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Fundamentals > Exam 1 Full Overview > Flashcards

Exam 1 Full Overview Flashcards

1
Q

A state of optimal physical, mental, and social well-being; means different things to different people

A

Health

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2
Q

Disease of body or mind

A

Illness

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3
Q

What illness persists for a long time

A

Chronic

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4
Q

What illness develops suddenly and resolves in a short time

A

Acute

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5
Q

What illness is there no cure for and ends in death

A

Terminal

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6
Q

What illness develops without being caused by another health problem

A

Primary

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7
Q

What illness results from a primary illness

A

Secondary

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8
Q

What illness is present at birth

A

Congenital

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9
Q

What illness starts with no known cause

A

Idiopathic

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10
Q

What are the stages of illness

A

Transition, acceptance, convalescence

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11
Q

What stage- the onset of illness may consist of vague, nonspecific symptoms

A

Transition

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12
Q

What stage- the person stops denying illness and assumes the “sick role”

A

Acceptance

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13
Q

What stage- the process of recovering after the illness and starts regaining health

A

Convalescence

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14
Q

What are some variable that influence health and illness

A

Genetic influence, age, sex, culture, religion, beliefs, previous health experiences

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15
Q

Any action undertaken to promote health, prevent disease, or detect disease in an early asymptomatic stage

A

Health behavior

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16
Q

Without symptoms

A

Asymptomatic

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17
Q

Any activity someone takes to determine their actual state of health and to seek a suitable remedy for a health problem

A

Illness behavior

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18
Q

Considers the persons biologic, psychological, sociological, and spiritual aspects and needs

A

Holistic approach

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19
Q

What are Maslow’s hierarchy of needs in order

A

Physiologic, safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem, self-actualization

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20
Q

Tendency of biologic systems to maintain a state of internal environment by continually adjusting to changes needed for survival

A

Homeostasis

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21
Q

Occurs in response to long-term exposure to stress

A

General adaptation syndrome

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22
Q

What are the stages of general adaptation syndrome

A

Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

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23
Q

What stage- hormone release mobilizes the body defenses

A

Alarm stage

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24
Q

What stage- the body is battling for equilibrium

A

Stage of resistance

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25
Q

What stage- occurs when stress is present over a long enough time to deplete the body’s resources for adaptation

A

Stage of exhaustion

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26
Q

Adjusting to or solving challenges

A

Coping

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27
Q

Strategies that protect us from increasing anxiety; used to maintain and improve self-esteem

A

Defense mechanisms

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28
Q

Avoids or delays occurrence of a specific disease or disorder

A

Primary prevention

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29
Q

Following guidelines for screening for diseases that are easily treated if found early

A

Secondary prevention

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30
Q

Rehabilitation measures after the disease or disorder has stabilized

A

Tertiary prevention

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31
Q

The entry of a microorganism into the body that multiplies and disrupts tissue integrity

A

Infection

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32
Q

Microorganisms capable of causing disease

A

Pathogens

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33
Q

Single-cell microorganisms lacking a nucleus that reproduce from every few minutes up to several weeks

A

Bacteria

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34
Q

How is bacteria classified

A

need for oxygen, shape, and Gram staining properties

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35
Q

What bacteria needs oxygen to live and grow

A

Aerobic

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36
Q

What bacteria only grown in the absence of oxygen

A

Anaerobic

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37
Q

Chemical substance that can kill or alter the growth of bacterial organisms

A

Antibiotic

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38
Q

Extremely small particles of nucleic acids, either DNA or RNA, with a coat of protein, and in some cases a membranous envelope, that can trigger in immune reaction or damage cells in other ways

A

Viruses

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39
Q

Tiny, primitive organisms of the kingdom fungi that contain no chlorophyll that thrive in warm, moist environments

A

Fungi

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40
Q

Killing or suppressing growth of microorganisms

A

Antimicrobial

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41
Q

What is the chain of infection

A

Process by which an infection is spread from one person to another; infectious agent, source, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host

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42
Q

What is an infectious (causative) agent and examples

A

Any microorganism or biologic agent capable of causing disease; bacteria, virus, parasite, fungus

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43
Q

What is a source (reservoir) and examples

A

Places where microorganisms are found; animal, insect, inanimate object, human

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44
Q

What is a portal of exit and and examples

A

Route by which a pathogen leaves the body of its host; respiratory tract, GI tract, blood, skin/mucosal surfaces

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45
Q

What are examples of modes of transmission (transfer)

A

Contact, airborne, droplet, vector-borne

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46
Q

What is portal of entry and examples

A

Pathogens enter the body through the mucous membrane; GI tract, nonintact skin, respiratory tract

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47
Q

What are examples of susceptible host

A

Immunosuppressed, trauma, surgery, chronically ill, and elderly

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48
Q

What is the first line of defense

A

Intact skin

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49
Q

What is the second line of defense

A

Helps destroy pathogens that escape the first line

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50
Q

Slows the growth of microorganisms

A

Fever

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51
Q

Increased production of leukocytes (WBC)

A

Leukocytosis

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52
Q

Eat bacteria, work to destroy or stop invasion

A

Phagocytosis

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53
Q

Localized response to injury

A

Inflammatory response

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54
Q

Interferes in the replication of many viruses; in response to viral invasion

A

Interferon

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55
Q

What is the third line of defense

A

Immune response

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56
Q

Immunity where the fetus receives antibodies from the mother

A

Naturally acquired passive immunity

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57
Q

Immunity where antitoxin or antiserum is given

A

Passive acquired immunity

58
Q

Immunity that uses immunizations

A

Artificially acquired immunity

59
Q

Immunity where antibodies derived from serum of infected people or animals is injected

A

Passive artificially acquired immunity

60
Q

Making environment free of microorganisms

A

Asepsis

61
Q

Reducing number of organisms present or risk for transmission; prevents reinfection of a patient; clean technique

A

Medical asepsis

62
Q

Preparing and handling materials in a way that prevents exposure to living microorganisms; sterile technique

A

Surgical asepsis

63
Q

Removes and inhibits the growth of microorganisms; removal of visible soiling

A

Cleaning

64
Q

Kills microorganisms in inanimate objects; eliminates organisms that are left after cleaning

A

Disenfecting

65
Q

Kills microorganisms on skin

A

Antiseptic

66
Q

Eliminates microorganisms from equipment and supplies; uses heat/steam

A

Sterilization

67
Q

When does infection occur

A

When pathogenic microorganisms invade the body

68
Q

What are the stages of infection

A

Incubation, prodromal, illness, and convalescent

69
Q

Organisms enter the body, lasts until onset of symptoms

A

Incubation period

70
Q

Onset of vague symptoms to the beginning of specific symptoms of infection

A

Prodromal Period

71
Q

Localized and systemic signs and symptoms appear

A

Illness period

72
Q

Recovery; symptoms subside to normal state of health

A

Convalescent period

73
Q

Infections transmitted to a person while receiving health care services

A

Health care associated infection (HAIs)

74
Q

What are examples of device associated infections

A

Central lines, catheters, ventilators

75
Q

What are standard precautions

A

Delineate methods for avoiding direct contact with all body secretions; used for all patients

76
Q

What are airborne precatuions

A

Prevent transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air; negative air pressure room, N95 Respirator

77
Q

What are droplet precations

A

For patients with known or suspected serious illness transmitted by large-particle droplets; mask, stay 3 feet away

78
Q

What are contact precautions

A

Transmitted by direct contact; gloves, gown

79
Q

What is donning and the process for PPE

A

Putting on; gown, mask, goggles, gloves

80
Q

What is doffing and the process for PPE

A

Taking off; gloves, goggles, gown, mask

81
Q

Dense, hard type of connective tissue; framework

A

Bones

82
Q

The place of union of two or more bones in the body; moves freely

A

Joint

83
Q

Small fluid-filled sacs that provide a cushion at friction points in freely movable joints

A

Bursae

84
Q

Striated muscles that are made of bundles of muscle fibers surrounded by a connective tissue sheath

A

Skeletal muscles

85
Q

Cords of fibrous connective tissue that connect a muscle to a bone to allow for joint movement

A

Tendons

86
Q

Connect bones or cartilage to provide support and strength

A

Ligament

87
Q

A fibrous connective tissue that acts as a cushion

A

Cartilage

88
Q

What are changes that occur with aging

A

Loss of bone strength and mass, loss of bone density, loss of muscle cells, decreased muscle fiber elasticity, decrease of joint motion

89
Q

Study of the movement of body parts

A

Kinesiology

90
Q

Tissue injuries that form from local interference with circulation

A

Pressure injury

91
Q

Resistance to stretch in damaged muscle that pulls a joint into a fixed or “frozen” position

A

Contractures

92
Q

Decrease in muscle mass, flexibility, and strength

A

Muscle atrophy

93
Q

Local death of tissue from disease of injury

A

Necrosis

94
Q

What areas are most likely to get a pressure injury

A

A bony prominence

95
Q

Applied force that causes a downward and forward pressure on the tissues beneath the skin

A

Shearing force

96
Q

What are four things changing in position accomplishes

A

Provide comfort, relieves pressure, helps prevent contractures, deformities, and respiratory problems, and it improves circulation

97
Q

What position is resting on the back and what is it used for

A

Supine; spinal surgery, cardiac catheterization, and spinal anesthetics

98
Q

What position is arranged by elevating the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees and what is it used for

A

Fowler position; helps paresis patients swallow food and helps with secretions

99
Q

What position is an elevation of 30 to 45 degrees

A

Semi-fowler position

100
Q

What position has a patient on their back with their knees flexed and soles of the feet flat on the bed

A

Dorsal recumbent position

101
Q

What position has a patient on their back and their feet in stirrups

A

Dorsal lithotomy position

102
Q

What position has a patient laying on their side

A

Side-lying or later position

103
Q

What is a side-lying position in which the weight is distributed over the anterior ilium, humerus, and clavicle

A

Sims position

104
Q

What position has a patient lying face down

A

Prone position

105
Q

What assisted device allows a patient to adjust position by raising the trunk and buttocks off the bed

A

Trapeze bar

106
Q

What assisted device helps prevent external rotation of the hips and legs when a patient is lying in a supine position

A

Trochanter roll

107
Q

What assisted device helps prevent contractures o the hands, promote thumb adduction, keep the fingers slightly flexed, and prevent dorsiflexion of the wrists

A

Hand rolls and splints

108
Q

What is turning the patient as a single unit while maintaining straight body alignment called

A

Logrolling

109
Q

What are exercises that are used for the patient who independently performs activities of daily living

A

Active range of motion

110
Q

What are exercises that are preformed on the patient who cannot actively move

A

Passive range of motion

111
Q

The term used for the patient position of sitting on the side of the bed with the legs and feet over the side

A

Dangling

112
Q

A long semirigid polyurethane board, treated with an antistatic coating, to allow the patient to be transferred from bed to stretcher

A

Slide board

113
Q

A board that contains several roller bars between fixed end bars

A

Roller board

114
Q

This should be used to ambulate or transfer the weak or unsteady patient

A

Transfer or gait belt

115
Q

The system that contains the skin, hair, nails, and sweat and sebaceous glands

A

Integumentary system

116
Q

What is the largest organ in the body

A

The skin

117
Q

What is the outer, thinner layer of the skin that consists of stratified squamous epithelial tissue and does not contain blood vessels

A

Epidermis

118
Q

What is the uppermost layer of the epidermis

A

Stratum corneum

119
Q

What is the inner, thicker layer of the skin that is made of dense connective tissue that gives the skin strength and elasticity

A

Dermis or corium

120
Q

What are the four main functions of the skin

A

Protection, sensation, temperature regulation, and excretion and secretion

121
Q

Factors affecting hygiene

A

Economics, preference, sociocultural background, culture, economic status, and mental or physical condition

122
Q

An injury that forms from a local interference with circulation

A

Pressure injury

123
Q

Turn white or, in darker skin, become pale

A

Blanch

124
Q

The process in which the blood rushes to a place where there was a decrease in circulation

A

Reactive hyperemia

125
Q

Has lost bowel or bladder control

A

Incontinent

126
Q

Softening of tissue that increases the chance of trauma or infection

A

Maceration

127
Q

Perspiration; sweating

A

Diaphoresis

128
Q

An area of intact skin that is re, deep pink, or mottled skin that does not blanch with fingertip pressure

A

Stage 1 pressure injury

129
Q

An area that feels hard

A

Induration

130
Q

Partial thickness skin loss with exposed dermis; the wound bed is pink or red and moist and may appear as an intact or ruptured blister

A

Stage 2 pressure injury

131
Q

Full thickness skin loss that looks like a deep crater and may extend to the fascia

A

Stage 3 pressure injury

132
Q

Full thickness skin loss with extensive tissue necrosis or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures

A

Stage 4 pressure injury

133
Q

Loss of full thickness of tissue; covered by eschar

A

Unstageable pressure injury

134
Q

Localized discolored intact skin that is maroon or purple or a blood filled blister resulting from damage to underlying soft tissue from pressure or shearing

A

Deep tissue pressure injury

135
Q

What are the four basic purposes of bathing

A

Cleanse the skin, promote comfort, stimulate circulation, and remove waste products secreted through the skin

136
Q

What are the two meanings of partial baths

A

Cleaning only certain parts of the body; a complete bath is done but partially by the patient

137
Q

What is the most common type of bath

A

Cleansing bath

138
Q

Baths that have healing or medicinal qualities

A

Therapeutic bath

139
Q

Bath that has a device that agitates the water

A

Whirlpool bath

140
Q

Baths that are used to apply moist heat and clean the perineal or anal area

A

Sitz bath

141
Q

Bad breath

A

Halitosis

142
Q

Cavities

A

Caries

Fundamentals (4 decks)

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