10 Mar 25 Inhaled anesthetics Pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three types of gas delivery systems used in anesthesia?

A
  • Bag-Valve-Mask
  • Vein Circuit
  • Circle System

These systems are used for delivering oxygen and volatile anesthetics during procedures.

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2
Q

What is the primary function of the bag-valve-mask system?

A

To deliver oxygen and air, especially in emergency situations

It is not ideal for delivering volatile anesthetics.

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3
Q

What is a key advantage of the circle system in anesthesia?

A
  • Fresh gas inlet
  • Unidirectional valve
  • CO2 absorbent
  • Reservoir

These features help prevent gas backflow and maintain patient ventilation.

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4
Q

What is the difference between high flow and low flow anesthesia?

A

High flow is used to build up oxygen reserves; low flow is less costly and causes slower changes in anesthetic levels

High flow is typically used during induction.

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5
Q

What volatile anesthetic is noted for its bronchodilating effects?

A

Sevoflurane

It is particularly beneficial for patients with bronchospasm.

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6
Q

What is the significance of the MAC value in anesthesia?

A

It indicates the concentration of anesthetic needed to prevent movement in 50% of patients

It is crucial for determining anesthetic dosage.

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7
Q

What effect do volatile anesthetics have on cerebral blood flow?

A

They cause a dose-dependent increase in cerebral blood flow

Sevoflurane has the least effect on cerebral blood flow among volatile agents.

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8
Q

What is the potential consequence of using nitrous oxide in neonates?

A

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

This makes nitrous oxide unsuitable for use in neonates.

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9
Q

What is compound A and its relevance in anesthesia?

A

A metabolite associated with nephrotoxicity from volatile anesthetics

Its formation is influenced by low flow anesthesia with sevoflurane.

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10
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia and its trigger?

A

A genetic predisposition condition triggered by volatile anesthetics and succinylcholine

It can be treated with dantrolene.

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11
Q

What does the term ‘second gas effect’ refer to?

A

The phenomenon where nitrous oxide increases the concentration of other gases

It is beneficial but can also lead to side effects like nausea.

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12
Q

Fill in the blank: Volatile anesthetics can decrease _______ and _______ response.

A

hypoxic; hypercapnic

This blunting can affect patient ventilation and oxygenation.

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13
Q

True or False: Sevoflurane is associated with significant cerebral vasodilation.

A

False

Sevoflurane is noted for minimal cerebral vasodilation, making it suitable for neuro patients.

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14
Q

What is the impact of volatile anesthetics on renal blood flow?

A

They decrease renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

This necessitates maintaining adequate hydration during anesthesia.

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15
Q

What should be avoided to reduce the pro-emetic effects of nitrous oxide?

A

Using nitrous oxide above half a MAC

This can help manage post-operative nausea and vomiting.

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16
Q

Explain the concept of ischemic preconditioning.

A

Exposure to small amounts of ischemia can mitigate damage from larger exposures

This principle can influence anesthetic strategies in certain patients.

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17
Q

What effect do volatile anesthetics have on heart rate?

A

They cause a dose-dependent increase in heart rate

Higher rates are observed at higher MAC levels.

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18
Q

What is a common complaint regarding mask fit in the OR?

A

Gas leakage

This can lead to inadequate anesthesia delivery.

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19
Q

What is the relationship between volatile anesthetics and bone marrow suppression?

A

Volatile anesthetics can cause B12 deficiency, inhibiting DNA synthesis

This can lead to bone marrow suppression in some patients.

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20
Q

What is the difference between high flow and low flow in inhalation anesthesia?

A

High flow is when fresh gas flow exceeds minute ventilation, while low flow is when it is less than minute ventilation.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of using high flow oxygen during patient induction?

A

To build up oxygen reserves and to denitrogenate the patient.

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22
Q

What are the potential benefits of high flow oxygen during anesthesia?

A
  • Rapid changes in anesthetic concentration
  • Prevents re-breathing
  • Maintains fresh gas flow
  • Cools and humidifies the gas
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23
Q

What is a downside of using high flow oxygen in anesthesia?

A

It can be wasteful, leading to increased costs due to higher usage of fresh gas and volatile anesthetics.

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24
Q

What are the advantages of low flow anesthesia?

A
  • Cost-effective
  • Reduces drying and cooling of secretions
  • Allows for slow changes in anesthetic concentration
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25
Q

True or False: Low flow anesthesia is more expensive than high flow anesthesia.

A

False

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26
Q

What is compound A and its relevance to low flow anesthetics?

A

It was a concern with Sevoflurane that has since been determined not to be a significant issue.

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27
Q

What factors influence the cost of anesthetic gases?

A
  • Purchase volume
  • Potency of the anesthetic
  • Fresh gas flow rates
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28
Q

What is a common volatile anesthetic used for pediatric patients?

A

Sevoflurane

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29
Q

What is the mechanism by which volatile anesthetics induce bronchodilation?

A

They relax airway smooth muscle by blocking calcium.

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30
Q

Fill in the blank: The process by which exposure to ischemia in small amounts can protect the myocardium from later ischemic events is called _______.

A

ischemic preconditioning

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31
Q

What is the definition of one MAC in anesthesia?

A

The concentration of anesthetic at which 50% of patients do not move in response to a supramaximal stimulus.

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32
Q

What physiological effect do volatile anesthetics have on cerebral metabolic requirements?

A

They cause a dose-dependent decrease in cerebral metabolic requirements for oxygen.

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33
Q

What is a potential negative effect of volatile anesthetics on consciousness?

A

They depress awareness and can lead to unconsciousness at low doses.

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34
Q

What is the significance of maintaining intact epithelium for bronchodilation with volatile anesthetics?

A

Bronchodilation is most effective when the airway epithelium is intact and not inflamed or damaged.

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35
Q

What role does the flow rate of oxygen play in the delivery of anesthetic gases?

A

Higher flow rates increase the delivery rate and concentration of anesthetic gases to the patient.

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36
Q

How can the use of volatile anesthetics affect pediatric patients during induction?

A

They can provide a smoother induction and better bronchodilation, especially in patients with bronchospasm.

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37
Q

True or False: Nitrous oxide is included in the category of volatile anesthetics.

A

False

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38
Q

What is the recommended practice for using Sevoflurane in pediatric patients?

A

It is preferred due to its low irritability and effective bronchodilation.

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39
Q

What is one way to mitigate the effects of ischemia using volatile anesthetics?

A

By administrating small amounts of volatile anesthetic before a significant ischemic event.

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40
Q

What happens to a patient at 1.5 MAC?

A

Burst suppression occurs in EEG readings

Burst suppression means periods of electrical activity are depressed.

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41
Q

What is the effect of 2 MAC on EEG?

A

Electrical silence

2 MAC is not typically used as an anesthetic level.

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42
Q

Is there a preference among volatile anesthetics regarding CNS activity?

A

No, Isoflurane, Sevoflurane, and Desflurane have similar CNS activity at high concentrations.

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43
Q

What is a pro-convulsant volatile anesthetic?

A

Influrane

It is less commonly used in the US today.

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44
Q

What are somatosensory evoked potentials?

A

Responses from sensory stimulation that travel to the brain

Example: A poke to the toe results in a sensation registered in the brain.

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45
Q

What happens to somatosensory and motor evoked potentials under volatile anesthetics?

A

Amplitude decreases and latency increases.

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46
Q

What is the maximum MAC of volatile anesthetic recommended during SSEPs and MEPs?

A

Half a MAC

This helps maintain adequate amplitude and latency for evaluation.

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47
Q

What is the effect of volatile anesthetics on cerebral blood flow?

A

Cerebral blood flow increases due to vasodilation.

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48
Q

At what MAC does cerebral blood flow increase begin?

A

Around 0.6 MAC.

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49
Q

Which volatile anesthetic is preferred for neuro patients with head injuries?

A

Sevoflurane

It causes less vasodilation and therefore less increase in cerebral blood flow.

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50
Q

What is autoregulation in relation to blood pressure?

A

The ability of blood vessels to maintain constant blood flow despite changes in blood pressure.

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51
Q

What is the typical autoregulation range for blood pressure?

A

50 to 150 mmHg.

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52
Q

What can cause the resetting of autoregulation in hypertensive patients?

A

Chronic hypertension.

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53
Q

What is the consequence of losing autoregulation with volatile anesthetics?

A

Increased risk of inadequate cerebral perfusion at extremes of blood pressure.

54
Q

Which volatile anesthetic has the least effect on increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A

Sevoflurane.

55
Q

What is the typical increase in ICP at about 0.8 MAC?

A

About 7 mmHg.

56
Q

What happens to respiratory rate and tidal volume with increasing doses of volatile anesthetics?

A

Respiratory rate increases and tidal volume decreases.

57
Q

At what MAC do respiratory center depression effects become significant?

A

Around 1.5 to 2 MAC.

58
Q

What is the recommended approach for maintaining anesthesia with volatile agents?

A

Use a combination of half MAC of volatile and other agents like nitrous or narcotics.

59
Q

What is the significance of maintaining a steady state in anesthesia?

A

To avoid fluctuations in consciousness during surgery.

60
Q

What is the primary reason for not using a mask for anesthesia in cases?

A

It requires effort to maintain the mask on the face and manage ventilation

This limits the anesthesiologist’s ability to perform other tasks such as charting or administering medications.

61
Q

What is the effect of volatile anesthetics on the hypoxic response?

A

They blunt the hypoxic response, reducing the body’s drive to breathe when oxygen levels are low

At 1.1 MAC, there is 100% depression of the hypoxic response.

62
Q

What is hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?

A

A compensatory mechanism that optimizes ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching by directing blood flow away from poorly ventilated areas

Volatile anesthetics decrease the effectiveness of this response.

63
Q

How do volatile anesthetics affect mean arterial pressure?

A

They cause vasodilation, leading to decreased mean arterial pressure

They also depress the myocardium in a dose-dependent manner.

64
Q

What is the relationship between heart rate and volatile anesthetics?

A

There is a dose-dependent increase in heart rate with increased volatile anesthetic use

This occurs even at low concentrations for isoflurane and desflurane.

65
Q

What is the MAC of desflurane?

A

6.6

This is important for determining the appropriate concentration during induction.

66
Q

What can obscure tachycardia during anesthesia induction?

A
  • Administration of opioids
  • Use of beta blockers
  • Patient anxiety

These factors can mask the expected increase in heart rate from volatile anesthetics.

67
Q

What happens to cardiac output with increasing volatile anesthetics?

A

Cardiac output decreases due to a drop in systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

This is a result of both increased volatile concentration and vasodilation.

68
Q

What is a common effect of volatile anesthetics on the QT interval?

A

Prolongation of the QT interval

This is particularly concerning when combined with other medications that also prolong the QT interval.

69
Q

What effect do volatile anesthetics have on the immune system?

A

They suppress monocytes, macrophages, and T cells

This suppression may lead to increased recurrence of cancers post-general anesthesia.

70
Q

How do volatile anesthetics affect liver blood flow?

A

They maintain or increase liver blood flow

This is in contrast to halothane, which significantly decreases hepatic flow.

71
Q

What are the two types of hepatotoxicity associated with halothane?

A
  • Type One: Mild, flu-like symptoms
  • Type Two: Immune-mediated, severe illness with enzyme elevation

Type Two occurs about a month after exposure.

72
Q

What is a key reason halothane is no longer used in the United States?

A

It caused significant hepatotoxicity

Modern anesthetics like isoflurane and desflurane do not have this issue.

73
Q

What renal effects are observed with volatile anesthetics?

A
  • Decreased renal blood flow
  • Decreased GFR
  • Decreased urine output

These effects are more pronounced in longer surgical cases.

74
Q

What is the renal effect of volatile anesthetics like isoflurane?

A

Decreased renal blood flow, decreased GFR, decreased urine output

75
Q

When is a Foley catheter typically placed during surgery?

A

After two hours of surgery

76
Q

What factors contribute to decreased urine output during surgery?

A
  • Decreased renal blood flow
  • Decreased GFR
  • Patient positioning
77
Q

True or False: Urine output in the operating room is always expected to be 30 cc’s per hour.

78
Q

What is the primary concern regarding urine output in patients undergoing surgery?

A

Adequate hydration

79
Q

What is a common reason for not administering Lasix during surgery?

A

No significant reason to worry about urine output

80
Q

What is compound A in relation to sevoflurane?

A

A nephrotoxin created under low flow anesthesia conditions

81
Q

What components of absorbent were traditionally used with sevoflurane?

A
  • Potassium hydroxide
  • Sodium hydroxide
82
Q

What change has been made to absorbent materials to reduce nephrotoxicity?

A

Transition to calcium hydroxide

83
Q

What is the significant threshold of compound A that could cause acute tubular necrosis in rats?

A

100 parts per million

84
Q

What is the current belief regarding the clinical significance of compound A in adults under low flow anesthesia?

A

Not clinically significant

85
Q

What is a potential risk when sevoflurane reacts with desiccated absorbent?

A

Spontaneous combustion

86
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

An inherited genetic condition triggered by volatiles and succinylcholine causing hypermetabolic state

87
Q

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

88
Q

What does dantrolene do?

A

It is a calcium channel blocker

89
Q

What are common triggers for postoperative nausea and vomiting?

A
  • Female gender
  • Prior history of nausea
  • Family history of nausea
90
Q

Fill in the blank: Nitrous oxide above _____ MAC is very pro emetic.

91
Q

What can volatile anesthetics cause in relation to B12?

A

Deficiency that inhibits DNA synthesis

92
Q

What is a potential effect of volatile anesthetics on plasma homocysteine levels?

A

Increased levels associated with ischemic events

93
Q

What is the effect of volatile anesthetics on uterine smooth muscle contractility?

A

Decreased contractility

94
Q

What is halothane known for in the context of volatile anesthetics?

A

It is the historical benchmark for comparison

95
Q

What is a significant downside of halothane as an anesthetic?

A

Higher solubility leading to slower induction and wake-up

96
Q

What is isoflurane known for in patient experience?

A

Very pungent, causing coughing and gasping

97
Q

True or False: Isoflurane is inexpensive to produce.

98
Q

What is ISOFLURANE?

A

An isoflurane volatile anesthetic that is pungent and can cause coughing and gasping when inhaled.

ISOFLURANE is known for being expensive and resistant to metabolism.

99
Q

What are the advantages of ISOFLURANE over Halothane?

A

It does not cause hepatic and renal toxicity, and it is very stable over time.

Halothane was known to have significant organ toxicity.

100
Q

What is a notable characteristic of Dust Fluorine?

A

It has very low solubility, allowing it to quickly move from blood to brain or fat.

This characteristic is beneficial for rapid anesthetic effects.

101
Q

What type of vaporizer is required for Dust Fluorine?

A

A special heated vaporizer due to its vapor pressure being close to atmospheric pressure.

This was necessary to maintain proper delivery of the anesthetic.

102
Q

What is a common issue when using volatile anesthetics?

A

Coughing, choking, and laryngeal spasms can occur due to their pungency.

This can lead to loss of airway if not managed properly.

103
Q

What can happen if absorbent material in anesthesia equipment is dehydrated?

A

It can lead to the formation of carbon monoxide.

This is a dangerous situation that can arise from improper management of equipment.

104
Q

What is SEMO fluorine known for?

A

It has low solubility and is less pungent than other volatile anesthetics.

This makes it a safer option for patients during anesthesia.

105
Q

Why is SEVOFLURANE preferred for neuro patients?

A

It causes the least cerebral vasodilation.

This is crucial for patients with increased intracranial pressure.

106
Q

What is the MAC of nitrous oxide?

A

104.

MAC stands for Minimum Alveolar Concentration, which indicates the potency of an anesthetic.

107
Q

Why can nitrous oxide not be used as the sole anesthetic?

A

Because it cannot exceed a 100% total of partial pressures, limiting its effectiveness alone.

It is always used as a supplement to other anesthetics.

108
Q

What is the second gas effect in relation to nitrous oxide?

A

It enhances the inhalation of other anesthetics by increasing their concentration in the pulmonary capillaries.

This effect speeds up the induction of anesthesia.

109
Q

What are negative effects associated with nitrous oxide?

A

Nausea and vomiting, especially in pediatric patients.

It also increases pulmonary vascular resistance, making it unsuitable for neonates.

110
Q

What should students do according to the lecture?

A

Start looking at videos and review the syllabus for guidance on study materials.

The syllabus provides valuable resources for exam preparation.

111
Q

What are the positive effects of nitrous oxide?

A

Good analgesia, 2nd gas effect

Nitrous oxide is often used for its analgesic properties and in combination with other anesthetics.

112
Q

What are the negative effects of nitrous oxide?

A

Nausea/vomiting > 50%, ↑ PVR, may increase right-to-left shunt in neonates, jeopardize arterial oxygenation

These effects can complicate its use, especially in vulnerable populations.

113
Q

What is the solubility and potency of nitrous oxide?

A

Low solubility, low potency

Nitrous oxide cannot produce skeletal muscle relaxation and cannot deliver 1 MAC.

114
Q

What is the cardiovascular effect of nitrous oxide?

A

No cardiac depression

Nitrous oxide has minimal effects on heart rate and contractility compared to other anesthetics.

115
Q

What happens to cardiac output with volatiles?

A

Dose dependent decrease in CO, offset by mild increase in HR

This is particularly relevant for modern volatile anesthetics.

116
Q

What is the impact of nitrous oxide on the immune system?

A

Suppression of monocytes, macrophages, and T-cells

There is some evidence that general anesthesia may increase metastasis and mortality.

117
Q

What is hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction?

A

Normal contraction of pulmonary artery smooth muscle to divert blood flow

This mechanism is vital during one-lung ventilation.

118
Q

How does nitrous oxide affect the carbon dioxide response curve?

A

Blunts hypoxic response and hypercarbic response

This occurs at various MAC levels and can affect postoperative ventilation.

119
Q

What is the renal effect of inhalational anesthetics?

A

Dose dependent decrease in RBF, GFR, and U/O

Preoperative hydration can mitigate these effects.

120
Q

What are the metabolic effects of nitrous oxide?

A

B12 deficiency, inhibits methionine synthase

This can lead to megaloblastic anemia and increased plasma homocysteine levels.

121
Q

What are the obstetric effects of inhalational anesthetics?

A

Dose-dependent decrease in uterine smooth muscle contractility

This can be useful in certain obstetric situations but may worsen uterine atony.

122
Q

What is the main concern with halothane?

A

Catecholamine-induced arrhythmias and hepatic necrosis

Halothane has significant risks, particularly in pediatric patients.

123
Q

What is sevoflurane known for?

A

Low solubility, least airway irritation of modern volatiles

It is commonly used due to its favorable properties.

124
Q

What is the characteristic of desflurane?

A

Most pungent, requires special vaporizer

Desflurane can cause coughing and laryngospasm at higher concentrations.

125
Q

True or False: Nitrous oxide has a skeletal muscle relaxant effect.

A

False

Nitrous oxide does not produce relaxation of skeletal muscles.

126
Q

What is the effect of volatile anesthetics on cerebral blood flow?

A

Dose-dependent increase in CBF due to decreased cerebral vascular resistance

This can lead to increased ICP in certain patients.

127
Q

What are the symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Muscle rigidity, ↑ body temperature, ↑ CO2 production

It can be triggered by all volatile agents and succinylcholine.

128
Q

What is the effect of inhalation anesthesia on CMRO2?

A

Dose dependent decrease in CMRO2 and cerebral activity

Begins around 0.4 MAC, leading to unconsciousness.

129
Q

What are the risks associated with sevoflurane?

A

Formation of Compound A, reacts with desiccated absorbent

This reaction can lead to nephrotoxicity and spontaneous combustion.

130
Q

What is the role of adenosine in ischemic preconditioning?

A

Mediates increased protein kinase C activity

This helps to better regulate vascular tone and prevent reperfusion injury.

131
Q

Fill in the blank: Nitrous oxide oxidizes the cobalt ion in _______.

A

B12

This action inhibits methionine synthase and DNA synthesis.

132
Q

What is the most common metabolic consequence of nitrous oxide?

A

Megaloblastic bone marrow suppression

This can occur after 24 hours of exposure to nitrous oxide.