Book Chapter 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is an agonist in pharmacology?

A

A drug that activates a receptor by binding to it.

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2
Q

How do most agonists bind to receptors?

A

Through a combination of ionic, hydrogen, and van der Waals interactions.

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3
Q

What happens when a receptor is bound to an agonist ligand?

A

The effect of the drug is produced.

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4
Q

Define antagonist in pharmacology.

A

A drug that binds to the receptor without activating it.

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5
Q

What type of antagonism occurs when increasing concentrations of antagonist inhibit agonist response?

A

Competitive antagonism.

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6
Q

What is noncompetitive antagonism?

A

When high concentrations of agonist cannot overcome the antagonism.

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7
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

A drug that binds to a receptor and activates it, but not as much as a full agonist.

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8
Q

What effect do inverse agonists have on receptors?

A

They produce the opposite effect of the agonist by turning off receptor activity.

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9
Q

True or False: Receptors have only one conformation.

A

False.

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10
Q

What is the significance of receptor conformations in pharmacology?

A

They determine the receptor’s activity and response to ligands.

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11
Q

What is tachyphylaxis?

A

A decreased response to the same dose of a drug due to receptor downregulation.

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12
Q

What can cause upregulation of receptors?

A

Specific stimuli, such as lower motor neuron injury.

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13
Q

List three types of drug targets based on location.

A
  • Membrane-bound receptors
  • Intracellular proteins
  • Circulating proteins
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14
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

The quantitative study of the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs.

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15
Q

What does pharmacodynamics describe?

A

What the drug does to the body.

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16
Q

What are the four basic principles of pharmacokinetics?

A
  • Absorption
  • Distribution
  • Metabolism
  • Elimination
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17
Q

What is the central compartment in pharmacokinetics?

A

The elements of the body that dilute the drug within the first minute after injection.

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18
Q

How does intravenous administration affect drug distribution?

A

Drugs mix with body tissues and are diluted from the concentrated injectate.

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: Pharmacokinetics describes what the _______ does to the drug.

A

body

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20
Q

True or False: All drugs interact with proteins.

A

False.

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21
Q

What role do proteins play when a drug binds to a receptor?

A

They change the activity of the machine, enhancing or decreasing its activity.

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22
Q

What is the central compartment in pharmacology?

A

The central compartment is the small initial mixing volume of drug in the body, including venous blood volume, heart, lungs, and upper aorta.

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23
Q

What happens to drugs that are highly fat soluble during the first passage through the lungs?

A

They may be avidly taken up, reducing the concentration measured in arterial blood.

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24
Q

List examples of drugs with first-pass pulmonary uptake exceeding 65%.

A
  • Lidocaine
  • Propranolol
  • Meperidine
  • Fentanyl
  • Sufentanil
  • Alfentanil
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25
Q

True or False: The total volume of distribution for propofol is reported to exceed 5,000 L.

A

t

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26
Q

What are the tissues that receive the bulk of arterial blood flow after drug injection called?

A

Vessel-rich group.

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27
Q

What role do muscles play in drug distribution?

A

Muscles have intermediate blood flow and solubility for lipophilic drugs.

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28
Q

Which plasma proteins do most drugs bind to?

A
  • Albumin
  • α1-acid glycoprotein
  • Lipoproteins
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29
Q

What is the effect of protein binding on drug distribution?

A

Only the free or unbound fraction can readily cross cell membranes.

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30
Q

How does age or hepatic disease affect plasma protein concentration?

A

They can decrease plasma protein concentration.

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31
Q

Fill in the blank: The four basic pathways of metabolism are _____, _____, _____, and _____.

A

[oxidation], [reduction], [hydrolysis], [conjugation]

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32
Q

What is the role of hepatic microsomal enzymes?

A

They are responsible for the metabolism of most drugs.

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33
Q

What is the most common reaction catalyzed by CYP enzymes?

A

Monooxygenase reaction.

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34
Q

Which CYP enzyme is responsible for metabolizing more than one-half of all currently available drugs?

A

CYP3A4.

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35
Q

How can drugs alter the activity of CYP enzymes?

A

Through induction and inhibition.

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36
Q

What is the consequence of enzyme induction on drug metabolism?

A

It can render drugs less effective through increased metabolism.

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37
Q

What is the role of glucuronic acid in drug metabolism?

A

It is added to lipid-soluble drugs to render them water-soluble.

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38
Q

What type of reactions are phase I reactions in drug metabolism?

A

Oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis.

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39
Q

What is a prodrug? Give an example.

A

An inactive parent compound that is metabolized to an active drug; example: codeine metabolized to morphine.

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40
Q

What are the potential effects of reactive metabolites produced during drug metabolism?

A

They may lead to organ toxicity.

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41
Q

What is the primary enzyme responsible for hydrolysis of drugs?

A

Enzymes responsible for hydrolysis do not involve the CYP enzyme system.

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42
Q

What is the function of glutathione-S-transferase enzymes?

A

Detoxification and protection against oxidative stress.

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43
Q

True or False: The rate of metabolism for most anesthetic drugs is independent of drug concentration.

A
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44
Q

What assumption is fundamental for anesthetic pharmacokinetics?

A

The clearance of the drug is constant and proportional to drug concentration.

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45
Q

What is the relationship between drug concentration and hepatic clearance?

A

The rate of metabolism for most anesthetic drugs is proportional to drug concentration, making the clearance of the drug constant

This fundamental assumption is crucial for understanding anesthetic pharmacokinetics.

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46
Q

What limits the metabolic capacity of the liver?

A

The liver does not have infinite metabolic capacity

At some drug flow rate, metabolism can no longer be proportional to concentration.

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47
Q

What is the equation for the rate of drug metabolism in the liver?

A

Rate of drug metabolism, R = Q (Cinflow − Coutflow)

Where Q is liver blood flow, Cinflow is the concentration of drug flowing in, and Coutflow is the concentration of drug flowing out.

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48
Q

Fill in the blank: The rate of drug flow into the liver is calculated as _______.

A

liver blood flow, Q, times the concentration of drug flowing in, Cinflow

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49
Q

What does the equation R = Q (Cinflow − Coutflow) illustrate?

A

The relationship between the drug rate of metabolism and liver blood flow

This equation is commonly used in mass-balance pharmacokinetic studies.

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50
Q

True or False: Metabolism can always be proportional to drug concentration.

A

False

Metabolism can become saturated when the liver’s metabolic capacity is exceeded.

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51
Q

What is the significance of understanding hepatic metabolism in pharmacokinetics?

A

It provides insight into how drug clearance governs the metabolism of drugs.

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52
Q

What happens when the liver’s metabolic capacity is exceeded?

A

Metabolism can no longer be proportional to drug concentration.

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53
Q

What factors are involved in mass balance for drug metabolism in the liver?

A

Rate of drug flow into the liver, rate of drug flow out of the liver, and rate of hepatic metabolism

This balance is essential for analyzing drug metabolism.

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54
Q

What is the range of the Response in Equation 2.2?

A

0 to 1

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55
Q

What does a Response of 0 indicate?

A

No metabolism

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56
Q

What does a Response of 1 indicate?

A

Metabolism at the maximal possible rate

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57
Q

What does C refer to in the context of Equation 2.2?

A

Drug concentration

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58
Q

What is C50 in the context of drug response?

A

The concentration associated with 50% response

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59
Q

What happens to the response as C becomes much greater than C50?

A

The response approaches 1

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60
Q

What is the primary concentration used to view the rate of metabolism in the liver?

A

Coutflow

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61
Q

What does Vm represent in the context of hepatic metabolism?

A

The maximum possible metabolic rate

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62
Q

What is Km, the ‘Michaelis constant’?

A

The outflow concentration at which the metabolic rate is 50% of the maximum rate (Vm)

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63
Q

When is metabolism proportional to concentration?

A

When the outflow concentration is less than one-half of Km

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64
Q

What is the extraction ratio?

A

The fraction of inflowing drug extracted by the liver

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65
Q

How is clearance calculated?

A

Liver blood flow times the extraction ratio

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66
Q

What is the relationship between infusion rate and metabolic rate?

A

Infusion rate = metabolic rate = Clearance × Cinflow

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67
Q

What type of drugs have a high extraction ratio?

A

Drugs like propofol

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68
Q

What is flow-limited clearance?

A

Clearance that is nearly identical to liver blood flow for drugs with high extraction ratios

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69
Q

What is capacity-limited clearance?

A

Clearance limited by the liver’s capacity to metabolize the drug

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70
Q

What happens to clearance for drugs with low extraction ratios when liver blood flow changes?

A

Clearance is nearly independent of liver blood flow

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71
Q

What is intrinsic clearance?

A

A term that summarizes the hepatic metabolic capacity

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72
Q

What does Clint represent?

A

Intrinsic clearance in the linear range

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73
Q

What are the three processes involved in renal excretion of drugs?

A
  • Glomerular filtration
  • Active tubular secretion
  • Passive tubular reabsorption
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74
Q

How does pH influence renal tubular reabsorption?

A

It alters the fraction of drug that exists in the ionized form

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75
Q

Which equation predicts creatinine clearance?

A

Cockcroft and Gault equation

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76
Q

What is the effect of age on renal blood flow?

A

Inversely correlated

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77
Q

True or False: Elderly patients with normal serum creatinine have the same GFR as younger patients.

A
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78
Q

What equation predicts creatinine clearance from age and weight?

A

The equation of Cockcroft and Gault.

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79
Q

How does age affect glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

A

Elderly patients with normal serum creatinine have about half the GFR than younger patients.

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80
Q

Why is absorption placed at the end of the pharmacokinetics list in this textbook?

A

Because most anesthetic drugs are administered intravenously, making absorption less relevant.

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81
Q

What forms do most drugs exist in solution?

A

Ionized and nonionized forms.

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82
Q

Which drug form is usually pharmacologically active?

A

The nonionized form.

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83
Q

What is the impact of a high degree of ionization on drug absorption?

A

It impairs absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and limits access to drug-metabolizing enzymes.

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84
Q

What factors determine the degree of drug ionization?

A

Dissociation constant (pK) and the pH of the surrounding fluid.

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85
Q

What phenomenon occurs when a weak base accumulates in an acidic environment?

A

Ion trapping.

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86
Q

What is the first-pass hepatic effect?

A

Drugs absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract pass through the liver before entering systemic circulation.

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87
Q

What is a common consequence of first-pass hepatic metabolism?

A

Large differences in pharmacologic effect between oral and intravenous doses.

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88
Q

What is a key advantage of sublingual and buccal administration?

A

Bypasses first-pass metabolism for the initial dose.

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89
Q

What is the primary site of drug absorption after oral administration?

A

The small intestine.

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90
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ route of administration allows for rapid drug effect bypassing the liver.

A

sublingual

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91
Q

What are the characteristics of drugs suitable for transdermal absorption?

A
  • Combined water and lipid solubility
  • Molecular weight of <1,000
  • pH 5 to 9 in a saturated aqueous solution
  • Absence of histamine-releasing effects
  • Daily dose requirements of <10 mg
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92
Q

True or False: The rate-limiting step in transdermal absorption is diffusion across the stratum corneum.

A

True.

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93
Q

What is the effect of increased blood flow at the site of drug absorption?

A

Enhances systemic absorption.

94
Q

What type of drugs are usually highly ionized at alkaline pH?

A

Acidic drugs, such as barbiturates.

95
Q

What happens to local anesthetics when they cross the placenta?

A

They are converted to the poorly lipid-soluble ionized fraction in the more acidic environment of the fetus.

96
Q

What is the extraction ratio for propofol?

97
Q

What is the consequence of the first-pass hepatic effect on nitroglycerin?

A

Oral nitroglycerin tablets are ineffective due to extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism.

98
Q

What is the primary mechanism of drug elimination by the kidneys?

A

Excretion of unchanged drugs or their metabolites.

99
Q

What is a common characteristic of drugs delivered via transdermal systems?

A

Sustained therapeutic plasma concentrations.

100
Q

What can cause variability in transdermal delivery of drugs?

A

Differences in the thickness and chemistry of the stratum corneum.

101
Q

What is the primary reason for the ineffectiveness of oral administration of propofol?

A

Extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism.

102
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a route of drug administration that provides rapid onset of effect due to bypassing liver metabolism.

A

Sublingual

103
Q

What is one reason that scopolamine patches are placed behind the ear?

A

To utilize skin with different thickness for better absorption.

104
Q

What are the initial sites of absorption for drugs through the skin?

A

Sweat ducts and hair follicles

These structures function as diffusion shunts, aiding in the absorption process.

105
Q

How does the thickness of the stratum corneum affect drug absorption?

A

It reflects the skin’s permeability to drug absorption

Skin thickness varies, with 10-20 microns on the back and abdomen versus 400-600 microns on the palmar surfaces.

106
Q

Why are scopolamine patches placed behind the ear?

A

Due to the thin epidermal layer and higher temperature

This area allows for predictable and sustained absorption of scopolamine.

107
Q

What is the regeneration cycle of the stratum corneum?

A

About 7 days

This cycle limits the adhesion duration of transdermal delivery systems.

108
Q

What is a common reaction at the site of transdermal patch applications?

A

Contact dermatitis

This occurs in a significant number of patients and contributes to limiting patch duration.

109
Q

Where are drugs administered rectally absorbed into?

A

Superior hemorrhoidal veins

This leads to transport via the portal venous system to the liver.

110
Q

What is the effect of rectal administration on first-pass metabolism?

A

Drugs undergo the same first-pass metabolism as orally administered drugs

This is applicable for drugs placed in the proximal rectum.

111
Q

What happens when drugs are placed more distally in the rectum?

A

They may be absorbed directly into systemic circulation

This bypasses the liver, making rectal drug delivery unpredictable.

112
Q

True or False: The absorption of rectally administered drugs is always predictable.

A

False

Rectal drug delivery is exceptionally unpredictable due to various factors.

113
Q

What is a zero-order process?

A

A process where the rate of change is constant

In pharmacokinetics, it refers to processes like oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production.

114
Q

What is the equation for a zero-order process?

A

x(t) = x0 + k · t

Here, x0 is the value of x at time 0, k is the rate constant, and t is time.

115
Q

What is a first-order process?

A

A process where the rate of change is proportional to the amount present

Examples include interest payments and water draining from a bathtub.

116
Q

What is the equation for a first-order process?

A

x(t) = x0 e−kt

In this equation, k is a positive number, and x0 is the initial amount.

117
Q

What does the term half-life (t½) represent?

A

The time required for a quantity to decrease to half its initial value

It is directly related to the rate constant k.

118
Q

What is the relationship between the rate constant (k) and half-life (t½)?

A

t½ = 0.693/k

The natural log of 2 is approximately 0.693.

119
Q

What is a physiologic pharmacokinetic model?

A

A model that analyzes volumes and clearances for each organ in the body

These models can be complex but are useful for understanding drug distribution.

120
Q

What are compartmental pharmacokinetic models?

A

Models that simplify the pharmacokinetics by grouping tissues into compartments

They can be one-, two-, or three-compartment models.

121
Q

What is the definition of concentration in pharmacokinetics?

A

Concentration (C) = amount of drug (x) / volume (V)

This relationship is fundamental for calculating doses and clearances.

122
Q

What is the equation to calculate the bolus dose for a desired target concentration?

A

Dose = CT × V

CT is the target concentration, and V is the volume of the compartment.

123
Q

What is the fundamental identity of linear pharmacokinetics?

A

Cl = k × V

Where Cl is clearance, k is the rate constant, and V is the volume.

124
Q

How does volume and clearance affect half-life?

A

Half-life is proportional to volume and inversely proportional to clearance

A larger volume with smaller clearance leads to longer half-life.

125
Q

What is linear pharmacokinetics?

A

A situation where metabolism is proportional to concentration

In linear pharmacokinetics, clearance remains constant regardless of dose.

126
Q

What is the area under the curve (AUC) in pharmacokinetics?

A

The integral of the concentration over time curve

It is used to calculate clearance.

127
Q

What is the equation for calculating clearance from AUC?

A

Cl = Dose / AUC

This applies to any type of intravenous drug dosing.

128
Q

What does the steady-state concentration (Css) represent during an infusion?

A

The concentration of drug in the plasma when the rate of drug input equals the rate of drug output

Css is achieved when I = C · Cl.

129
Q

What is the equation for steady-state concentration during an infusion?

A

Css = I / Cl

I is the infusion rate, and Cl is the clearance.

130
Q

What is the equation for infusion rate in pharmacokinetics?

131
Q

What does volume relate to in the context of bolus dose?

A

Initial concentration

132
Q

What does clearance relate to during a continuous infusion?

A

Steady-state concentration

133
Q

Is the initial concentration following a bolus dependent on clearance?

134
Q

Is the steady-state concentration during a continuous infusion dependent on volume?

135
Q

What represents the rate of change in the amount of drug, x, during an infusion?

A

Rate of inflow, I, minus the rate of outflow, k · x

136
Q

How can we calculate x at any time t during an infusion?

A

Integral from time 0 to time t

137
Q

What happens to e^(-kt) as t approaches infinity?

A

It approaches 0

138
Q

What is xss in the context of infusion?

A

Steady state amount

139
Q

How long does it take to reach half of the steady-state amount?

140
Q

How many half-lives does it take to reach 75% of steady state?

A

2 half-lives

141
Q

What is first-pass hepatic metabolism?

A

Metabolism of drugs by the liver before reaching systemic circulation

142
Q

What is the bioavailability fraction represented by in pharmacokinetics?

143
Q

What is the absorption rate equation for oral drugs?

A

A(t) = f · Doral · ka · e^(-kat)

144
Q

What is the differential equation for the amount, x, with oral absorption?

A

Rate of absorption at time t, A(t), minus the rate of exit, k · x

145
Q

What model is often used to describe the pharmacokinetics of intravenous anesthetics?

A

Multicompartment models

146
Q

What are the three distinct phases of drug concentration after a bolus injection?

A

Rapid distribution phase, slow distribution phase, terminal elimination phase

147
Q

What characterizes the terminal elimination phase?

A

Plasma concentration is lower than tissue concentrations

148
Q

What does a mammillary model consist of?

A

Central compartment with peripheral compartments connecting to it

149
Q

What is the equation that describes plasma concentrations over time after bolus injection?

A

C(t) = Ae^(-αt) + Be^(-βt) + Ce^(-γt)

150
Q

What are A, B, and C in the polyexponential equation?

A

Coefficients

151
Q

What are α, β, and γ in the polyexponential equation?

152
Q

What is the significance of adding more exponent terms in pharmacokinetic models?

A

Improves description of observed concentrations but decreases confidence in coefficients

153
Q

What do micro-rate constants, kij, define?

A

Rate of drug transfer from compartment i to compartment j

154
Q

What are the differential equations for a two-compartment model?

A

Equations derived from the micro-rate constants

155
Q

What happens to the complexity of interconversions between micro-rate constants and exponents as more exponents are added?

A

It becomes exceedingly complex.

156
Q

Where can individuals find interconversion data for micro-rate constants and exponents?

A

In the Excel spreadsheet ‘convert.xls’ available at https://github.com/StevenLShafer/Pharmacokinetics/blob/master/convert.xls.

157
Q

What is the time lag between plasma drug concentration and effect site drug concentration for anesthetic drugs called?

A

Hysteresis.

158
Q

Which drug shows a greater time lag between arterial concentration and electroencephalogram effect?

159
Q

What is the effect of alfentanil on the time lag compared to fentanyl?

A

Alfentanil has less hysteresis (delay) than fentanyl.

160
Q

What model describes the relationship between plasma concentration and drug effect site concentration?

A

An effect site model.

161
Q

What does the constant ke0 represent in pharmacokinetics?

A

The rate constant for elimination of drug from the effect site.

162
Q

At what point do plasma and effect site concentrations equal each other?

A

At the time of peak effect.

163
Q

How is the volume of distribution at the time of peak effect denoted?

164
Q

What is the formula for calculating the bolus dose that provides the desired peak effect site concentration?

A

Bolus dose = CT × Vdpe.

165
Q

What is the C50 for fentanyl to attenuate hemodynamic response to intubation?

A

Approximately 2 ng/mL.

166
Q

What are the two volumes relevant for calculating fentanyl dosing?

A

V1 (central compartment) and Vdss (volume of distribution at steady state).

167
Q

What is the typical V1 for fentanyl?

168
Q

What is the typical Vdss for fentanyl?

169
Q

What does the decline in plasma concentration after a bolus represent?

A

A dilution of the bolus into a larger volume.

170
Q

What is the time to peak effect for fentanyl?

A

3.6 minutes.

171
Q

What is the half-life at the site of drug effect (t½ ke0) for fentanyl?

A

4.7 minutes.

172
Q

What is the maintenance infusion rate formula at steady state?

A

Maintenance infusion rate = CT × Cl.

173
Q

When does the maintenance infusion rate underestimate the infusion rate?

A

When peripheral tissues have not fully equilibrated with the plasma.

174
Q

What is the equation for maintaining the desired concentration after bolus injection?

A

Maintenance infusion rate = CT × V1 × (k10 + k12e−k21t + k13e−k31t).

175
Q

What is the relationship between infusion rate and time after a bolus?

A

The infusion rate starts high and gradually decreases over time.

176
Q

What is the apparent volume of distribution at the time of peak effect for alfentanil?

177
Q

True or False: Plasma is the primary site of drug effect for anesthetic drugs.

178
Q

What is the time to peak effect for alfentanil?

A

1.4 minutes.

179
Q

What is the purpose of a dosing nomogram in anesthesia?

A

To show infusion rates necessary to maintain desired drug concentrations over time.

The nomogram illustrates how infusion rates must be adjusted as drug accumulates in the body.

180
Q

What does the y-axis represent in the dosing nomogram for anesthetics?

A

The target concentration, CT.

Target concentrations are based on previous research and scaled appropriately for different drugs.

181
Q

Which anesthetic drugs are mentioned in the dosing nomogram?

A
  • Fentanyl
  • Alfentanil
  • Sufentanil
  • Propofol
182
Q

What is the suggested infusion rate for maintaining a fentanyl concentration of 1.0 ng/mL at 15 minutes?

A

3.0 μg/kg/hour.

183
Q

What is the function of a specialized slide rule in anesthesia?

A

To calculate the bolus dose and infusion rate required to reach a desired target plasma concentration.

The slide rule accounts for patient weight and time elapsed since the start of the infusion.

184
Q

What is the advantage of target-controlled drug delivery in anesthesia?

A

It allows the user to set desired plasma or effect site concentration, and the computer calculates the necessary drug dose.

This method provides controlled adjustments to drug concentrations.

185
Q

What is stanpumpR?

A

An online pharmacokinetic simulator for intravenous anesthetic drugs and oral opioids.

It helps model specific anesthetic strategies and ongoing anesthetic drug levels.

186
Q

What does context-sensitive half-time refer to?

A

The time for plasma concentration to decrease by 50% from an infusion that maintains a constant concentration.

It is influenced by the duration of the infusion.

187
Q

How does context-sensitive half-time change with longer infusion durations?

A

It increases, as it takes longer for concentrations to fall if the drug has accumulated in peripheral tissues.

188
Q

What is the difference between context-sensitive half-time and context-sensitive effect site decrement time?

A

Context-sensitive half-time refers to plasma concentration, while effect site decrement time relates to the time for effect site concentrations to decrease.

This is particularly relevant for drugs with slow plasma-effect site equilibration.

189
Q

Define pharmacodynamics.

A

The study of the intrinsic sensitivity or responsiveness of the body to a drug and the mechanisms by which these effects occur.

190
Q

What is the significance of the Hill equation in pharmacology?

A

It describes the concentration versus response relationship of a drug, indicating potency and efficacy.

The equation includes parameters like E0, Emax, C, C50, and the Hill coefficient.

191
Q

What does potency refer to in pharmacology?

A

The relative dose of a drug required to produce a specific effect.

Potency is indicated by the position of the concentration versus response curve.

192
Q

What is the difference between potency and efficacy?

A

Potency refers to the amount of drug needed for a specific effect, while efficacy indicates the maximum effect achievable by the drug.

193
Q

What is the definition of ED50?

A

The dose of a drug required to produce a specific desired effect in 50% of individuals receiving the drug.

194
Q

What is the definition of LD50?

A

The dose of a drug required to produce death in 50% of patients (or animals) receiving the drug.

195
Q

What does the therapeutic index indicate?

A

The safety of a drug, calculated as the ratio of LD50 to ED50.

A larger therapeutic index indicates a safer drug.

196
Q

What is the therapeutic index of a drug?

A

The ratio between the LD50 and ED50 (LD50/ED50)

A larger therapeutic index indicates a safer drug for clinical administration.

197
Q

What is the LD1/ED99 ratio in anesthetics?

A

A more effective ratio showing a smaller margin of safety

It indicates appreciable risk of death, even at subtherapeutic doses in some individuals.

198
Q

Why are anesthetic drugs considered to have low therapeutic ratios?

A

They have a narrow margin of safety and require enormous vigilance for safe use

For example, the LD50 for sevoflurane has been estimated to be 2.6.

199
Q

How do opioids affect the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of inhaled anesthetics?

A

They potently reduce the MAC required to suppress movement to noxious stimulation

A modest amount of opioid dramatically reduces the concentrations of inhalational anesthetics required.

200
Q

What happens to the MAC after an initial reduction with fentanyl?

A

There is fairly limited benefit from additional fentanyl

This means that a modest dose is very effective, but larger doses have diminishing returns.

201
Q

What is the interaction of propofol with alfentanil?

A

It is markedly synergistic, greatly decreasing the amount of propofol needed for response

This interaction has implications for intubation and surgical procedures.

202
Q

What are the two endpoints examined by Hendrickx and colleagues regarding anesthetic drug interactions?

A
  • Hypnosis (loss of consciousness)
  • Immobility (loss of movement response to noxious stimulation)

The interaction typically shows synergistic effects, except for NMDA antagonists like ketamine and nitrous oxide.

203
Q

What does a ‘response surface’ in drug interactions illustrate?

A

It illustrates the concentrations of two drugs and their combined response

Minto et al proposed a mathematical framework for these interaction surfaces.

204
Q

What is chirality in stereochemistry?

A

The study of how molecules are structured in three dimensions

Chirality involves molecules with centers of three-dimensional asymmetry.

205
Q

What are enantiomers?

A

A pair of molecules that are mirror images of one another but cannot be superimposed

They are chemically identical but differ in their interaction with polarized light.

206
Q

What is a racemic mixture?

A

A mixture of two enantiomers in equal proportions (50:50)

It does not rotate polarized light due to equal clockwise and counterclockwise rotations.

207
Q

What is the difference between D/L and R/S designations?

A

D/L refers to enantiomers based on rotation of polarized light, while R/S is based on atom numbering around the chiral center

R/S designations do not relate to light rotation.

208
Q

What is the significance of enantiomers in drug interactions?

A

Enantiomers can exhibit differences in absorption, distribution, clearance, potency, and toxicity

They may even antagonize each other’s effects.

209
Q

What is the clinical relevance of chirality in synthetic drugs?

A

More than one-third of synthetic drugs are chiral, often used as racemic mixtures

The majority of inhaled anesthetics are chiral, with notable exceptions like sevoflurane.

210
Q

What is the role of pharmacogenetics in drug response?

A

It may help predict patient responses to drugs based on genetic differences in metabolism

Variability in drug responses can also be influenced by factors like age and enzyme activity.

211
Q

What factors contribute to variations in drug responses between individuals?

A
  • Pharmacokinetics
  • Renal function
  • Hepatic function
  • Cardiac function
  • Patient age
  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Enzyme activity
  • Genetic differences
  • Drug interactions

These factors can lead to significant differences in drug effects even with identical doses.

212
Q

What is the impact of interpatient variability on drug administration in clinical practice?

A

It may be masked by high doses but can affect levels of neuromuscular blockade and duration of action

Dosing based on body weight may not always align with pharmacokinetic principles.

213
Q

What is the significance of using computerized infusion systems in anesthesia?

A

They aim to minimize interindividual variability in drug delivery

These systems are designed to achieve target concentrations for drugs like alfentanil and propofol.

214
Q

What is the common practice in anesthesia regarding drug administration?

A

Administer drugs in proportion to body weight

This practice may not always be supported by pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic principles.

215
Q

What are target-controlled infusion systems used for?

A

To deliver intravenous drugs to achieve a desired target concentration

Examples include alfentanil, remifentanil, etomidate, and propofol.

216
Q

What factors contribute to variations in drug response in elderly patients?

A
  1. Decreased cardiac output
  2. Increased fat content
  3. Decreased protein binding
  4. Decreased renal function
217
Q

How does decreased cardiac output affect drug metabolism in elderly patients?

A

It decreases hepatic blood flow, leading to prolonged duration of action for drugs like lidocaine and fentanyl.

218
Q

What effect does increased fat content have on drug distribution in elderly patients?

A

It increases the volume of distribution (Vd) for lipid-soluble drugs such as diazepam and thiopental.

219
Q

What is a consequence of decreased plasma protein binding in elderly patients?

A

Increased volume of distribution (Vd) and vulnerability to cumulative drug effects.

220
Q

What can alterations in enzyme activity lead to?

A

Variations in drug responses among individuals due to enzyme induction.

221
Q

What effect does cigarette smoke have on drug metabolism?

A

Induces mixed-function hepatic oxidases, increasing dose requirements for drugs like theophylline.

222
Q

What is the effect of acute alcohol ingestion on drug metabolism?

A

It inhibits the metabolism of drugs.

223
Q

How does chronic alcohol use affect drug metabolism?

A

Induces microsomal enzymes that metabolize drugs, leading to accelerated metabolism.

224
Q

What is pharmacogenetics?

A

The study of genetically determined disease states revealed by altered responses to specific drugs.

225
Q

What are some examples of diseases unmasked by drugs?

A
  1. Atypical cholinesterase enzyme
  2. Malignant hyperthermia
  3. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
  4. Intermittent porphyria
226
Q

What defines a drug interaction?

A

When a drug alters the intensity of pharmacologic effects of another drug given concurrently.

227
Q

What are the two types of drug interactions?

A
  1. Pharmacokinetics
  2. Pharmacodynamics
228
Q

What is an example of a beneficial drug interaction?

A

Concurrent administration of propranolol with hydralazine to prevent compensatory heart rate increases.

229
Q

What typically manifests as adverse drug interactions?

A

Impaired therapeutic efficacy and/or enhanced toxicity.

230
Q

Fill in the blank: A common adverse drug interaction can impair _______.

A

absorption

231
Q

What can happen when two incompatible drugs are mixed in the same solution?

A

A physicochemical drug interaction may occur, leading to precipitation.

232
Q

What is a typical composition of a balanced anesthetic?

A
  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Sedative-hypnotics
  3. Opioids
  4. Neuromuscular blocking drugs
  5. Anticholinergics
  6. Anticholinesterases
  7. Sympathomimetics
  8. Sympathetic nervous system blocking drugs
  9. Antibiotics