24 Mar 25 NMBD & Intro and Succinylcholine Flashcards

1
Q

What is neuromuscular blockade?

A

A pharmacological technique used to induce muscle paralysis for surgical procedures.

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2
Q

What is succinylcholine?

A

A depolarizing drug used for rapid tracheal intubation with an onset of 30-60 seconds and a duration of 3-5 minutes.

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3
Q

List some side effects of succinylcholine.

A
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Myalgias
  • Increased intraocular pressure
  • Increased intracranial pressure
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4
Q

What can mitigate the side effects of succinylcholine?

A

Pre-treatment with a non-depolarizing drug.

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5
Q

What are the contraindications for using succinylcholine?

A
  • Renal failure
  • Pregnancy
  • Certain genetic conditions
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6
Q

What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?

A

It mimics the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

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7
Q

What are the two categories of neuromuscular blockade drugs?

A
  • Depolarizing drugs
  • Non-depolarizing drugs
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8
Q

What is the primary non-depolarizing drug mentioned?

A

Pancuronium and vecuronium.

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9
Q

Fill in the blank: Succinylcholine causes _______ and is used for rapid intubation.

A

muscle paralysis

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10
Q

True or False: Succinylcholine is the only drug in the depolarizing category.

A

True.

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11
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

An autoimmune disease that affects neuromuscular transmission, increasing sensitivity to neuromuscular blockade drugs.

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12
Q

What is the role of reversal agents like neostigmine?

A

To reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade drugs.

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13
Q

What is the purpose of using nerve stimulators during anesthesia?

A

To monitor muscle paralysis and residual paralysis.

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14
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

A life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics, treated with dantrolene.

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15
Q

List reasons for using neuromuscular blockade during surgery.

A
  • Minimize tissue trauma
  • Facilitate surgical exposure
  • Prevent patient movement
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16
Q

What is the significance of documenting the use of reversal agents?

A

To ensure safe monitoring and recovery of the patient.

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17
Q

What is the effect of autoimmunity on neuromuscular blockade?

A

Increased sensitivity to neuromuscular blockade drugs.

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18
Q

What should be monitored in patients receiving neuromuscular blockade?

A

Signs of complications and recovery from paralysis.

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: The use of _______ can help prevent fasciculations associated with succinylcholine.

A

non-depolarizing drugs

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20
Q

How does succinylcholine affect intraocular and intracranial pressure?

A

It increases both intraocular and intracranial pressure.

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21
Q

True or False: Succinylcholine is contraindicated in patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia.

A

True.

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22
Q

What is the historical significance of curare?

A

It was used by South American tribes for hunting and is a precursor to modern neuromuscular blockade drugs.

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23
Q

What is the importance of individualizing drug doses in anesthesia?

A

To account for the patient’s medical history and laboratory values.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of using a neuromuscular blocker that lasts longer?

A

To avoid the need for frequent redosing

Frequent redosing can complicate patient management and increase the risk of side effects.

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25
Q

How is the effective dose of a neuromuscular blocker measured?

A

By the 80-95% suppression of muscle twitch response

This measurement indicates that the drug is effectively causing neuromuscular blockade.

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26
Q

What is the significance of the order of muscle paralysis with neuromuscular blockers?

A

It helps determine which muscles are affected first and last during paralysis and recovery

Understanding this order is crucial for effective intubation and monitoring recovery.

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27
Q

Which muscles typically paralyze faster with neuromuscular blockers?

A

Small, rapidly moving muscles

Examples include eyelids and fingers, which respond quicker than larger muscles like the diaphragm.

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28
Q

What is the role of blood flow in the effectiveness of neuromuscular blockers?

A

Increased blood flow facilitates faster delivery of the drug to muscles

Muscles with better blood supply will experience faster paralysis and recovery.

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29
Q

Which muscle is considered the gold standard for recovery monitoring with neuromuscular blockers?

A

Adductor pollicis

It is used because it is a reliable indicator of neuromuscular recovery.

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30
Q

What does the presence of twitching in the orbicularis oculi indicate?

A

That paralysis may not be complete

This helps assess the depth of neuromuscular blockade.

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31
Q

What is the purpose of a nerve stimulator in anesthesia?

A

To assess neuromuscular function and monitor paralysis

It provides quantitative data on muscle response to stimulation.

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32
Q

What is a single twitch test?

A

A test where a single electrical stimulus is applied to assess muscle response

It helps determine if neuromuscular blockade is present.

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33
Q

What does the double burst stimulation evaluate?

A

Residual neuromuscular block by comparing two twitches

It provides a more sensitive measure of muscle response than a single twitch.

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34
Q

What is the significance of the train of four stimulation?

A

It provides a quantitative assessment of neuromuscular function by delivering four stimuli

The ratio of the fourth twitch to the first helps determine the level of blockade.

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35
Q

What does a train of four ratio greater than 0.4 indicate?

A

It is difficult to assess the degree of neuromuscular recovery accurately

Higher ratios suggest more reliable muscle function.

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36
Q

Fill in the blank: The diaphragm is a _______ muscle that takes longer to paralyze with neuromuscular blockers.

A

large

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37
Q

True or False: The laryngeal muscles paralyze faster than distal muscles like the feet.

A

True

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38
Q

What is the relationship between the first and fourth twitches in the train of four assessment?

A

The fourth twitch should be compared to the first to evaluate recovery

A ratio closer to 1 indicates better recovery.

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39
Q

What does it mean if the orbicularis oculi twitches during monitoring?

A

The patient is not fully paralyzed

This informs the clinician about the effectiveness of neuromuscular blockade.

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40
Q

What is the typical setting for the nerve stimulator when testing for twitch?

A

Start at 2 or 3 to avoid discomfort

Higher settings can cause painful stimulation.

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41
Q

What is the subjective nature of twitch response in neuromuscular monitoring?

A

Twitch response is very qualitative and subjective. Different individuals may perceive the strength of twitches differently.

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42
Q

What does a train of four ratio greater than 0.4% indicate?

A

It is very difficult to determine a good neuromuscular recovery feel.

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43
Q

What does a train of four ratio of 0.7 to 0.9 indicate?

A

It suggests that the patient is almost back to complete resolution, but significant neuromuscular blockade may still be present.

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44
Q

What is tetany in the context of neuromuscular monitoring?

A

Tetany is a rapid, continuous stimulation of 50 hertz for five seconds, resulting in a sustained muscle response.

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45
Q

What does a non-sustained response in tetany suggest?

A

It suggests either a non-depolarizing block or an overdose of succinylcholine.

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46
Q

What is post-tetanic stimulation?

A

Post-tetanic stimulation involves a single twitch three seconds after tetany to assess neuromuscular function.

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47
Q

What does a lack of response in post-tetanic stimulation indicate?

A

It indicates a very strong or deep paralysis at the neuromuscular junction.

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48
Q

What are common bedside tests for extubation?

A
  • Negative inspiratory pressure * Eye opening * Hand squeezing * Toe wiggling * Tongue protrusion
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49
Q

What was the post-operative blockade rate in a study where no reversal agents were used?

A

The post-operative blockade rate was about 42%.

50
Q

What effect did education about reversal agents have on their usage?

A

Usage of neostigmine increased from 6% to 42%, reducing post-operative blockade to less than 4%.

51
Q

What is the resting membrane potential at the neuromuscular junction?

A

The resting membrane potential is approximately -90 millivolts.

52
Q

What type of receptors are located at the neuromuscular junction?

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.

53
Q

What happens when acetylcholine binds to its receptor?

A

It causes a conformational change that allows ions, especially sodium and potassium, to flow.

54
Q

What is the key difference between depolarizing and non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?

A

Depolarizing blockers like succinylcholine cause fasciculations, while non-depolarizers do not.

55
Q

What is the onset time and duration of succinylcholine?

A
  • Onset time: 30 to 60 seconds * Duration: 3 to 5 minutes
56
Q

What is the dosing guideline for succinylcholine?

A

The dose is 1 mg per kilogram of actual body weight.

57
Q

What are the clinical uses of succinylcholine?

A
  • Rapid intubation * Airway protection in trauma or emergencies * Situations with full stomachs
58
Q

What is one of the side effects of succinylcholine?

A

It can release histamine.

59
Q

What does a train of four response indicate in terms of neuromuscular function?

A

A train of four response indicates the level of neuromuscular blockade and recovery.

60
Q

What does the presence of fasciculations indicate when using succinylcholine?

A

It indicates the drug is depolarizing the neuromuscular junction.

61
Q

Fill in the blank: A post-tetanic stimulation response indicates a _______ level of paralysis.

62
Q

What is succinylcholine used for?

A

Succinylcholine is a neuromuscular blocker used to facilitate intubation and muscle relaxation during surgery.

63
Q

What can complicate ventilation in obese patients when using succinylcholine?

A

Obese patients may have a soft tissue airway, making it uncertain if they can be ventilated effectively.

64
Q

What happens to serum potassium levels when succinylcholine is administered?

A

Serum potassium levels typically increase by about 0.5 milli equivalents.

65
Q

Is succinylcholine contraindicated for all renal failure patients?

A

No, it is contraindicated only for renal failure patients with elevated potassium levels (6 or higher).

66
Q

What is the difference between phase one and phase two blocks?

A

Phase one blocks are caused by depolarizing neuromuscular blockers like succinylcholine, while phase two blocks are caused by non-depolarizing blockers.

67
Q

What is the typical dosing of succinylcholine?

A

The typical dose is 1 mg/kg of actual body weight.

68
Q

How long does succinylcholine typically last?

A

Succinylcholine lasts about three to five minutes.

69
Q

What is the role of dibucaine in testing for atypical plasma cholinesterase?

A

Dibucaine inhibits butyrylcholinesterase and is used to measure the effectiveness of succinylcholine breakdown.

70
Q

What is the significance of a dibucaine number of 80?

A

A dibucaine number of 80 indicates normal plasma cholinesterase activity, allowing for normal metabolism of succinylcholine.

71
Q

What effect does obesity have on succinylcholine metabolism?

A

Obesity quickens the breakdown of succinylcholine, shortening the duration of its effects.

72
Q

What are common side effects of succinylcholine?

A

Common side effects include hyperkalemia, increased intracranial pressure, and increased intraocular pressure.

73
Q

What is a pre-treatment with a non-depolarizing agent before succinylcholine intended to do?

A

It aims to reduce fasciculations and associated increases in intraocular and intracranial pressures.

74
Q

Fill in the blank: Succinylcholine is metabolized by _______.

A

plasma cholinesterase

75
Q

True or False: Neostigmine is effective in reversing the effects of succinylcholine.

76
Q

What should be monitored when administering succinylcholine?

A

The patient’s response to ventilation, serum potassium levels, and any signs of prolonged neuromuscular blockade.

77
Q

What factors can prolong the effects of succinylcholine?

A
  • Abnormal plasma cholinesterase activity
  • Liver failure
  • Renal failure
  • Genetic variations
78
Q

What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?

A

It attaches to the alpha subunits of the acetylcholine receptor, causing depolarization and subsequent muscle paralysis.

79
Q

What is the primary concern when giving succinylcholine to patients with liver failure?

A

They may not metabolize succinylcholine effectively, leading to prolonged neuromuscular blockade.

80
Q

What is a common effect of succinylcholine on vision?

A

Blurriness of vision

This can cause the patient to feel weaker and unable to take a deep breath.

81
Q

What cardiac dysrhythmias can occur with succinylcholine use?

A

Bradycardia, junctional rhythms, loss of P waves

These are generally not concerning and can offset each other.

82
Q

Why should potassium levels be monitored before administering succinylcholine?

A

To prevent hyperkalemia, especially in patients with renal failure or muscle disorders

Conditions like burns or muscular dystrophy can predispose patients to hyperkalemia.

83
Q

What side effect can succinylcholine cause related to muscle pain?

A

Myalgias and fasciculations

Patients may be advised to take Advil to manage post-treatment soreness.

84
Q

What is myoglobinuria and its significance in patients receiving succinylcholine?

A

Release of myoglobin causing darker urine

It may indicate underlying conditions like malignant hyperthermia or muscular dystrophy.

85
Q

How does succinylcholine affect intraocular pressure?

A

It increases intraocular pressure within 2-4 minutes of administration

This increase can be problematic for patients with glaucoma or open globe injuries.

86
Q

What is the Monroe-Kelly theory related to intracranial pressure?

A

The cranium can only hold a fixed volume of brain, cerebrospinal fluid, and blood

An increase in one component must be compensated by a decrease in another.

87
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia and its trigger?

A

A hereditary condition causing muscle destruction, triggered by succinylcholine or volatile anesthetics

It leads to rhabdomyolysis and release of myoglobin and potassium.

88
Q

What is the recommended dose of succinylcholine for patients with myasthenia gravis?

A

1.5 to 2 mg/kg

Myasthenia gravis decreases acetylcholine receptors, requiring higher doses.

89
Q

What is Lambert-Eaton syndrome and its effect on neuromuscular blockade?

A

An autoimmune disorder causing decreased release of acetylcholine, leading to increased sensitivity to neuromuscular blockers

Patients may require less succinylcholine than expected.

90
Q

True or False: Succinylcholine is contraindicated in patients with an open globe injury.

A

True

This is an absolute contraindication due to the risk of increased intraocular pressure.

91
Q

Fill in the blank: Succinylcholine can cause _______ in patients with a prolonged skeletal muscle contraction.

A

malignant hyperthermia

This can be indicated by sustained muscle rigidity.

92
Q

What should be monitored when administering dantrolene for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Cardiac output

Dantrolene is a calcium channel blocker and may exacerbate hypotension.

93
Q

What effect does hyperventilation have on cerebral blood flow?

A

It decreases cerebral blood flow by lowering CO2 levels

This can be a strategy to manage increased intracranial pressure.

94
Q

What is a potential complication of rapid sequence induction when using succinylcholine?

A

Inability to hyperventilate the patient

This is critical for managing airway control and preventing aspiration.

95
Q

What is the effect of increased sensitivity on depolarizers and non-depolarizer drugs?

A

It blocks a little bit earlier than expected, with less than expected.

96
Q

What tool is recommended to check paralysis and residual paralysis?

A

A nerve stimulator.

97
Q

Why is it important to check for paralysis during anesthesia?

A

To determine if there is still adequate blockade or if more is needed.

98
Q

Fill in the blank: The effectiveness of paralysis monitoring is __________, no matter what The Book says.

A

individualized.

99
Q

True or False: The effects of paralysis monitoring are the same for all patients.

100
Q

What factors contribute to the variability in monitoring paralysis?

A

Individual patient characteristics and timing of the procedure.

101
Q

What is the potency of a neuromuscular blocking drug (NMBD)?

A

Equal Potency: dose necessary to produce 95% suppression of single twitch in the presence of nitrous/barbiturate/opioid anesthesia

Evaluated using adductor pollicis muscle with single twitch at 1Hz and ulnar nerve stimulation.

102
Q

What is the resting membrane potential of the post-synaptic membrane at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)?

A

-90 mV

Maintained by sodium/potassium nAChRs directly opposite.

103
Q

What are the components of the synaptic cleft in the NMJ?

A
  • Collagen
  • Acetylcholinesterase
  • 5,000-10,000 vesicles releasing ACh

The synaptic cleft is 20-50 nm wide and contains fluid.

104
Q

What is the role of acetylcholinesterase in the NMJ?

A

Hydrolyzes ACh to acetic acid and choline

Located close to the synaptic cleft.

105
Q

What is the structure of the nAChR?

A

Pentameric unit with 5 sub pores

Transmembrane structure that undergoes conformational change when ACh binds.

106
Q

What happens when a neuromuscular blocking drug (NMBD) binds to nAChR?

A

No conformational change occurs, resulting in no ion flow

Probability of binding depends on concentration of NMBD vs ACh.

107
Q

What are the characteristics of succinylcholine (SCh) as a depolarizing NMBD?

A
  • Intense, rapid paralysis
  • Offset of effects prior to hypoxia
  • Useful for tracheal intubation
  • Releases histamine
  • Phase II block

SCh is the only depolarizing NMBD used in clinical practice.

108
Q

What defines a Phase I block in neuromuscular blockade?

A
  • Decreased contraction to single twitch stimulation
  • Decreased amplitude to continuous stimulation
  • TOF ratio > 0.7
  • Absence of post-tetanic facilitation
  • Skeletal muscle fasciculations

Typical of depolarizing NMBDs.

109
Q

What is the onset and duration of succinylcholine when administered?

A

Onset: 30-60 seconds; Duration: 3-5 minutes

Not a good bedside criterion for extubation.

110
Q

What is the significance of the TOF (Train of Four) ratio?

A

Amplitude of the 4th twitch to the 1st twitch indicates the degree of neuromuscular blockade

A TOFR of 0.5 indicates that the amplitude of the 4th twitch is 50% of the 1st.

111
Q

What is the difference between depolarizing and non-depolarizing NMBDs?

A
  • Depolarizing: Mimics action of acetylcholine
  • Non-depolarizing: Interferes with action of acetylcholine

Examples include succinylcholine for depolarizing and pancuronium for non-depolarizing.

112
Q

What are the side effects of succinylcholine?

A
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Myalgia
  • Myoglobinuria
  • Increased intragastric pressure
  • Increased intraocular pressure
  • Masseter spasm

These side effects can complicate the use of SCh.

113
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Autoimmune disease with antibodies against ACh receptor leading to decreased ACh receptors

Symptoms include weakness, diplopia, and respiratory muscle weakness.

114
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dantrolene?

A

Inhibits calcium release into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by affecting the ryanodine receptor

Reduces mortality in malignant hyperthermia.

115
Q

What triggers malignant hyperthermia?

A
  • All volatile anesthetics
  • Succinylcholine

Associated with mutations in skeletal muscle calcium release.

116
Q

What is the dibucaine number?

A

Reflects quality of normal variant butyrylcholinesterase activity

The lower the number, the greater the prolongation of succinylcholine effect.

117
Q

What is the clinical significance of a TOFR below 0.4?

A

Experienced anesthetists may be unable to detect fade

Poor choice to administer reversal in this situation.

118
Q

What is the effect of pretreatment with non-depolarizing NMBD?

A

Controversial efficacy in preventing side effects of succinylcholine

Some studies suggest it may reduce fasciculations.

119
Q

What are the common side effects associated with cholinesterase inhibitors?

A
  • Weakness
  • Phlebitis
  • Respiratory failure
  • Gastrointestinal upset

Less common effects include confusion, dizziness, and drowsiness.

120
Q

What is the typical duration of action for non-depolarizing NMBD?

A

Normal duration: 3-5 minutes

Termination occurs by diffusion out of NMJ into plasma.

121
Q

What factors influence the order of neuromuscular blockade?

A
  • Number of presynaptic ACh containing vesicles released
  • Number of postsynaptic ACh receptors
  • Blood flow to area
  • Drug potency

Smaller, rapidly moving muscles block faster than larger muscles.