin administration
d. use of portable blood glucose monitor
e. hypoglycemia prevention, symptoms, and treatment
(Rationale: The nurse ensures that the patient understands the proper use of insulin. The nurse teaches the patient how to use the portable blood glucose monitor and how to recognize and treat signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. These are referred to as “survival skills.”)

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15
Q
  1. Which is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of action of less than 15 minutes?

A. Insulin glargine (Lantus)
B. Insulin aspart (NovoLog)
C. Insulin detemir (Levemir)
D. Regular insulin (Humulin R)

A

B. Insulin aspart (NovoLog)

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16
Q

Assuming the patient eats breakfast at 8:30 AM, lunch at noon, and dinner at 6:00 PM, he or she is at highest risk of hypoglycemia after an 8:00 AM dose of NPH insulin at what time?

A. 10:00 AM
B. 2:00 PM
C. 5:00 PM
D. 8:00 PM

A

C 5:00 pm

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17
Q

When caring for a pregnant patient with gestational diabetes, the nurse should question a prescription for which drug?

A. Insulin glargine (Lantus)
B. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
C. Insulin glulisine (Apidra)
D. NPH insulin

A

B. Glipizide (Glucotrol)

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18
Q

Which information should the nurse include in a teaching plan for patients taking oral hypoglycemic drugs? (Select all that apply.)

A. Take your medication only as needed.
B. Report symptoms of anorexia and fatigue.
C. Explain dietary changes are not necessary.
D. Advise to avoid smoking and alcohol consumption.
E. Instruct that it is okay to skip breakfast 1 to 2 times per week.

A

B,D

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19
Q

Which actions describe the beneficial effects produced by sulfonylurea oral hypoglycemics?
(Select all that apply.)

A. Stimulate insulin secretion from beta cells
B. Increase hepatic glucose production
C. Enhance action of insulin in various tissues
D. Inhibit breakdown of insulin by liver

A

A,C,D

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20
Q

Lifestyle changes, oral drug therapy, and insulin (when the first two methods no longer provide glycemic control) are treatments for:

A. Type 1 Diabetes
B. Type 2 Diabetes
C. Gestational Diabetes

A

B. Type 2 Diabetes

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21
Q

Rapid-acting insulin onset of action is typically:

A. 5 - 15 minutes
B. 30 - 60 minutes

A

A. 5 - 15 minutes

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22
Q

Short-acting insulin onset of action is typically:

A. 5 - 15 minutes
B. 30 - 60 minutes

A

B. 30 - 60 minutes

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23
Q

May be given SC or via continuous SC infusion pump (but not IV):

A. Insulin aspart (NovoLog)
B. Insulin lispro (Humalog)
C. Regular insulin (Humulin R, Novolin R)

A

A. Insulin aspart (NovoLog)
B. Insulin lispro (Humalog)

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24
Q

Insulin aspart (NovoLog),
Insulin lispro (Humalog), are:

A. Rapid-acting insulins
B. Short-acting insulins
C. Intermediate-acting insulins
D. Long-acting insulins

A

A. Rapid-acting insulins

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25
Q

Regular insulin (Humulin R, Novolin R) is a:

A. Rapid-acting insulin
B. Short-acting insulin
C. Intermediate-acting insulin
D. Long-acting insulin

A

B. Short-acting insulin

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26
Q

Isophane insulin suspension (NPH) is a:

A. Rapid-acting insulin
B. Short-acting insulin
C. Intermediate-acting insulin
D. Long-acting insulin

A

C. Intermediate-acting insulin

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27
Q

Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a:

A. Rapid-acting insulin
B. Short-acting insulin
C. Intermediate-acting insulin
D. Long-acting insulin

A

D. Long-acting insulin

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28
Q

The adverse effects for this type of oral anti-diabetic drug is:
- Primarily affects GI tract: abdominal bloating,
nausea, cramping, diarrhea, feeling of fullness
- May also cause metallic taste, reduced vitamin B12
levels
- Lactic acidosis is rare but lethal if it occurs
- Does not cause hypoglycemia

A. Metformin (Glucophage)
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Meglitinides
D. Thiazolidinediones
E. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

A. Metformin (Glucophage)

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29
Q

The adverse effects for this type of oral anti-diabetic drug is:
- Hypoglycemia, hematologic effects, nausea,
epigastric fullness, heartburn

A. Metformin (Glucophage)
B. Sulfonylureas
C. Meglitinides
D. Thiazolidinediones
E. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

B. Sulfonylureas

30
Q

The following drugs-
- Oral forms of concentrated glucose: Buccal tablets + semisolid gel,
- 50% dextrose in water (D₅₀W), and
- Glucagon are:

A. Anti-diabetic drugs
B. Glucose-Elevating Drugs

A

B. Glucose-Elevating Drugs

31
Q

. A physician prescribes a Proton-Pump Inhibitor to a patient with a gastric ulcer. Which medication is considered a PPI?*
A. Pantoprazole
B. Famotidine
C. Magnesium Hydroxide
D. Metronidazole

A

The answer is A. Pantoprazole is the only PPI listed. Remember PPIs tend to end with the letters “prazole”.

32
Q

You are providing discharge teaching to a patient taking Sucralfate (Carafate). Which statement by the patient demonstrates they understand how to take this medication?*
A. “I will take this medication at the same time I take Ranitidine.”
B. “I will always take this medication on an empty stomach.”
C. “It is best to take this medication with antacids.”
D. “I will take this medication once a week.”

A

The answer is B. This statement is the only correct statement about how to take Carafate. It should always be taken on an empty stomach without food so it can coat the site of ulceration. This medication should NOT be taken with H2 blockers (Ranitidine) or antacids because these drugs affect the absorption of Carafate.

33
Q

A client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The nurse determines that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports absence of which of the following symptoms?

A. Diarrhea
B. Heartburn
C. Flatulence
D. Constipation

A

B. Heartburn ,omeprazole (Prilosec) is used for GERD

34
Q

A physician prescribes bisacodyl (Dulcolax) for a client in preparation for a diagnostic test and wants the client to achieve a rapid effect from the medication. The nurse then tells the client to take the medication:

A. With a large meal
B. On an empty stomach
C. At bedtime with a snack
D. With two glasses of juice

A

B. on an empty stomach, bisacodyl (Dulcolax) is a stool softner

35
Q

A client has a PRN order for loperamide (Imodium). The nurse should plan to administer this medication if the client has:

A. constipation
B. abdominal pain
C. episode of diarrhea
D. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage

A

C. episode of diarrhea, loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal

36
Q

A client is taking docusate sodium (Colace). The nurse monitors which of the following to determine whether the client is having a therapeutic effect from this medication?

A. Abdominal pain
B. Reduction in steatorrhea
C. Hematest-negative stools
D. Regular bowel movements

A

D. Regular bowel movements

37
Q

A client has a PRN order for ondansetron (Zofran). The nurse would administer this medication to the postoperative client for relief of:

A. paralytic ileus
B. incisional pain
C. urinary retention
D. Nausea and vomiting

A

D. Nausea and vomiting, ondansetron (Zofran) is an antiemetic

37
Q

A nurse teaches a client taking metoclopramide (Reglan) to discontinue the medication immediately and call the physician if which side effect occurs with long- term use?
A. Excessive excitability
B. Anxiety or irritability
C. Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs
D. Dry mouth not helped by the use of sugar-free hard candy

A

C. Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs

38
Q

A histamine (H2) - receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2- receptor antagonists, one of which could be prescribed. Select all that apply.

  1. Nizatidine (Axid)
  2. Ranitidine (Zantac)
  3. Famotidine (Pepcid)
  4. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
  5. Esomeprazole (Nexium)
  6. Lansoprazole (Prevacid)
A

answer: 1,2,3,4
- 5 and 6 are PPI’s (proton pump inhibitors)

39
Q

A client with a gastric ulcer has an order for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g orally four times a day. The nurse schedules the medications for which of the following times?

A. With meals and at bedtime
B. Every 6 hours around the clock
C. One hour after meals and at bedtime
D. One hour before meals and at bedtime

A

D. One hour before meals and at bedtime

40
Q

The patient asks how stool softeners relieve constipation. Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse? Stool softeners relieve constipation by:
a. stimulating the walls of the intestine
b. promoting the retention of sodium in the fecal mass
c. promoting the retention of water in the fecal mass
d. lubricating the intestinal walls

A

c. promoting the retention of water in the fecal mass

41
Q

A hospitalized client asks the nurse for sodium bicarbonate to relieve heartburn following a meal. The nurse reviews the client’s medical record, knowing that the medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

  1. urinary calculi
  2. chronic bronchitis
  3. metabolic alkalosis
  4. respiratory acidosis
A
  1. respiratory acidosis
42
Q

A client is relying on OTC laxatives for regular elimination. Which of the following pieces of information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client?

A. daily bowel movements are not necessary for good intestinal health
B. Excessive laxative use may cause decreased sodium levels
C. Chronic use of laxatives can lead to dependency of elimination
D. The client should increase intake of high-fiber diet

A

C. Chronic use of laxatives can lead to dependency of elimination

Rationale: Excessive laxative use causes G.I. system to become dependent on external methods to achieve elimination
- Laxative dependence weakens peristalsis and musculature of colon

43
Q

A charge nurse and a newly licensed nurse are providing care for a client who reports nausea and has a presciption for metoclopramide (Reglan) as an antiemetic. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates a correct understanding of the actions of the medication. “Metoclopramide”:

A. blocks dopamine 2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
B. decreases gastric acid secretions
C. slows peristalsis
D. promotes gastric emptying

A

A. blocks dopamine 2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

44
Q

A nurse is reviewing medications for a client who has a diagnosis of small bowel obstruction. The nurse should withhold Senna (Senoket) prescribed orally based on an understanding of which of the following?

A. laxatives are contraindicated in clients who have small bowel obstruction
B. Only bulk-forming laxatives such as psyllium (Metamucil) should be prescribed
C. Medication should be administered via NG tube than oral route
D. Opioid analgesics, rather than laxative should be prescribed to alleviate discomfort

A

A. laxatives are contraindicated in clients who have small bowel obstruction

Rationale: Laxatives are contraindicated in clients who have fecal impactation, bowel obstruction, and acute abdominal surgery to prevent perforation. Laxatives will cause increased abdominal cramping and discomfort

45
Q

The physician prescribes docusate sodium (Colace) fo the client. The client asks the nurse to explain why the medication is needed. Which explanation given by the nurse correctly states the purpose of medication?

A. To ease bowel evacuation and its related discomfort
B. To irriatate the bowel and promote stool elimination
C. To stimulate peristalsis to remove wastes after the digestion
D. To reduce intestinal activity and decrease stool size

A

A. To ease bowel evacuation and its related discomfort

Rationale: Docusate sodium (Colace) is a stool softner, retaining water in the stool, softens the mass and makes stool easier and less painful to pass.

46
Q

Your elderly pt is being administered Lomotil, what kind of drug?
A. Antiflatulent
B. Laxative
C. Antidiarrheal
D. Emetic

A

C. Antidiarrheal, its a narcotic

47
Q

The Patient has GERD and they are prescribed( Prilosec) Omeprazole What kind of a drug is it?
A. Antacid
B. Histamine H2 Antagonist
C. Anticholinergic
D. Proton Pump Inhibitor

A

D. Proton Pump Inhibitor

48
Q

A client has been given Loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). Which of the following situation is the medication indicated to?
A Abdominal pain.
B Patients with an ileostomy.
C Bloody Diarrhea.
D Acute dysentery.

A

Loperamide hydrochloride is an antidiarrheal agent. It can also be used to reduce the volume of drainage from an ileostomy.

Options A, C, and D: It is contraindicated in patients with abdominal pain in the absence of diarrhea, and in patients with acute dysentery, which is characterized by blood in stools and high fever.

49
Q

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who is receiving a bulk-forming laxative as part of the home medications. All of which are examples of bulk-forming laxative, except?
A Docusate Sodium (Colace).
B Methylcellulose (Citrucel).
C Polycarbophil (Fibercon).
D Psyllium (Metamucil).

A

Option A is an example of surfactant laxative

50
Q

A client has been taking Ibuprofen for some quite time and was given Misoprostol (Cytotec). Which of the following is exhibiting the therapeutic effect of Cytotec?
A Relief of gastric ulcer.
B Relief of diarrhea.
C Relief of vomiting.
D Relief of constipation.

A

Misoprostol (Cytotec) is a synthetic (man-made) prostaglandin that is used to reduce the risk of stomach ulcers in patients treated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs, for example, aspirin, ibuprofen, etc.).

Option B: Although a side effect, but it is not the intended therapeutic effect.

Options C and D are not related to the medication.

50
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for a client receiving an antiemetic?
A Monitor intake and output.
B Keep items far away from the bed.
C Give the client privacy by letting him walking around the room.
D Keep bed in low position with side rails up.

A

Antiemetics can cause drowsiness; hence the priority nursing intervention is to protect the client from injury such as raising the side rails and keeping the bed in low position.

Option A is not the most priority intervention.

Options B and C will risk the client for fall.

51
Q

A geriatric patient is prescribed with Cimetidine (Tagamet) for the treatment of heartburn. Which of the following is the most frequent CNS side effect?
A Agitation.
B Drowsiness.
C Headache.
D Somnolence.

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect.
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A

Cimetidine an H2-receptor antagonist passes the blood brain barrier, and central nervous system side effects can happen. Most common serious side effects are confusion, agitation, depression, and disorientation.

Options B, C, and D: They are considered as the less common side effect.

52
Q

Which of the following condition can you safely administer Metoclopramide (Reglan)?
A Patient with bowel obstruction.
B Patient with gastrointestinal hemorrhage.
C Patient undergoing radiation.

A

Metoclopramide can be safely administered to patients having vomiting episodes following radiation, chemotherapy, and surgery.

Options A and B: It is contraindicated in patients with conditions where stimulation of gastrointestinal motility might be harmful, such as mechanical bowel obstruction, bowel perforation, or gastrointestinal hemorrhage.

53
Q

Tincture of opium is given to a patient who is having diarrheal episodes. Which of the following is true regarding this medication?
A Opium tincture is not a controlled substance.
B Opium tincture can be used with medications like naltrexone and buprenorphine.
C It can be diluted with 15-30 ml of water.
D It increases intestinal motility and peristalsis.

A

Opium tincture is an oral liquid medication used to control diarrhea. It has an unpleasant taste so it should be diluted with 15-30 ml of water.

Option A: Opium tincture contains morphine which is a controlled substance.

Option B: Opium tincture should not be used with medications like naltrexone and buprenorphine because they increase sedation and lower beneficial effect of opium tincture.

Option D: It is an antidiarrheal, so a decrease motility and peristalsis is expected.

54
Q

An osmotic laxative will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are osmotic laxative? Select all that apply
A Senna (Senokot).
B Mineral Oil.
C Polyethylene glycol and electrolytes (GoLYTELY).
D Sodium Phosphate (Fleet enema).
E Bisacodyl (Dulcolax).

A

C & D
Osmotics are used to attract water into the large intestines to produce bulk and stimulate peristalsis. Other osmotic are Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) and Magnesium citrate (Citrate of Magnesia).

Options A and E are stimulants.

Option B is a lubricant.

55
Q

What is one of the cerebral centers of the brain that is involved in nausea/vomiting?

a) Hypothalamus
b) Parietal lobe
c) Chemo-receptor trigger zone
d) Circle of willis

A

c) Chemo-receptor trigger zone

Both the chemoreceptor trigger zone and the medulla of the brain are involved in regulation of nausea and vomiting.

56
Q

What are non-pharmacological ways to treat nausea? (Select all that apply)

a) Crackers
b) Pepto bismol
c) Weak tea
d) Laxatives
e)Diphenhydramine
f) Gatorade
g) Pedialyte

A

Crackers, weak tea, Gatorade, and Pedialyte are all non-pharmacological ways to treat nausea. The other options are not prescription medications, but they are pharmacological in nature. And of those items, some are not used to treat nausea. (A, C, F, G)

57
Q

Which of the following is NOT used to treat nausea/vomiting?

a) Pepsin
b) Meclizine
c) Cannabinoids
d) Ondansetron

A

A, pepsin is produced in the stomach and is not an anti-nausea med

58
Q

You should not give anticholinergics to patients with which condition?

a) High blood pressure
b) Diabetes
c) Liver dysfunction
d) Glaucoma

A

D, Glaucoma is increased by anticholinergics

59
Q

What is a side effect of dopamine antagonists?

a) Emesis
b) Hypernatremia
c) Constipation
d) Increased gastric acid

A

C, constipation.

D2 Antagonists can cause constipation, dry mouth, EPS symptoms, hypotension, sedation, and urinary retention.

60
Q

What is a major side effect of Haldol?

a) Hypertension
b) Malignant hyperthermia
c) Hypotension
d) Hyperglycemia

A

C, hypotension is a serious side effect of Haldol (a D2 antagonist medication)

61
Q

Which of the following medications is given most frequently in the hospital setting for nausea?

a) Diphenhydramine
b) Tyramine
c) Pepto bismol
d) Ondansetron

A

D, ondansetron is the “gold standard” in nausea care. It was once given mostly to chemo recipients due to its extraordinary cost. However, now it is available and much more affordable. It is also called Zofran. In addition, ondansetron is one of the only medications that does NOT cause EPS.

62
Q

Match the following medications with their antidotes:

1) Warfarin
2) Narcotics
3) Heparin
4) Lanoxin
5) Benzodiazepines
6) Acetominophen

a) Vitamin K
b) Protamine sulfate
c) Mucomyst
d)Narcan
e)Flumazenil
f)Digibind

A

1a, 2d, 3b, 4f, 5e, 6c

63
Q

True or false, opiate-derived anti-diarrheal meds contain so little opium that they are not habit forming/addictive?

A)True

B)False

A

B, false.

Anti-diarrheals containing opiates may become habit forming

64
Q

What is the mechanism of action of an adsorbent medication?

a) Draw water into the colon
b) Pull water from the colon into the interstitial space
c) Control cancer related nausea
d) Coat the wall of the GI tract

A

D, adsorbents coat the wall of the GI tract to help with diarrhea

65
Q

Which of the following is not an example of an adsorbent?

a) Kaopectate
b) Colace
c) Pepto bismol
d) Questran

A

B, Colace is not an adsorbent medication. It is a laxative.

66
Q

Which of the following is an emollient?

a) Colace
b) Fleet enema
c) Ducolax
d) Psyllium husk

A

A, Colace is an emollient laxative

67
Q

Which of the following is an osmotic laxative?

a) Colace
b) Fleet enema
c) Senna
d) Ducolax

A

B, A fleet enema is an example of an osmotic laxative

68
Q

What are contributing factors to GI ulcers? (Select all that apply)

a) Stress
b) Anger
c) Pain
d) Helicobacter pylori in stomach
e) Escheria Coli in urine
f) Genes
g) Location/Environment
h) Bleeding in esophagus

A

A, D, F, G are all contributing factors to ulcer formation

69
Q

True or False. “I can eat a spicy meal right before bed if I take my antacid right before.”

True or False. “Tight clothes do not affect my indigestion.”

True or False. “It is best to take NSAIDs for my gastric ulcer”

A

False. You should not eat spicy food right before bed because it can lead to indigestion and acid splashing up into the esophagus due to laying down right after eating

False. Tight clothing can add to symptoms of indigestion

False. NSAIDs are a contributing factor to stomach ulcers and can cause bleedin

Schoolcraft Nursing 104 Pharmacology (12 decks)

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