Exam 2: 17 Feb Opioids Flashcards

1
Q

What is the opioid epidemic?

A

A widespread issue related to the misuse of opioids, particularly highlighted in Florida

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2
Q

What is opioid-free anesthesia?

A

An approach that avoids the use of opioids during anesthesia, utilizing multimodal anesthesia techniques

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3
Q

What are some techniques used in opioid-free anesthesia?

A
  • Multimodal anesthesia
  • Peripheral nerve blocks
  • Spinal or epidural anesthesia
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4
Q

What are the key properties of morphine?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Euphoria
  • Sedation
  • Respiratory depression
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5
Q

What are some common side effects of opioids?

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Constipation
  • Cardiovascular effects
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6
Q

What is the role of physostigmine in opioid use?

A

To reverse opioid-induced ventilatory depression without affecting analgesia

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7
Q

What is lipid solubility’s significance in opioids?

A

It is the primary factor affecting the onset of action of drugs

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8
Q

What does PK analysis stand for?

A

Pharmacokinetics analysis

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9
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary factors affecting the onset of action of opioids include _______.

A

[lipid solubility]

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10
Q

What are the three main opioid receptors?

A
  • Mu
  • Delta
  • Kappa
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11
Q

What are the effects produced by mu receptors?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Euphoria
  • Sedation
  • Respiratory depression
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12
Q

What is the time course of opioid withdrawal?

A

Includes initial symptoms that vary in severity over time

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13
Q

What is the significance of understanding opioid withdrawal?

A

It is crucial for clinical practice and managing patient care

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14
Q

What is the origin of opiates?

A

Derived from the Papaver somniferum plant

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15
Q

What is the historical misconception about heroin?

A

Initially thought to not cause addiction

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16
Q

What are agonist-antagonist opioids used for?

A

Managing dependence and tolerance

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17
Q

True or False: Fentanyl has a slower onset than morphine.

A

False

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18
Q

What is the primary use of naloxone?

A

To reverse opioid overdose

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19
Q

What are the structural categories of opioids?

A
  • Phenanthrenes
  • Benzyl isoprenylamines
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20
Q

What is the significance of understanding opioid pharmacokinetics?

A

It ensures safe and effective anesthesia practice

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21
Q

What is the relationship between opioid dosing and protein binding?

A

Protein binding affects the distribution and elimination of opioids

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22
Q

What are some routes of administration for opioids?

A
  • IV
  • PO
  • Peripheral nerve blocks
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23
Q

What is the clinical use of hydromorphone?

A

Post-operative pain management

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24
Q

What is the importance of monitoring patients on opioids?

A

To avoid adverse effects such as respiratory depression

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25
Q

What does the term ‘enhanced recovery’ refer to?

A

An approach to surgical procedures that avoids opioids

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26
Q

What are opioid receptors responsible for?

A

Mediating therapeutic analgesic effects and side effects of opioid medications

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27
Q

Where are opioid receptors located?

A

In the brain and dorsal horn of the spinal cord, including areas like the thalamus and perioperative brain

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28
Q

What types of receptors do opioids act as agonists on?

A

Mu (μ), Delta (δ), and Kappa (κ) receptors

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29
Q

What are the primary effects of mu receptors?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Euphoria
  • Sedation
  • Respiratory depression
  • Decreased peristalsis (leading to constipation)
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30
Q

What is the effect of delta receptors in the brain?

A

May have a hallucinogenic effect and cause decreased gastrointestinal secretions

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31
Q

What is the role of Kappa receptors?

A

Mediates dysphoria by reducing dopamine release

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32
Q

What is the primary mechanism of opioids?

A

Act as agonists at specific opioid receptors

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33
Q

What neurotransmitters are inhibited by opioid receptors?

A
  • Acetylcholine
  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • Substance P
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34
Q

What is the effect of opioids on neurotransmission?

A

Decreased neurotransmission, leading to modulation of pain

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35
Q

Where in the spinal cord are opioid receptors specifically found?

A

In interneurons and primary afferent neurons in the dorsal horn, especially in the substantia gelatinosa

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36
Q

What is the direct application of opioids in clinical practice?

A

To produce intense analgesia

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37
Q

What is the typical dosage range for spinal fentanyl?

A

10 to 25 micrograms

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38
Q

What are some common side effects of opioids?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypothermia
  • Urinary retention
  • Constipation
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39
Q

Which receptor is associated with high physical dependence?

A

Mu (μ) receptor type 2

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40
Q

What cardiovascular effects can opioids have?

A
  • Decreased sympathetic nervous system tone
  • Decreased venous return
  • Decreased cardiac output
  • Orthostatic hypotension
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41
Q

What is a potential complication of opioid overdose?

A

Respiratory depression

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42
Q

What is the significance of maintaining patients within 20% of their baseline vitals?

A

To avoid hemodynamic instability during opioid administration

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43
Q

What can result from opioid-induced ventilation depression?

A

Decreased responsiveness of ventilation centers to carbon dioxide

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44
Q

What is the effect of opioids on the PA CO2 curve?

A

Shifts to the right

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45
Q

What is the role of physostigmine in opioid administration?

A

Antagonizes ventilatory depression without affecting analgesic properties

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46
Q

What kind of drug is dextromethorphan?

A

A cough suppressant with no analgesic effect

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47
Q

What is a common patient reaction to fentanyl during conscious sedation?

A

Reflex coughing

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48
Q

What happens to cerebral blood flow with opioid administration?

A

Decreases, potentially affecting intracranial pressure (ICP)

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49
Q

What should be monitored during emergence from anesthesia?

A

Pupil constriction to assess for potential opioid overdose

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50
Q

What does a shift to the right in the PA CO2 curve indicate?

A

Increased CO2 levels required for ventilation

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51
Q

True or False: Naloxone is a complete reversal agent for all anesthetic agents.

A

False

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52
Q

Fill in the blank: Opioids can be used in conjunction with _______ to produce intense analgesia.

A

Local anesthetics

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53
Q

What should be cautioned when administering opiates?

A

Administration of opiates must be cautious due to effects on wakefulness, meiosis, and potential myoclonus in head injury patients.

Opiates can cross the blood-brain barrier and have significant CNS effects.

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54
Q

What is the effect of opioids on respiratory rate compared to volatile anesthetics?

A

Opioids decrease respiratory rate, while volatile anesthetics increase it.

This contrast is crucial during patient emergence from anesthesia.

55
Q

What is the treatment for skeletal thoracic muscle rigidity caused by opioids?

A

The treatment is to administer muscle relaxants or reverse the fentanyl with naloxone.

Naloxone is a pure antagonist that can help reverse opioid effects.

56
Q

What percentage of patients experience sedation with opioids during titration?

A

Sedation occurs in 60% of patients during opioid titration.

This is an important consideration for post-operative care.

57
Q

Fill in the blank: The opioid that is considered the gold standard is _______.

58
Q

What are the common side effects of morphine?

A

Common side effects include:
* Analgesia
* Euphoria
* Sedation
* Nausea
* Flushing
* Delayed gastric emptying

Morphine can also cause diminished ability to concentrate and heaviness of extremities.

59
Q

What is the typical onset time for morphine when administered IV?

A

The onset time is 10 to 20 minutes.

60
Q

What is the peak effect time for morphine?

A

The peak effect time is 45 to 90 minutes.

61
Q

What happens to opioid receptors with prolonged use?

A

There is down-regulation and desensitization of opioid receptors, leading to tolerance.

This typically occurs within two to three weeks.

62
Q

True or False: Glucagon can antagonize opioids.

63
Q

What is the maximum dose of glucagon that can be given incrementally?

A

The maximum dose is 2 milligrams.

64
Q

What are the effects of glucagon related to gastric emptying?

A

Glucagon may increase gastric emptying, causing diarrhea or vomiting.

It is important to titrate glucagon carefully.

65
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary goal of non-opioid anesthesia is to keep patients _______.

A

opioid free.

66
Q

What is the elimination half-life of morphine affected by in renal dysfunction?

A

Elimination half-life is prolonged in renal dysfunction.

67
Q

What should be monitored closely when titrating morphine?

A

Blood pressure should be monitored closely to avoid hypotension.

68
Q

What is the typical duration of action for morphine?

A

The duration of action is 4 to 5 hours.

69
Q

What is the effect of opioids on gastrointestinal motility?

A

Opioids cause delayed gastric emptying and may lead to nausea and vomiting.

70
Q

What is the recommended initial dose of morphine for titration?

A

The recommended initial dose is 1 to 10 milligrams IV.

71
Q

What is the risk associated with administering high doses of intraoperative opioids?

A

Higher doses can lead to greater post-operative pain.

This is why there is a shift towards opioid-free anesthesia.

72
Q

What is the role of naloxone in opioid administration?

A

Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids.

73
Q

What is the effect of opioids on the CNS?

A

Opioids cause sedation and can affect ventilatory drive.

74
Q

What are the potential neonatal effects of opioid administration during pregnancy?

A

Neonatal depression and dependence can occur.

75
Q

What is the dilution ratio for morphine to achieve one milligram per ml?

A

Dilute morphine to one milligram per ml

This involves adjusting the concentration appropriately.

76
Q

What is the typical administration interval for morphine during emergence?

A

15 to 30 minutes

This is monitored over three blood pressure cycles.

77
Q

What are the potential side effects of morphine?

A
  • Pleuritis
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Post-operative nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Promotion of ileus
78
Q

Why is morphine losing favor in anesthesia?

A

It is too long-acting and not favorable for opioid-free anesthesia

The trend is moving towards minimizing opioid use.

79
Q

What is the potency comparison of meperidine to morphine?

A

Meperidine is 110 times as potent as morphine

This refers to its analgesic effect.

80
Q

What is the typical dose of meperidine for post-operative shivering?

A

12.5 to 25 milligrams

Usually given as half a milliliter of 25 mg/ml solution.

81
Q

What physiological effect does shivering have on oxygen utilization?

A

Increases oxygen consumption by 500%

This can lead to decreased oxygenation to vital organs.

82
Q

What are the side effects of meperidine?

A
  • Sedation
  • Euphoria
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Respiratory depression
83
Q

What is the elimination half-life of meperidine?

A

3 to 5 hours

Prolonged to 35 hours in renal failure.

84
Q

What is the mechanism of action for meperidine?

A

Agonist at mu and kappa opioid receptors

Also acts on alpha-2 receptors.

85
Q

Fentanyl is how many times more potent than morphine?

A

7125 times more potent

This highlights its strong analgesic properties.

86
Q

What is the equilibration time for fentanyl in the body?

A

6.4 minutes

This is the time it takes for fentanyl to reach effective concentrations.

87
Q

What is the context-sensitive half-time for fentanyl infusions?

A

Remains stable with prolonged infusion durations

This means the duration of action does not significantly increase.

88
Q

What is the primary metabolism pathway for fentanyl?

A

CYP 450 enzymes, specifically CYP3A4

The principal metabolite is norfentanyl.

89
Q

What is the first-pass effect for fentanyl in the lungs?

A

75%

This highlights the significant extraction and accumulation of fentanyl in the pulmonary circulation.

90
Q

What are the potential side effects of fentanyl?

A
  • Delirium
  • Confusion
  • Hallucinations
  • Myoclonus
  • Seizures
91
Q

How does fentanyl affect elderly patients?

A

Requires careful titration due to lower fat content

Elderly patients may experience increased effects due to different pharmacokinetics.

92
Q

What is the typical IV induction dose of fentanyl?

A

1.5 to 3 micrograms per kilogram

Administered five minutes prior to intubation.

93
Q

What is the role of fentanyl in relation to inhaled anesthetics?

A

Used as an adjunct to enhance analgesia

Especially useful during inhalation inductions for pediatric patients.

94
Q

What is the primary reason not to use fentanyl during cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

Significant absorption in the bypass circuit

This can affect the drug’s efficacy and dosing.

95
Q

What is the purpose of anticipating changes in surgical stimulation during pediatric inhalation inductions?

A

To adjust anesthesia levels accordingly, such as administering more fentanyl.

96
Q

What is the recommended dosage range for fentanyl as a solo anesthesia in pediatric patients?

A

50 to 150 mcg/kg IV.

97
Q

What are some drugs that can be used intrathecally?

A
  • Bupivacaine
  • Lidocaine
  • Morphine
  • Demerol
98
Q

Fill in the blank: One milligram of oral fentanyl is equivalent to _______ milligrams of IV morphine.

99
Q

What are some forms of oral transmucosal drugs used in pediatrics?

A
  • Lozenges
  • Rapidly dissolving film
  • Lidocaine lollipops
100
Q

What is a significant risk when administering fentanyl to patients with transdermal patches?

A

Hypotension due to cumulative effects.

101
Q

True or False: Fentanyl causes significant bradycardia.

102
Q

What is the effect of high doses of fentanyl on intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A

Modest increase in ICP of 6 to 9.

103
Q

What is the potency comparison of sufentanil to fentanyl?

A

5 to 12 times more potent than fentanyl.

104
Q

What are the primary routes of metabolism and excretion for sufentanil?

A
  • Hepatic metabolism
  • Renal and fecal excretion
105
Q

What is the onset time for alfentanil compared to fentanyl?

A

1.4 minutes faster than fentanyl.

106
Q

What is the elimination half-life of remifentanil?

A

6.3 minutes.

107
Q

What is the primary metabolism pathway for remifentanil?

A

Hydrolysis by non-specific plasma and tissue esterases.

108
Q

Fill in the blank: Remifentanil is _______ times more potent than fentanyl.

109
Q

What are some common side effects of remifentanil?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Respiratory depression
  • Decreased heart rate
110
Q

What is the recommended use of hydromorphone?

A

As a postoperative analgesic.

111
Q

What is the potency of hydromorphone compared to morphine?

A

5 to 10 times more potent than morphine.

112
Q

True or False: Methadone is widely used in anesthesia.

113
Q

What is the elimination half-life of hydromorphone?

A

3 to 3.5 hours.

114
Q

What are the primary receptors targeted by opioid agonists such as hydromorphone?

A

Mu receptors.

115
Q

What should be monitored when using fentanyl in an epidural or IV setting?

A

Hemodynamics and potential for chest rigidity.

116
Q

What is the clinical use of alfentanil?

A

Induction and maintenance of anesthesia.

117
Q

What is a key consideration when using opioids in patients with chronic renal failure?

A

Caution due to altered excretion.

118
Q

What is the mechanism of action shared by oxymorphone, oxycodone, and hydrocodone?

A

They act on the same receptors as other opioid agonists.

119
Q

In what contexts is methadone primarily used?

A

Opioid withdrawal and chronic pain.

120
Q

What is the typical dosage comparison of tramadol to morphine?

A

Five to ten times less than morphine.

121
Q

What are the main receptors targeted by tramadol?

A

Weak Kappa and Delta.

122
Q

What is the onset time for tramadol when administered orally?

A

Three minutes per kid.

123
Q

True or False: Tramadol has no potential for addiction.

124
Q

Which opioid has the fastest blood-brain equilibration time?

A

Fentanyl, taking only 1.1 minutes.

125
Q

What is the primary factor affecting the onset of action for opioids?

A

Effect site equilibration.

126
Q

List the factors that influence the drug’s onset of action.

A
  • Volume of distribution
  • Clearance
  • Protein binding
  • Percent ionized
  • PK of the drug
  • pH of the patient
127
Q

What does lipid solubility have the highest effect on?

A

Effect site equilibration.

128
Q

What should be considered when administering opioids?

A

The route of administration (IV, PO, intrathecal, etc.) and target receptors.

129
Q

What is the significance of comparing morphine versus fentanyl?

A

To analyze their differences in efficacy and onset times.

130
Q

What is recommended for group discussions regarding the opioid table?

A

Identify the worst and best drugs based on various parameters.

131
Q

What was the conclusion of the agonist section?

A

The discussion on opioid agonists and their characteristics.

132
Q

What time was the break scheduled during the session?

133
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ component is used in opioid withdrawal and chronic pain.

A

cannabinoids