Exam 3 Full Overview Flashcards

1
Q

Cut in half lengthwise

A

Bivalve

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2
Q

The weight pulling against the weight of the traction

A

Countertraction force

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3
Q

Back

A

Dorsum

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4
Q

Metal device inserted into or through one or more bones to stabilize fragments of a fracture while it heals

A

External fixator

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5
Q

Muscular weakness or partial paralysis affecting one side of the body

A

Hemiparesis

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6
Q

One-sided paralysis

A

Hemiplegia

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7
Q

Massage or debridement by moving water

A

Hydrotherapy

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8
Q

Pneumonia caused by stasis of ling secretions due to inactivity, which provides a medium for bacterial growth

A

Hypostatic pneumonia

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9
Q

Rendering a part incapable of moving

A

Immobilization

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10
Q

Exercises performed against resistance

A

Isometric exercises

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11
Q

Moving

A

Kinetic

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12
Q

Soft material, often with an adhesive backing, used especially on the feet to protect against chafing

A

Moleskin

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13
Q

Rectangular frame to which traction equipment may be attached

A

Over-the-bed frame

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14
Q

Person who is paralyzed in the legs and lower part of the body

A

Paraplegic

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15
Q

Feeling of numbness or tingling

A

Paresthesia

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16
Q

Artificial body part

A

Prosthesis

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16
Q

The act of pouring over or through, especially the passage of a fluid through the vessels of a specific organ; circulation of blood through tissue

A

Perfusion

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17
Q

Individuals who are paralyzed in all four limbs

A

Quadriplegics

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18
Q

Bandage for supporting a part

A

Sling

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19
Q

Figure-of-eight cast

A

Spica cast

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20
Q

Device that protects an injured body part by immobilizing it

A

Splint

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21
Q

The act of drawing or exerting a pulling force, as along the axis of a structure

A

Traction

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22
Q

Overhead bar on a bed, which the patient can grab

A

Trapeze bar

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23
Q

Localized infection consisting of an accumulation of purulent material made up of debris from phagocytosis when microorganisms have been present

A

Abscess

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24
Q

Fibrous bands that holds together parts that are normally separated

A

Adhesion

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25
Q

Fatty; composed of fat cells

A

Adipose

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26
Q

The generation of new blood vessels

A

Angiogenesis

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27
Q

To close together, as in wound healing

A

Approximate

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28
Q

Degree of closure of a wound

A

Approximation

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29
Q

Support bandage that wraps around the breasts or abdomen and is secured with ties, Velcro, or elastic

A

Binder

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30
Q

Acute, spreading inflammation of the deep subcutaneous tissues and sometimes muscle, which may be associated with abscess formation

A

Cellulitis

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31
Q

Fibrous structural protein of all connective tissue

A

Collagen

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32
Q

Removal of foreign or unhealthy tissue from a wound

A

Debridement

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33
Q

Redness of the skin caused by congestion of the capillaries in the lower layers of the skin that occurs with any skin injury, infection, or inflammation

A

Erythema

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34
Q

Slough produced by a thermal burn, corrosive material or gangrene

A

Eschar

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35
Q

Fluid in or on tissue surfaces that has escaped from blood vessels in response to inflammation and that contains protein and cellular debris

A

Exudate

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36
Q

Insoluble protein essential to clotting

A

Fibrin

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37
Q

Abnormal, tubelike passage within a body tissue, usually between two internal organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface

A

Fistula

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38
Q

Connective tissue with multiple small blood vessels

A

Granulation tissue

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39
Q

Arrest of the escape of blood by natural (clot formation or vessel spasm) or artificial (compression) means, or the interruption of blood flow to a part

A

Hemostasis

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40
Q

Having poorly functioning immune systems

A

Immunocompromised

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41
Q

The skin covering the body

A

Integument

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42
Q

Permanent raised, enlarged scar

A

Keloid

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43
Q

Torn, ragged, or mangles wound

A

Laceration

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44
Q

Breakdown, disintegration; also reduction or abatement

A

Lysis

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45
Q

The softening of tissue that increases the chance of trauma or infection

A

Maceration

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46
Q

Any of the mononuclear phagocytes found in tissues

A

Macrophages

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47
Q

Local death of tissue from disease or injury

A

Necrosis

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48
Q

The engulfing of microorganisms and foreign particles by phagocytes

A

Phagocytosis

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49
Q

Clumping of platelets during wound healing

A

Platelet aggregation

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50
Q

Type of wound healing (closure) for wounds with little tissue loss, such as a surgical incision

A

Primary intention

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51
Q

Containing thick, typically white-yellow or yellow exudate, caused by infection

A

Purulent

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52
Q

Bloody

A

Sanguineous

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53
Q

Type of wound healing for wounds with tissue loss, as in pressure injuries; the wound remains open and fills with scar tissue

A

Secondary intention

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54
Q

Composed of serum and blood

A

Serosanguineous

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55
Q

Canal or passageway leading to an abscess

A

Sinus

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56
Q

When a layer of dead tissue separates from living tissue; to shed dead tissue

A

Sloughing

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57
Q

The formation of purulent matter

A

Suppuration

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58
Q

Type of wound healing; delayed or secondary closure, such as a draining abdominal wound

A

Tertiary intention

59
Q

Absence of urine

A

Anuria

60
Q

Insertion of a tube into a body channel or cavity

A

Catheterization

61
Q

Chair with a container inserted to catch urine or feces

A

Commode chair

62
Q

Condom with a tube attached to the distal end that is attached to a drainage bag

A

Condom catheter

63
Q

Massage from top of bladder to bottom by starting above the pubic bone and rocking the palm of the hand steadily downward

A

Crede maneuver

64
Q

Inflammation of the bladder

A

Cystitis

65
Q

Painful urination

A

Dysuria

66
Q

Nighttime loss of bladder control; bedwetting

A

Enuresis

67
Q

Glucose in the urine

A

Glycosuria

68
Q

Blood in the urine

A

Hematuria

69
Q

Administration of a liquid drop by drop

A

Instillation

70
Q

Acetone bodies in the urine

A

Ketonuria

71
Q

Urination

A

Micturition

72
Q

Voiding during the night

A

Nocturia

73
Q

Diminished amount of urine formation

A

Oliguria

74
Q

Production of an excessive amount of urine

A

Polyuria

75
Q

Excess of serum proteins in the urine

A

Proteinuria

76
Q

Purulent exudate in the urine

A

Pyuria

77
Q

Urine left in the bladder after urination

A

Residual urine

78
Q

Narrowed lumen

A

Stricture

79
Q

Above the pubic bone

A

Suprapubic

80
Q

Involuntary emission of urine from the body

A

Urinary incontinence

81
Q

Urine retained in the bladder after voiding

A

Urinary retention

82
Q

Expelling urine

A

Urination

83
Q

Instrument that measures the specific gravity (thinness or thickness) of urine

A

Urinometer

84
Q

Artificial opening on the abdomen through which urine drains

A

Urostomy

85
Q

Excrete urine

A

Void

86
Q

Opening of the rectum at the skin

A

Anus

87
Q

Device or apparatus used for therapy or to improve function

A

Appliance

88
Q

Decrease in size or a wasting away of a cell, tissue, organ, or part

A

Atrophy

89
Q

Orange or yellow digestive fluid produced by the liver

A

Bile

90
Q

Program of timing bowel movements and the scheduling toileting to promote a regular evacuation time

A

Bowel training program

91
Q

Liquefied food and digestive juices

A

Chyme

92
Q

Artificial opening (stoma) created in the large intestine and brought to the surface of the abdomen for evacuating the bowels

A

Colostomy

93
Q

Decreased frequency of bowel movement or passage of hard, dry feces

A

Constipation

94
Q

Expel feces

A

Defecate

95
Q

Frequent loose stool

A

Diarrhea

96
Q

Discharged fecal matter

A

Effluent

97
Q

Abrasion of the skin

A

Excoriation

98
Q

Collection of hardened feces in the rectum or colon

A

Fecal impaction

99
Q

Involuntary passage of feces

A

Fecal incontinence

100
Q

Intestinal waste matter

A

Feces

101
Q

Intestinal gas released from the anus

A

Flatus

102
Q

Increase in intestinal and colonic peristaltic activity following the arrival of food into the empty stomach

A

Gastrocolic reflex

103
Q

Enlarged veins inside or just outside the rectum

A

Hemorrhoid

104
Q

Opening surgically created at the ileum to divert intestinal contents after lower portions of the bowel have been surgically removed

A

Ileostomy

105
Q

Blood that has changed into a dark, tarry substance as it moves through the stomach or small intestine

A

Melena

106
Q

Hidden or concealed

A

Occult

107
Q

Diversion of intestinal contents from their normal path, resulting in an artificial opening into the intestine

A

Ostomy

108
Q

Obstruction of the intestines from inhibition of bowel motility

A

Paralytic ileus

109
Q

Area around a stoma

A

Periostomal

110
Q

The action caused by muscle fibers in a tubular organ that propels contents through the organ in waves

A

Peristalsis

111
Q

Distal portion of the large intestine where the feces are stored

A

Rectum

112
Q

Circular muscle that closes an orifice

A

Sphincter

113
Q

Stools with an abnormally high fat content

A

Steatorrhea

114
Q

Opening

A

Stoma

115
Q

Waste eliminated from the colon

A

Stool

116
Q

Activation of the vagal nerve

A

Vagal response

117
Q

Closure of glottis and tightening of abdominal muscles after intra-abdominal pressure increases when one holds ones breath; may result in involuntary defecation

A

Valsalva maneuver

118
Q

Blood in the stool is caused by

A

Hemorrhoids

119
Q

A patient on bed rest is at risk for

A

Constipation

120
Q

Skin irritation from incontinence is also known as

A

Excoriation

121
Q

The normal color for a stoma is

A

Pink/red

122
Q

Drainage diversion from the small bowel is known as

A

Ileostomy

123
Q

Treatment for diarrhea includes

A

A clear liquid diet

124
Q

An over-the-counter remedy for constipation that interferes with vitamin absorption is

A

Mineral oil

125
Q

Increased peristalsis may cause

A

Diarrhea

126
Q

A patient with discomfort due to flatus may be relieved with a

A

Rectal tube

127
Q

An example of an open wound is a

A

Laceration

128
Q

A wound that requires the removal of eschar will appear

A

Black

129
Q

A type of dressing that allows the nurse to assess the wound without removing it is called

A

OpSite

130
Q

What type of wound debridement is best used on small, uninfected wounds

A

Autolytic

131
Q

What is the average hourly urine output in mL for an adult

A

30

132
Q

What technique should be used when irrigating a urinary drainage system

A

Aseptic technique

133
Q

A catheter that uses an inflated balloon to maintain placement in the bladder is

A

Retention

134
Q

Frequent urinary urgency and burning during urination are common symptoms of

A

Cystitis

135
Q

The normal urine pH is

A

5 to 7

136
Q

A pouch collecting urine from a stoma is known as a

A

Urostomy

137
Q

Urine remaining in the bladder after urination is known as

A

Urinary retention

138
Q

Cloudy urine may indicate presence of

A

Bacteria

139
Q

Finding of excess sugar in the urine is known as

A

Glycosuria

140
Q

Where should the catheter drainage bag be kept in relation to the level of the bladder

A

Below

141
Q

Besides pressure ulcers being a consequence of immobility, another complication that should be considered a priority is

A

Hypostatic pneumonia

142
Q

Plaster casts and fiberglass casts differ in that plaster casts…

A

Take hours to fully dry

143
Q

During the drying period, it is very important to protect a cast from

A

Uneven pressure

144
Q

When a patient is immobilized, respiratory secretions can collect in the lower airways, leading to

A

Hypostatic pneumonia

145
Q

To bandage and stabilize an elbow, knee, or ankle, use a

A

Figure-of-8-turn