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Microbiology Exam 3 > Exam 3 - Outliers > Flashcards

Exam 3 - Outliers Flashcards

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1
Q

Bubonic Plague (lymph node infection)

A

Yersinia Pestis

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2
Q

gram negative bacillus (family Enterobacteriaceae)

BSAT - Biological Select Agents and Toxins

A

Yersinia Pestis

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3
Q

gram negative bacillus

BSAT - Biological Select Agents and Toxins

A

Yersinia Pestis (if family Enterobacteriaceae)

if not Enterobacteriaceae

Then it’s Francisella Tularensis (causes Tularemia)

Plague OR Tularemia

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4
Q

plasminogen activator protease think….

A

Yersinia Pestis

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5
Q

Enteric Fever (typhoid fever)

A

Salmonella Typhi and Paratyphi

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6
Q

Ulcerations
Typhoidal
Pneumonic

A

Francisella Tularensis

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7
Q

degrades c3b and c5a - prevents opsonization and phagocytic migration

degrades fibrin clots - permits spread and necrosis

A

Plasminogen activator protease (via the microbe Yersinia pestis)

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8
Q

transmitted by fleas

A 
Yersinia pestis (black death / bubonic plague / pneumonic plague)
Gram negative bacillus (family Enterobacteriaceae)

Rickettsia and Orienta
“atypical” small coccobacilli, obligate intracellular parasite

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9
Q

beta hemolytic colonies

A

Staphylococcus aureus

OR

Steptococcus pyogenes, group A

OR

Steptococcus dysgalatctiae and Steptococcus anginosus
(probably one of the first two probably not worth committing to memory these last two)

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10
Q

alpha hemolytic colonies

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

OR

Viridans streptococci (associated with various low-frequency diseases (abscesses, bacteremia and endocarditis, dental caries, etc)

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11
Q

Otitis Media

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae (40% of all cases)
Haemophilus influenzae

Moraxella catarrhalis (3rd most common cause of otitis media and sinusitis in children)

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12
Q

meningitis

A

Group B Streptococcus (neonates get meningitis and pneumonitis from vaginal flora)

Streptococcus pneumoniae (#1 cause of pneumonia, but also major cause of meningitis especially patients OLDER THAN 10 Y/O)

Haemophilus influenzae (Fulminating meningitis (HIB) in unvaccinated CHILDREN under 3 y/o and the ELDERLY via SUBMUCOSA of NASOPHARNYX)

Neisseria meningitidis (#2 cause of meningitis in SCHOOL AGE CHILDREN and COLLEGE STUDENTS)

Listeria monocytogenes (ENCEPHALOMENINGITIS)

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13
Q

IgA protease

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
 OR
Haemophilus influenzae
 OR
Neisseria meningitidis
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14
Q

Necrotizing fascitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A (#1 cause)
Vibrio vulnificus
Aeromonas spp. (also gastroenteritis and dysentery like)

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15
Q

which two can be identified by testing CSF:

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Haemophilus influenzae

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16
Q

Nosocomial or one of the top causes of hospital infections

A

Enterococcus faecalis (gram + in chains post surgery and occasionally causes bacteremia)

Escherichia coli (UTI’s catheterization)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (gram - bacillius) - more tissue infection than pulmonary (except in cystic fibrosis patients)

Acinetobacter baumannii (gram neg bacillus)

ALSO THE 6 listed under microbe 19 (Enterobacteriaceae of significance)

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17
Q

cystic fibrosis think….

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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18
Q

burn patient with bacteremia and UTI

A

Enterobacter, spp

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19
Q

burn-wound and UTI alone

A

Providencia spp.

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20
Q

VIETNAM, afghanistan and Iraq and nosocomial

A

Acinetobacter baumannii (gram neg bacillus)

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21
Q

undulant fever in humans

A

Brucella melitensis and B. abortus

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22
Q

Describe Staphylococcus Aureus and the 8 things he added to the summary sheet about it

A
  • coagulase positive
  • MRSA
  • invasive tissue infections, e.g. skin and tissue infections (invasive enzymes and toxins)
  • food poisoning (pre-formed enterotoxin (EXO))
  • Toxic Shock Syndrome (toxin)
  • Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN) (scalded skin synddrome) (toxin)
  • septicemia / bacteremia
  • bone/joint infection

(COMPARE WITH SKETCHY)

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23
Q

coagulase negative staph, CNS — normal skin flora; endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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24
Q

UTI in women of childbearing age

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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25
Q

massive diarrhea (toxin)

A

Vibrio cholerae (curved bacilli)

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26
Q

Describe Streptococcus pyogenes, group A and the major things he added to the summary sheet about it

A

Invasive tissue infections (invasive enzymes and toxins)

  • –impetigo, cellulitis, ersipeleas; scarlet fever – erythrogenic
  • –necrotizing fasciitis (strep gangrene, invasive cellulitis, “flesh-eating bateria”) and streptococcal toxin shock syndrome (highly invasive enzymes and toxins)

Acute exudative pharyngitis – post streptococcal complications – rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis

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27
Q

pneumonitis and meningitis in neonates from vaginal flora

A

Group B Streptococcus

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28
Q

pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis; meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumonieae (capsule, IgA protease)

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29
Q

bacteremia, nosocomial/ surgical wounds and UTI (multi-drug resistance)

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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30
Q

gastroenteritis from contaminated shellfish

A

Vibrio parahemolyticus

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31
Q

Vibrio cholerae (curved bacilli)

A

massive diarrhea (toxin)

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32
Q

septicemia, severe cellulitis, gastroenteritis

Raw uncooked seafood

severe cellulitis due to seawater

A

Vibrio vulnificus

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33
Q

gastroenteritis, especially from contaminated chicken or raw milk

A

Campylobacter jejuni (microaerophlic, curved bacilli)

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34
Q

Gram-positive cocci

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus

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35
Q

Gram-negative cocci

A 
Neisseria
Moraxella (elongated)
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36
Q

Gram-positive bacilli

A

Corynebacterium (aerobic, non-sporeforming)
Listeria monocytogenes (aerobic, non-sporeforming)
Bacillus (aerobic, sporeforming)
Clostridium (anaerobic, sporeforming)

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37
Q

Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method)

CCLMMR

A

Coxiella (ELISA, PCR)
Chlamydia (ELISA, PCR)
Legionella (immunodiagnostic)
Mycobacterium (acid-fast stain, PCR, special culture)
Mycoplasma (ELISA / EIA or special culture)
Rickettsia (immunodiagnostic)

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38
Q

Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method)

Mycobacterium = ?

A

(acid-fast stain, PCR, special culture)

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39
Q

Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method)

Chlamydia = ?

A

(ELISA, PCR)

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40
Q

What’s the Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method) for the following:

Mycoplasma

A

(ELISA / EIA or special culture)

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41
Q

What’s the Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method) for the following:

Legionella

A

(immunodiagnostic)

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42
Q

What’s the Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method) for the following:

Rickettsia

A

(immunodiagnostic)

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43
Q

What’s the Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method) for the following:

Coxiella

A

(ELISA, PCR)

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44
Q

What’s the Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method) for the following:

Treponema

A

(immunodiagnostics, immunofluorescence microscopy)( darkfield)

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45
Q

What’s the Special Culture or Exam Required (nonstaining by Gram’s method) for the following:

Trichomonas

A

(protozoa, wet prep. microscopy)

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46
Q

Gram-negative bacilli (enteric only)

A 
Escherichia	- enteric
Klebsiella	- enteric
Enterobacter	- enteric
Salmonella	- enteric
Shigella		- enteric
Proteus		- enteric
Providencia	- enteric
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47
Q

Gram-negative bacilli (non-enteric)

A 
Vibrio (curved)
Campylobacter (curved, microaerophilic)
Helicobacter (curved)
Haemophilus
Pseudomonas
Aeromonas
Plesiomonas
Acinetobacter
Bacteroides (anaerobic)
Brucella
Yersinia
Francisella
Bordetella
Burkholderia
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48
Q

· gastroenteritis (diarrhea), esp. from contaminated poultry (chicken) and reptiles (turtles, salamanders)
· invasion of intestinal mucous membrane but w/o significant deeper invasion or bloodstream invasion

A

Salmonella enteritidis (Antigenic types B and D predominate in USA)

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49
Q

· initial invasion and multiplication w/in intestinal membrane followed by invasion of bloodstream
· invasion/localization in gallbladder, spleen, liver, bones

A

Salmonella typhi – typhoid fever

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50
Q

· dysentery (bacillary dysentery, shigellosis) - invasion of intestinal epithelial cells with sloughing and bleeding
· exotoxin produced by some strains
· endotoxins stimulate some disease responses

A

Shigella (Antigenic groups D and B predominate in USA)

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51
Q

· urinary tract infections (adherence and colonization)
· ETEC (severe watery diarrhea due to cholera-like enterotoxins, esp. in travelers)
· EHEC (hemorrhagic colitis; enteroinvasive - invasion of intestinal epithelium, dysentery/bloody diarrhea, shiga-toxins, endotoxin)
 may cause hemolytic uremic syndrome; predominantly due to serotype O157:H7

A

Escherichia coli (genes for most toxins on plasmids) – normal fecal flora

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52
Q

· tuberculosis (pulmonary and/or disseminated)
 primary TB – mild/asymptomatic – skin test pos; chest x-ray neg; no sputum produced
—–tubercle bacteria survive macrophage and in lymph nodes
—–CMI slows growth and causes inflammation; bacteria contained w/in tubercles; disease remains latent/dormant possibly for years
 secondary TB – clinical TB – skin test pos, x-ray pos, sputum pos
—–CMI fails to contain growth; tubercles (Ghon complex) necrotic; enlarge and rupture into airways and blood vessels

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (acid fast bacillus) – use 3-5 drugs to overcome multi-drug resistance

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53
Q

pulmonary lesions and lymphadenitis; esp. in AIDS patients; resistant to many antituberculosis drugs

A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex –

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54
Q

meningitis in unvaccinated young children (HIB), epiglottitis, otitis media

A

Haemophilus influenzae –

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55
Q

chancroid (Asia)

A

Haemophilus ducreyi –

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56
Q

– meningococcal meningitis (primarily in ages 4-40; outbreaks in school settings)

A

Neisseria meningitis

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57
Q

– (urethritis, endocervicitis); septic arthritis

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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58
Q

– atypical bacteria, tissue cell culture; lab diagnosis by Ag detection
· STD “non-gonococcal urethritis/cervicitis” ; Trachoma-Inclusion Conjunctivitis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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59
Q

mild pneumonia, bronchitis; atherosclerosis

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae –

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60
Q

· primary atypical pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae – atypical bacteria, not cultured on typical agar media; lab diagnosis by Ag or Ab detection

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61
Q

(atypical, obligate intracellular parasites) – ID by antigen or antibody detection from blood or biopsy
· Rocky Mountain spotted fever; Epidemic Typhus– headache, fever, pain, rash
· R. rickettsii, R. prowazekii (others) – species specific and vector specific

A

Rickettsia

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62
Q

– food poisoning, meningitis

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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63
Q

– anthrax

A

Bacillus anthracis

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64
Q

– anaerobic, food poisoning, gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

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65
Q

– anaerobic, botulism from food poisoning (pre-formed toxin)

A

Clostridium botulinum

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66
Q

– anaerobic, antibiotic associated diarrhea (pseudomembranous colitis)

A

Clostridium difficile

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67
Q

– anaerobic, tetanus (neurotoxin)

A

Clostridium tetani

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68
Q

– anaerobic, deep abscesses, aspiration pneumonia, empyema

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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69
Q

– opportunistic nosocomial pathogen, wound infections; resistant to many antibiotics

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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70
Q

– opportunistic pneumonia

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae or Legionella

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71
Q

– opportunistic bacteremia, UTI, esp. in burn patients

A

Enterobacter

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72
Q

– nosocomial UTI and wound infections

A

Proteus

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73
Q

– opportunistic and nosocomial burn wound and UTI

A

Providencia

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74
Q

– opportunistic pneumonia

A

Legionella or Klebsiella

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75
Q

– peptic ulcers

A

Helicobacter pylori

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76
Q

– pertussis (whooping cough)

A

Bordetella pertussis

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77
Q

– diphtheria

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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78
Q

(coagulase positive) (MRSA)
· invasive tissue infections, e.g. skin and tissue infections (invasive enzymes and toxins)
· food poisoning (pre-formed enterotoxin)
· Toxic Shock Syndrome (toxin)
· Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN) (scalded skin syndrome) ( toxin)
· septicemia / bacteremia
· bone / joint infection

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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79
Q

· invasive tissue infections (invasive enzymes and toxins)
 impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas; scarlet fever – erythrogenic toxin
 necrotizing fasciitis (strep gangrene, invasive cellulitis, “flesh-eating bacteria”) and streptococcal toxin shock syndrome (highly invasive enzymes and toxins)
· acute exudative pharyngitis –> post-streptococcal complications – rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A

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80
Q

Heat Stable Enterotoxins (Genes on plasmids)

A

Two Options:

Enterotoxic E. Coli (ETEC)

or

Staphylococcus aureus

(OR BOTULISM, BUT NOT SURE ABOUT PLASMIDS)

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81
Q

reverses ion transport in gut (alters intestinal permeability)

A

Cholera toxin produced (enterotoxic exotoxin) which is produced by….

Vibrio cholerae

82
Q

Laboratory diagnosis - Special request for culture needed in the USA due to rarity and need for special media (alkaline and selective)

A

Vibrio cholerae

83
Q

Selective culture media with antibiotics

A

Campylobacter jejuni

84
Q

Requires enriched media (e.g. selective Supplemented Chocolate Agar) AND CO2

Only with chocolate agar AND CO2

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

85
Q

Needs supplemented chocolate agar (not CO2)

A

Haemophilus influenzae

86
Q

Flagella promote chemotaxis to colonize the intestine

A

Campylobacter jejuni

87
Q

intracellular parasites (i.e. macrophages);

resists killing by superoxide and hydroxyl radicals

inhibits phagosome-lysosome activity;

flagella promote invasion; secretes various proteins

A

Legionella pneumophila

88
Q

resists killing by superoxide and hydroxyl radicals

A

Legionella pneumophila

89
Q

rheumatic fever

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A

90
Q

Erythrogenic toxin – scarlet fever rash

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A

91
Q

Etiological agent of peptic ulcers – causes chronic inflammatory lesions of the gastric mucus layer

A

Helicobacter pylori

92
Q

Diagnostic testing

(1) Breath test to detect urease production
(2) Endoscopy and biopsy – Culture requires microaerophilic environment and special growth media; DNA probe

A

Helicobacter pylori

a. Curved gram-negative bacillus

93
Q

urease

A

Helicobacter pylori

94
Q

Ulcerations (2-3 days after exposure) - leads to glandular, nodular, lymph node involvement

A

Francisella tularensis

Transmitted by contact with infected tissues, blood, body fluids from ticks, deer flies, rabbits, cats, rodents, dried bodily fluids in blowing dust, etc.

95
Q

(1) Causes upper respiratory tract infections, especially including otitis media and sinusitis in children (3rd most common cause)
(2) Causes bronchitis or pneumonia in children and adults (in the top 3-4 of causes).

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

ENDOTOXIN + COMPLEMENT RESISTANCE + BETA-LACTAMASE PRODUCTION

96
Q

endotoxins, resistance to complement, beta-lactamase production (about 20% of strains)

ENDOTOXIN + COMPLEMENT RESISTANCE

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

ENDOTOXIN + COMPLEMENT RESISTANCE

Transmitted by contact with infected tissues, blood, body fluids from ticks, deer flies, rabbits, cats, rodents, dried bodily fluids in blowing dust, etc.

97
Q

gram negative cocci in pairs

A

moraxella

neisseria

98
Q

(1) Major cause (#2) of meningitis
(2) Often causes secondary tissue necrosis (invasive)

(1) Antigenic groups A, B, C, W, and Y (B, C, and Y problematic)
(2) Predominates (#1) in school-age children and college students; some epidemics in schools and day care centers
(3) Sub-Saharan Africa noted for noted for thousands of cases each year

A

Neisseria meningitidis

a. Gram-negative cocci in pairs

99
Q

Virulence factors

(1) Polysaccharide capsule - antiphagocytic
(2) Pili – tissue attachment and help resist phagocytosis
(3) Porin proteins – resist phagocytosis
(4) Lipooligosaccharide w/ Lipid A (i.e. endotoxin)
(5) IgA protease
(6) Disseminiated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

Neisseria meningitidis

100
Q

3 microbes with IgA protease?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis

101
Q

pili?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

Neisseria meningitidis

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

102
Q

e. Virulence factors
(1) Type b polysaccharide capsule
(2) Fimbriae (pili) – aid in attachment to epithelial cells
(3) IgA proteases
(4) Ciliostatic factor

A

Haemophilus influenzae

103
Q

Encapsulated strains classify into six antigenic types: A, B, C, D, E, and F. Type B is the most virulent.

A

Haemophilus influenzae

104
Q

Fulminating meningitis (HIB), in unvaccinated children less than 3 years old and in elderly – Invades the submucosa of the nasopharynx and then systemically spread via the blood circulatory system

A

Haemophilus influenzae

105
Q

Disseminiated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

Neisseria meningitidis

106
Q

urethitis in males

endothelial cell of urethra for men

Female – endocervix and/or Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis

(most patients have both)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(1) Male – urethritis
(2) Female – endocervix and/or Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

Chlamydia trachomatis
Cervicitis in female, usually asymptomatic – Often leads to salpingitis and infertility or acute pelvic inflammatory disease

107
Q 
Elementary Bodies (EB)
Reticulate Bodies (RB)
A

Chlamydia trachomatis

108
Q

Cell structures

(1) Lipopolysaccharide – only weak endotoxin activity
(2) Major Outer Membrane Protein (MOMP) – the important structural component of cell wall

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

109
Q

Inclusion conjunctivitis disease – a leading cause of blindness

A

Trachoma

Chlamydia trachomatis

110
Q

involvement of inguinal lymph nodes

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

Chlamydia trachomatis

111
Q

walking pneumoniae AKA Primary Atypical Pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

112
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes which type of pneumonia?

A

walking pneumoniae AKA Primary Atypical Pneumonia

113
Q

bacteria invade epithelial cells of terminal portion of small intestines

A

Enteric Fever (Typhoid Fever) - Salmonella Typhi and Paratyphi

114
Q

O and H antigens

A

salmonella

115
Q

in salmonella, which antigenic groups predominate?

A

B and D

116
Q

frequent normal flora of poultry (turkeys and chickens), livestock, rodents, reptile (turtle)

A

salmonella

117
Q

acute inflammatory reaction in the subepithelial tissue of intestinal mucous membranes

diarrhea (rarely bloody) and vomiting

A

acute gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella enteritidis

118
Q

is typhoid fever acute?

how long are you a carrier?
where is it stored?

A

NO… it takes 10-14 days for fever, and 15-20 days for GI symptoms.

carrier state for 3 months in 5% of patients - gallbladder is where most bacilli are located in carriers

119
Q

coliform =?

A

normal flora of the intestinal tract

120
Q

three examples of coliform

A

normal flora of the intestinal tract

Escherichia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter

121
Q

aspiration pneumonia

A

Bacteroides fragiles

122
Q

walking pneumonia “primary atypical pneumonia)

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

123
Q

Traveler’s diarrhea

A

ETEC (entertoxic e. coli)

124
Q

E. coli causing diarrhea withOUT mucus and blood

A

ETEC (enterotoxic E. coli) or traveler’s diarrhea

125
Q

E. coli causing diarrhea withOUT mucus and blood

A

ETEC or Enterotoxic E. coli

126
Q

O157:H7

No fever, grossly bloody diarrhea and inflammation

A

EHEC

E Cola Burgers only $1.57

127
Q

produces Shigella-like toxins (stx1, stx2)

High fever, profuse bloody diarrhea

A

EIEC

128
Q

may cause hemolytic uremic syndrom (HUS) which is hemorrhage of kidney tissue

A

EHEC

129
Q

dysentery or dysentery like

A

Shigella Dysenteria
EHEC
Aeromonas
Plesiomonas shigelloides

130
Q

Gram negative bacillus, pleomorphic stains poorly (requires immunodiagnostic)

top 5 cases of pneumonia

Intercellular parasite; superoxide and hydroxyl radicals

A

Legionella pneumophilia

131
Q

nosocomial infection in severely compromised

infrequently superficial wound or UTI

mucoid strains colonize URT of cystic fibrosis patients

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

gram negative bacilli

132
Q

post traumatic wound abscess and septicemia (opportunistic)

Vietnam, Afghanistan, and Iraq

Soil and water

gram negative bacillus

A

Acinetobacter baumannii

133
Q

zoonotic disease

A

brucellosis via brucella

134
Q

Bangs disease (spontaneous abortion in animals)

Undulant fever in humans

unpasteurized dairy or contact with animals

A

Brucella melitensis and Brucella abortus

135
Q

Intracellular pathogen

Ulcerations (2-3 days after exposure) - leads to glandular, nodular, lymph node involvement
Typhoidal (septicemia, systemic)
Pneumonic (sim to typical pneumonia)

transmitted by contact with infected tissues, blood, body fluids from ticks, deers, flies, rabbits, cats, rodents

A

Francisella tularensis

136
Q

whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

137
Q

leading cause of bacterial pinkeye

A

conjunctivitis via Haemophilus influenzae

138
Q

what are the virulence factors for Haemophilus influenza?

A

type b polysaccharide capsule

Fimbrae (pili)

IgA proteases

Ciliostatic factor

139
Q

testing via CSF?

A

Haemophilus influenzae

OR

Streptococcus pneumonaie

140
Q

epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae

141
Q

lipooligosaccharide w/ Lipid A

A

Neisseria

142
Q

Cattle MEANS ONE OF THESE THREE

A

Coxiella burnetti

Salmonella

Campylobacter jejuni

EHEC

143
Q

Chickens — one of three

A

Salmonella

Campylobacter jejuni

EHEC

144
Q

Children under 10 account for 2/3 of cases

A

Shigella

145
Q

predominantly children 5 -15 years of age and acute exudative pharyngitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A

146
Q

1 cause of necrotizing fasciitis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes, group A

147
Q

school of fish arrangement

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

Gram negative coccobacillus (very, small, short rod)

148
Q

small gram-negative coccobacillus, very slow growing

undulant fever in humans
joint pain
neuro symptoms
bone or join disease

A

Brucella melitensis and B. abortus

149
Q

very small gram-negative bacillus; grows poorly in standard culture media

ulcerations lead to glandular, nodular, lymph node involvment

A

Francisella tularensis

150
Q

Virulence factors of Francisella tularensis

A

intracellular pathogen; survives prolonged periods in macrophages

Antiphagocytic capsule; also protects from complement activity

Requires VERY STRONG immune response to control replication

151
Q

Gram negative cocco-bacillus

Whooping cough

Bronchitis

Re-emerging pathogen

Virulence due to Pertussis toxin, thick capsule, and exudate

A

Bordetella pertussis

152
Q

Gram-negative coccobacillus (very small, short rod)

Virulence factors:

Type b polysaccharide
Fimbrae (pili)
IgA proteases
Ciliostatic factor

A

Haemophilus influenze

153
Q

Haemophilus influenze

Virulence factors?

A

Virulence factors:

Type b polysaccharide
Fimbrae (pili)
IgA proteases
Ciliostatic factor

154
Q

All gram negative cocci are in what?

A

pairs

155
Q

The coccobacillus?

A

Brucella melitensis and B. abortus

Bordatella pertussis

Haemophilus influenzae

(Rickettsia/O AND

Coxiella, but neither stain)

156
Q

pneumonia and UTI

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae (gram neg bacillus)

157
Q

bactermia and UTI, especially in burn patients

A

Enterobacter, spp. (gram neg bacillus)

158
Q

UTI, wound

A

Proteus spp.

159
Q

burn wound, UTI

A

Providencia

160
Q

gasteroenteritis (cholera-like and dysentery-like) and cellulitis (rare necrotizing fasciitis)

A

Aeromonas spp.

161
Q

diarrhea and occasional dysentery, especially after ingesting raw seafood;

sometimes can be invasive cellulitis, bacteremia, peritonitis, meningoencephalitis. Most are ABX resistant

A

Plesiomonas shigelloides

162
Q

the MOST prevalent anaerobic bacteria (normal flora and pathogen) - normal microbiota of Gut and Oropharnyx

A

Bacteroides fragilis which is an etiologic agent off…

… aspiration pneumonia
empyema (about 30%)
lung abscess
deep wound abscess when contaminated with endogenous material

163
Q

deep wound abscess when contaminated with endogenous material

A

Bacteroides fragilis

164
Q

black scab = black eschar

A

cutaneous anthrax (papule leads to blister like vesicle leads to necrotic lesion with black scab or black eschar)

165
Q

(papule leads to blister like vesicle leads to necrotic lesion with black scab or black eschar)

A

cutaneous anthrax

166
Q

two types of anthrax?

which is more lethal?

A

pulmonary (60-100% mortality)

cutaneous (20% mortality)

167
Q

which pathogen will cause a widened mediastinum?

A

pulmonary anthrax from Bacillus anthracis

168
Q

sub saharan Africa

school age children / college / day care centers and schools

A

Neisseria meningitidis

169
Q

Africa / SE Asia / India / C and S America

A

vibrio cholerae

170
Q

sporadic mild gastorenteritis with bloody diarrhea, vomiting, fever

A

Yersinia entercolitica

invasive and necrotic to intestinal lining

invades PEYERS PATCHES and disseminates liver and spleen

possibly 90 days of shedding in stool

main transmission via contaminated pork, TOFU, water and milk

171
Q

Yersinia entercolitica

causes what?

invasive and necrotic to?

invades what and disseminates where?

possibly 90 days of what?

main transmission?

A

causes what mild sporadic GE w/ bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and low fever

invasive and necrotic to intestinal lining

invades PEYERS PATCHES and disseminates liver and spleen

possibly 90 days of shedding in stool

main transmission via contaminated pork, TOFU, water and milk

172
Q

most common dysentery?

A

Shigellosis or Bacillary dysentery — enterocolitis syndrome from Shigella

173
Q

12 hours or less toxin?

A

Salmonella enteritica Group B (most common in US)

174
Q

Localization of bacteria in gallbladder, spleen, liver, and sometimes bones

Invades Peyer’s patches and disseminates to liver and spleen.

Disseminated (kidney, liver, testes, CNS) (((Rapid failure of Cell Mediated Immunity may lead to disseminated….)))

A

Enteric Fever (Typhoid fever) — Salmonella Typhi and Paratyph

Yersinia enterocolitica

Mycobacterium tubeculosis …. miliary
tuberculosis

175
Q

WEEKS to onset

OR

WEEKS of being contageous

OR

WEEKS until increasing likelihood of acquiring or acquisition

A

Brucella - slow growing 2 weeks to 2 months to grow…. disease onset: 3 days to several weeks (small gram-neg cocco bacillus)

Salmonella typhi - ENTERIC FEVER / Typhoid fever - fever after 10 to 14 days, GI after 15-20 days of ingestion

Mycoplasma pneumoniae - symptoms after 1-3 weeks: durations of illness: often more than a month - (Atypical bacterium - no cell wall)

Rickettsia and Orientitia - abrupt onset, but LONG fever for 2-3 weeks (atypical bacteria – small, coccobacilli, obligate intracellular parasites)

C. diff– in 13% of patients with 2 weeks in hospital and 50% of patients with stays over 4 weeks

176
Q

which gram stain or morphology typically always has an endotoxin

A

Gram negative

177
Q

Deep wound abscess with anaerobe and ENDOGENOUS vs EXOGENOUS?

A

Endogenous material = Bacteroides fragiles

Exogenous material = Clostridium

178
Q

number 2 cause of pneumonia?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

179
Q

pseudomembranous?

A

Gram-positive bacilli spore forming with PSEDUOMEMBRANOUS COLITIS = Clostridium difficile

Gram-positive bacilli, aerobic, non sporeforming with PSEUDOMEMBRANE in the THROAT = Corynebacterium diptheriae (affects myocardium)

180
Q

Edema Toxin and Lethal toxin

A

Bacillus anthracis

181
Q

Easily areosolized (spores)

Highly infectious

Phagocytic cells carry spores to lymph nodes

flu-like; fever, malaise, mild chest discomfort –> leading to

A

widened mediastinum from the microbe

Bacillus anthracis

182
Q

few spores to cause disease in anthrax?

A

NO… 8k to 10k to establish infection!

183
Q

septic arthritis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

OR

Neisseria gonorrhea

184
Q

if you do an oxidation reduction reaction… you are going to REDUCE an anaerobe like…

A

Clostridium or Bacteroides fragiles

185
Q

degrades fibrin clots
degrades c3b and c5a - prevents opsonization and migration
(plasminogen activator protease)

A

Yersinia pestis

186
Q

coccobacillus is one of these (5):

A

Brucella

Coxiella burnetti

Haemophilus influenzae

Rickettsia and Orientitia

Bordatella pertussis

187
Q

7 biological threat agents?

BBCCEFP

A

Brucella melitensis and B. abortus

Bacillus anthracis

Clostridium botulinum

Coxiella burnetti

Epidemic typhis - classical typhi - R. prowazekki

Franciscella tularensis

Plague - Yersinia pestis

188
Q

Brucella melitensis and B. abortus

Bacillus anthracis

Clostridium botulinum

Coxiella burnetti

Epidemic typhis - classical typhi - R. prowazekki

Franciscella tularensis

Plague - Yersinia pestis

A

7 biological threat agents?

189
Q

top 3 bronchitis?

A
  1. Bordatella pertussis
  2. Moraxella catarhallis
  3. Chlamydia pneumoniae
190
Q

top 3 of diarrhea ?

A

Asia: Vibrio cholerae

N America / Europe - Campylobacter, Salmonella enteritidis

191
Q

Bio threat agents- 7 total

BBCCEFU

A

Bacillus anthracis
Brucellosis melitinsis and abortus - bangs disease into
Clostridium botulism
Coxiella burnetti - Q fever
Epidemic Typhus - R. Prowazekki - classical typhus
Franciscella tularensis - tularemia
Yersinia pestis - plague

192
Q

Top 6 Meningitis

A 
Strep pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis (#1 in school age and college)
H. influenzae (fulminating)
Group B strep (neonates)
Listeria (meningoencephalitis)
Plesiomonas shigelloides (enchephalo)
193
Q

Beta-lactamase

A

Moraxellia catarrhalis

Staphylococcus aureus

Neisseria gonorrhea

Haemophilus influenzae

194
Q

Peyers Patches (liver and spleen)

A

Yersinia entercolitcus (enteric)

195
Q

Epiglotitis (only one mentioned)

Laryngitis (only one mentioned)

A

H. Influenzae

196
Q

Strep pyogenes, group A virulence factors?

A

Numerous invasive enzymes and toxins

Capsule of hyaluronic acid appears similar to ‘self’ Ag to host defenses

antiphagocytic, M protein

Erythrogenic toxin

Streptolysin O and S

197
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome is what mediated?

A

plasma and prevalent in Staph aureus

198
Q

Major Out Membrane Protein (MOMP)

A

Chlaymydia trachomatis

199
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea virulence factors?

A

Beta lactamase
Pili
Porin proteins
Lipooligosaccharide w Lipid A (endotoxin)

200
Q

initially a localized red rash, often following conjuctivitis or URI

FLacid bullae that ruptures sheets of epidermis…. revealing dermis

Bullae no live bacteria inside

A

TENS
(toxic epidermal necrolysis)

from Staph aureus

201
Q

two atypical pneumonias?

A

atypical number 1 and 2

Mycoplasma pneumoniae (basic training)
Chlamydia pneumoniae
202
Q

thick capsule

A

Bordatella pertussis

Microbiology Exam 3 (15 decks)

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