Exam 3 Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the commonly used inhaled anesthetics?
Try to list the Generic and trade name :)

A
  • Desflurane (Suprane)
  • Nitrous Oxide (Entonox)
  • Sevoflurane (Ultane)
  • Isoflurane (Forane)
  • Enflurane (Ethrane)
  • Halothane (Fluothane)

These agents vary in their pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties.

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2
Q

What does the Blood/Gas Solubility Coefficient indicate?

A

The speed of onset and offset of the anesthetic.

A lower coefficient indicates poorer solubility in blood, leading to faster induction and emergence.

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3
Q

What is the Blood/Gas Solubility Coefficient of Desflurane?

A

0.42

This indicates that Desflurane has a relatively low solubility in blood.

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4
Q

What is MAC (Minimum Alveolar Concentration)?

A

The concentration of anesthetic at 1 atmosphere that prevents movement in 50% of subjects in response to a surgical stimulus.

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5
Q

What is the MAC value of Sevoflurane?

A

1.8%

This value is based on a 30-55 year old population at 37°C and 1 ATM.

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6
Q

Which inhaled anesthetic has the highest vapor pressure?

A

Desflurane: 669 mmHg

This high vapor pressure allows for rapid delivery of the anesthetic.

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7
Q

What is the boiling point of Nitrous Oxide?

A

-88.5 °C

This low boiling point indicates that it is a gas at room temperature.

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8
Q

Which inhaled anesthetic is considered the least pungent?

A

Sevoflurane

Its sweet smell and lack of airway irritation make it ideal for inhalation induction.

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9
Q

True or False: Sevoflurane is the preferred anesthetic for patients with irritable airways.

A

True

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10
Q

How is Desflurane metabolized?

A

Resistant to metabolism, unlikely to cause organ toxicity.

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11
Q

What compounds are produced from the metabolism of Sevoflurane?

A

Vinyl halides and inorganic fluoride.

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12
Q

Which inhaled anesthetic is known to produce antibody reactions due to prior sensitization?

A
  • Isoflurane
  • Enflurane
  • Halothane
  • Nitrous Oxide

These anesthetics can be oxidized by P450 to acetyl halides.

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13
Q

What is the effect of Nitrous Oxide on cerebral blood flow (CBF)?

A

Increases CBF; it is the drug of choice for increased ICP cases.

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14
Q

Which inhaled anesthetic is most likely to cause bronchospasm?

A

Desflurane

Its pungency can worsen bronchospasms, especially in smokers.

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15
Q

What effect does Nitrous Oxide have on the hypoxic ventilatory response?

A

No blunting of hypercarbic response; it won’t increase PaCO2.

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16
Q

What cardiovascular effect is associated with Halothane?

A

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance and potential bradyarrhythmias in pediatrics.

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17
Q

Which inhaled anesthetics potentiate the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs?

A

All except Nitrous Oxide

This includes both depolarizing and non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers.

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18
Q

What is the potential renal effect of inhaled anesthetics?

A

Dose-dependent decrease in renal blood flow (RBF), glomerular filtration rate (GFR), and urine output (U/O).

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: All inhaled anesthetics are _______.

A

emetogenic

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20
Q

What is a clinical implication of using Sevoflurane in patients with liver disease?

A

It is considered the best option due to its minimal metabolism and lack of antibody reactions.

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21
Q

What is the effect of inhaled anesthetics on uterine contractility?

A

Dose-dependent decrease in uterine contractility

This can be useful with retained placenta but may worsen blood loss with uterine atony.

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22
Q

What is the clinical significance of vasodilation in 20-50 µm meter vessels?

A

Not significant clinically.

This indicates that the vasodilation effect in this vessel size range does not impact clinical outcomes.

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23
Q

What does QT interval prolongation indicate in relation to K+ current?

A

Increased risk of torsades.

QT prolongation can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias.

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24
Q

How does dose dependency affect uterine contractility during OB procedures?

A

0.5-1.0 MAC decreases uterine contractility.

This can be useful in managing retained placenta but may worsen blood loss with uterine atony.

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25
Q

What effect does nitrous oxide have on uterine contractility?

A

No effect on uterine contractility.

Nitrous oxide is often used for analgesia without impacting uterine function.

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26
Q

How does nitrous oxide compare to other volatiles in terms of analgesia and depression?

A

Increases analgesia without BZD/opioid depression faster than other volatiles.

This makes nitrous oxide a favorable choice for pain management.

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27
Q

What are the unique properties of desflurane?

A

Lowest blood/gas solubility, rapid onset and offset, high vapor pressure requiring a special heated vaporizer.

These properties make desflurane suitable for certain surgical scenarios.

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28
Q

What are the clinical considerations for desflurane?

A

Pungent, can cause airway irritation and laryngospasm, not ideal for mask induction.

Rapid concentration increases can stimulate the sympathetic nervous system.

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29
Q

What are the contraindications for using desflurane?

A

Patients with increased ICP due to increased CBF.

This is due to the potential for further increasing intracranial pressure.

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30
Q

What are the unique properties of nitrous oxide?

A

Rapid onset and offset, potent analgesic, cannot achieve surgical anesthesia alone (MAC > 100%).

It is often used for sedation and pain relief.

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31
Q

What are the clinical considerations regarding nitrous oxide?

A

Can cause megaloblastic bone marrow suppression with prolonged exposure.

It’s contraindicated in certain surgical procedures where air-filled spaces are present.

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32
Q

What are the contraindications for nitrous oxide?

A

First trimester of pregnancy due to B12 deficiency risk.

This is important for the safety of the developing fetus.

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33
Q

What are the unique properties of sevoflurane?

A

Low pungency, suitable for mask induction, relatively stable, can degrade in desiccated CO2 absorbents to produce Compound A.

This makes sevoflurane a good choice for patients with reactive airways.

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34
Q

What are the clinical considerations for sevoflurane?

A

Good choice for patients at risk for bronchospasm.

Additional water is added to sevo for safety.

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35
Q

What are the unique properties of isoflurane?

A

Intermediate solubility, potent anesthetic, relatively stable.

Isoflurane is commonly used in various surgical settings.

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36
Q

What are the clinical considerations for isoflurane?

A

Can cause coronary steal in susceptible patients.

This can have significant implications for patients with coronary artery disease.

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37
Q

What are the unique properties of enflurane?

A

Intermediate solubility, potent anesthetic, can cause seizure activity at high doses or with hypocarbia.

This limits its use in certain patient populations.

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38
Q

What are the unique properties of halothane?

A

High potency, intermediate solubility, associated with hepatotoxicity.

Its use is rarely seen in modern practice due to these risks.

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39
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

A rare but life-threatening pharmacogenetic disorder triggered by volatile anesthetics and succinylcholine.

It is crucial to recognize and treat this condition promptly.

40
Q

What is the etiology of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Inherited genetic disorder caused by dysfunction with RyR receptor causing excessive release of Ca+.

This leads to severe metabolic disturbances.

41
Q

What are the signs of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Increased body temperature, increased ETCO2, increased O2 consumption, muscle rigidity, rhabdomyolysis.

Early recognition is key to effective treatment.

42
Q

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene is the antidote, blocking intracellular Ca+ release.

Timely administration can significantly reduce mortality.

43
Q

What is the mortality rate of untreated malignant hyperthermia?

A

80% mortality if untreated.

This highlights the critical nature of swift diagnosis and intervention.

44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs)?

A

Mimics acetylcholine by binding to nicotinic ACh receptors, causing sustained depolarization.

Succinylcholine is the only clinically used depolarizing NMBA.

45
Q

What is the metabolism of succinylcholine?

A

Hydrolyzed by butylcholinesterase.

This slower hydrolysis than ACh leads to increased potassium levels.

46
Q

What is the onset and duration of succinylcholine?

A

Onset: 30-60 seconds; Duration: 3-5 minutes.

This rapid action makes it useful for rapid sequence intubation.

47
Q

What are the side effects of succinylcholine?

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Increased ICP
  • Sympathomimetic effects
  • Increased intragastric pressure
  • Myalgia
  • Malignant hyperthermia concern

These effects necessitate careful patient selection.

48
Q

What is the typical presentation of a phase 1 block with depolarizing NMBAs?

A

Decreased contraction to single twitch stimulation, TOF ratio > 0.7.

This indicates a typical response to succinylcholine.

49
Q

What can cause a phase 2 block in depolarizing NMBAs?

A

Overdose or pseudocholinesterase deficiency.

This can enhance non-depolarizing drug effects.

50
Q

What is the effect of decreased pseudocholinesterase activity?

A

Causes prolonged succinylcholine effects.

This can be due to various factors including genetics and certain medications.

51
Q

What are the mechanisms of action for non-depolarizing NMBAs?

A

Competitive antagonists of nAChRs, preventing ACh from binding.

This leads to muscle paralysis without initial fasciculations.

52
Q

What are examples of aminosteroid non-depolarizing NMBAs?

A
  • Pancuronium
  • Vecuronium
  • Rocuronium

Each has distinct properties regarding duration and metabolism.

53
Q

What is the metabolism of vecuronium?

A

Hepatic and renal metabolism with active metabolites.

This can lead to prolonged effects in patients with renal dysfunction.

54
Q

What are factors influencing NMBA action?

A
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Acid-base balance
  • Temperature
  • Volatile anesthetics
  • Other drugs

These factors can significantly alter the effectiveness of NMBAs.

55
Q

What is the Train-of-Four (TOF) monitoring method?

A

A series of four supramaximal stimuli delivered to a peripheral nerve.

The TOF ratio indicates the degree of neuromuscular blockade.

56
Q

What is the mechanism of action for anticholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Inhibit acetylcholinesterase, increasing ACh concentration at the neuromuscular junction.

This facilitates the reversal of non-depolarizing NMBAs.

57
Q

What is sugammadex used for?

A

A selective relaxant binding agent that inactivates rocuronium and vecuronium.

It allows for rapid and predictable reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

58
Q

What is dantrolene’s mechanism of action?

A

Inhibits calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

This is crucial for treating malignant hyperthermia.

59
Q

What are Depolarizing NMBAs?

A

Competitively bind to ACh receptors without causing depolarization, preventing ACh binding and subsequent muscle contraction.

60
Q

What does ED95 represent?

A

Effective dose required to achieve 95% depression of baseline muscle contraction.

61
Q

What is Rapid Sequence Induction and Intubation (RSII)?

A

A technique used for emergency intubation, often requiring rapid-onset NMBAs.

62
Q

What is Hoffman Elimination?

A

A spontaneous chemical degradation process independent of liver or kidney function.

63
Q

What is the role of Plasma Cholinesterase (Pseudocholinesterase)?

A

Enzyme responsible for the metabolism of succinylcholine and mivacurium.

64
Q

What are Active Metabolites in the context of NMBAs?

A

Some NMBAs are metabolized into compounds with significant neuromuscular blocking activity, prolonging the duration of action.

65
Q

What type of NMBA is Vecuronium?

A

Non-depolarizing (curare derivative) with intermediate duration of action.

66
Q

What is the potency (ED95) of Vecuronium?

A

0.04 mg/kg.

67
Q

What is the intubating dose for Vecuronium?

A

0.10 to 0.20 mg/kg.

68
Q

What is the elimination half-life of Vecuronium?

A

50 to 60 minutes (normal organ function).

69
Q

What are the side effects of Vecuronium?

A

Vagal blockade with large doses.

70
Q

What is the primary metabolism route for Vecuronium?

A

Renal (10 to 50%), hepatic (30 to 50%).

71
Q

What is the duration of action of Rocuronium?

A

Intermediate.

72
Q

What is the potency (ED95) of Rocuronium?

A

0.3 mg/kg.

73
Q

What is the onset time for Rocuronium?

A

1 to 2 minutes.

74
Q

What are the side effects of Rocuronium?

75
Q

What is the elimination half-life of Pancuronium?

A

100 to 130 minutes (normal organ function).

76
Q

What are the side effects of Pancuronium?

A

Vagal block (tachycardia), catecholamine release.

77
Q

What is the type of Mivacurium?

A

Non-depolarizing (benzylisoquinoline).

78
Q

What is the duration of action of Mivacurium?

79
Q

What is the elimination half-life of Mivacurium?

A

2 to 2.5 minutes.

80
Q

What are the side effects of Mivacurium?

A

Histamine release.

81
Q

What is the primary metabolism route for Mivacurium?

A

Plasma cholinesterase.

82
Q

What is the type of Atracurium?

A

Non-depolarizing (benzylisoquinoline).

83
Q

What is the elimination route for Atracurium?

A

Hoffman elimination (30%), ester hydrolysis (60%).

84
Q

What are the side effects of Atracurium?

A

Histamine release.

85
Q

What is the type of Cisatracurium?

A

Non-depolarizing (benzylisoquinoline).

86
Q

What is the duration of action of Cisatracurium?

A

Intermediate.

87
Q

What is the potency (ED95) of Cisatracurium?

A

0.04 to 0.05 mg/kg.

88
Q

What is the type of Succinylcholine?

A

Depolarizing (ACh analog).

89
Q

What is the duration of action of Succinylcholine?

A

Ultrashort.

90
Q

What are the contraindications for Succinylcholine?

A

High K+, MH, muscular dystrophy, children, receptor up-regulation settings, pseudocholinesterase deficiency.

91
Q

What is the role of Cholinesterase Inhibitors in NMBA reversal?

A

Inhibit acetylcholinesterase, increasing ACh levels at the neuromuscular junction.

92
Q

What is Sugammadex used for?

A

Rapidly reverses the effects of rocuronium and vecuronium.

93
Q

What is the Train-of-Four (TOF)?

A

A method of monitoring neuromuscular function using peripheral nerve stimulation.

94
Q

What is Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)?

A

A known trigger for MH in susceptible individuals, associated with succinylcholine.

95
Q

What is NMBA-Induced Critical Illness Myopathy (CIM)?

A

Severe muscle weakness due to prolonged NMBA use, particularly with corticosteroids.

96
Q

What are the risk factors for CIM?

A

Prolonged NMBA use, high-dose corticosteroids, sepsis, multi-organ failure.

97
Q

What is the mechanism of Phase II Block with Succinylcholine?

A

Changes in the ACh receptor conformation and ion channel kinetics.