exam 3 ch 13-17 Flashcards

1
Q

Battlefield trauma victims who have lost large volumes of blood often express a craving to drink water. Why?

A
  • Due to severe dehydration and blood volume loss.
  • Triggered by sympathetic division of ANS: increases heart rate and blood pressure to maintain perfusion to vital organs, while simultaneously suppressing functions such as digestion to conserve energy
  • Thirst sensation encourages fluid intake to restore homeostasis.
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2
Q

You’ve stayed up all night trying to meet a term paper deadline. You now are typing frantically, keeping one eye on the paper and the other on the clock. How has the periventricular zone of the hypothalamus orchestrated your body’s physiological response to this stressful situation? Describe in detail.

A
  • Orchestrates HPA axis activation.
  • Releases CRH into hypothalamo-pituitary portal circulation.
  • Stimulates anterior pituitary to release ACTH.
  • Results in cortisol release from adrenal cortex.
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3
Q

An “Addisonian crisis” describes a constellation of symptoms that include extreme weakness, mental confusion, drowsiness, low blood pressure, and abdominal pain. What causes these symptoms and what can be done to treat them?

A
  • Symptoms: extreme weakness, mental confusion, low blood pressure, abdominal pain.
  • Caused by acute adrenal insufficiency (lack of cortisol and aldosterone).
  • Treatment: Immediate administration of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.
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4
Q

Why is the adrenal medulla often referred to as a modified sympathetic ganglion? Why isn’t the adrenal cortex included in this description?

A
  • Responds to preganglionic sympathetic neurons.
  • Releases catecholamines directly into bloodstream.
  • Not part of sympathetic ganglia.
  • Adrenal cortex produces steroid hormones, not neurotransmitters.
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5
Q

A number of famous athletes and entertainers have accidentally killed themselves by taking large quantities of cocaine. Usually the cause of death is heart failure. How would you explain the peripheral actions of cocaine?

A
  • Blocks neurotransmitter reuptake (dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin).
  • Leads to excessive adrenergic receptor stimulation.
  • Causes vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure.
  • Can result in heart failure due to strain on the heart.
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6
Q

How do the diffuse modulatory and point-to-point synaptic communication systems in the brain differ? List four ways.

A
  • Diffuse modulatory: Releases neurotransmitters diffusely, modulates overall neural activity.
  • Point-to-point: Specific pathways and synapses for precise transmission.
  • Diffuse systems regulate global brain states, while point-to-point systems mediate specific functions.
  • Anatomical, neurotransmitter, and functional differences between the two.
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7
Q

Under what behavioral conditions are the noradrenergic neurons of the locus coeruleus active?
The noradrenergic neurons of the ANS?

A
  • Active under stress, arousal, vigilance.
  • Regulation of attention, arousal, sleep-wake cycles, mood.
  • Innervate various brain regions.
  • Prepare body for “fight or flight” response in ANS.
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8
Q

Which type of synaptic connection restricts synaptic communication?

A

a) Point-to-point

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9
Q

What brain area regulates body temperature and blood composition?

A

Secretory hypothalamus

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10
Q

Which hormone is released by the hypothalamus during the stress response?

A

c) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

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11
Q

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the “fight or flight” response?

A

b) Sympathetic division

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12
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released by the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

c) Acetylcholine

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13
Q

Which brain region is involved in regulating attention, arousal, and sleep-wake cycles?

A

c) Locus Coeruleus

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14
Q

Which component of the nervous system is responsible for maintaining homeostasis?

A

a) Secretory hypothalamus

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15
Q

What neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for the fast excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) at preganglionic terminals of the autonomic nervous system?

A

a) Acetylcholine

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16
Q

Which brain region integrates sensory information from internal organs and coordinates autonomic output?

A

b) Nucleus of solitary tract

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17
Q

Which neurohormone released by the posterior pituitary gland regulates blood volume and salt concentration?

A

c) Vasopressin (ADH)

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18
Q

Which neurotransmitter is primarily released by the parasympathetic nervous system postganglionic neurons?

A

c) Acetylcholine

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19
Q

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating physiological processes involved in transport and digestion of food?

A

c) Enteric division

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20
Q

Which diffuse modulatory system is particularly involved in the regulation of sleep-wake cycles and mood?

A

b) Serotonergic Raphe Nuclei

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21
Q

What is the primary function of the dorsal thalamus compared to the hypothalamus?

A

b) Integration of sensory information

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22
Q

How is movement initiated? What triggers it?

A
  • In response to environmental stimuli such as cold temperatures, the lateral hypothalamus initiates motivation to actively seek or generate warmth to maintain homeostasis.
  • Elevated leptin levels activate arcuate neurons in the hypothalamus, leading to the release of anorectic peptides such as αMSH and CART. These peptides induce responses such as activation of the sympathetic nervous system and inhibition of orexinergic neurons in the lateral hypothalamus, which can influence movement behavior.
  • Ghrelin, released when the stomach is empty, activates NPY- and AgRP-containing neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus, potentially affecting movement behavior.
  • Dopamine, particularly in the mesocorticolimbic system, plays a crucial role in motivation and reward processing.
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23
Q

Why do we eat?

A
  • Eating is associated with reinforcement and reward mechanisms mediated by neurotransmitters such as dopamine.
  • Drugs that block dopamine receptors reduce self-stimulation, indicating the involvement of dopamine in reinforcing behaviors like eating.
  • Eating is driven by both hedonic (liking) and motivational (wanting) factors.
  • Leptin influences feeding behavior through activation of arcuate neurons in the hypothalamus, which release peptides that affect appetite and energy expenditure.
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24
Q

What chemicals and what neurons are mediating feeding behaviors?

A

Hormones:
Leptin: Secreted by adipose tissue, leptin regulates body mass, appetite, and energy expenditure. Elevated levels of leptin activate specific neurons in the hypothalamus, leading to the release of anorectic peptides and influencing feeding behavior.
Ghrelin: Released when the stomach is empty, ghrelin activates neurons in the hypothalamus, including those containing neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AgRP), which stimulate appetite and food intake.

Neuropeptides and Neurotransmitters:
Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti-Related Peptide (AgRP): These peptides, released by neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus, promote feeding behavior and increase appetite.
Melanin-Concentrating Hormone (MCH) and Orexin: Neurons in the lateral hypothalamus containing MCH and orexin stimulate feeding behavior and are involved in the initiation of motivation to seek food.
Alpha-Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (αMSH) and Cocaine- and Amphetamine-Regulated Transcript (CART): These peptides, released by neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus, act as anorectic peptides, suppressing appetite and reducing food intake.
Dopamine: Dopaminergic pathways, particularly those originating from the ventral tegmental area (VTA) and projecting to the forebrain, play a role in motivation, reward, and reinforcement associated with feeding behavior.

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25
Q

A surgical approach to reducing excessive body fat is liposuction—the removal of adipose tissue. Over time, however, body adiposity usually returns to precisely the same value as before surgery. Why does liposuction not work permanently? Contrast this with the effect of gastric surgery to treat obesity.

A
  • Liposuction removes adipose tissue surgically, but over time, body adiposity returns to its previous level.
  • Adipose tissue is a dynamic organ involved in energy storage and metabolism.
  • Liposuction removes fat cells, but if energy intake exceeds expenditure, remaining fat cells can expand, leading to weight regain.
  • Liposuction does not address underlying factors contributing to obesity, such as diet, exercise, and hormonal regulation.
  • Gastric surgery alters the anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract, leading to changes in appetite, food intake, and energy balance.
  • Procedures like gastric bypass or sleeve gastrectomy reduce stomach size, alter digestion, and affect gut hormones involved in appetite regulation.
  • These surgeries result in more sustainable weight loss by influencing hormonal and neural signals that control hunger and satiety.
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26
Q

Bilateral lesions of the lateral hypothalamus lead to reduced feeding behavior. Name three types of neurons, distinguished by their neurotransmitter molecules, which contribute to this syndrome.

A
  • Neurons containing Melanin-Concentrating Hormone (MCH)
  • Neurons containing Orexin (also known as hypocretin)
  • Neurons containing Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti-Related Peptide (AgRP)
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27
Q

What neurotransmitter agonists and antagonists would you design to treat obesity? Consider drugs that could act on the neurons of the brain as well as drugs that could act on the peripheral nervous system.

A

Agonists:
- Melanocortin receptor agonists (e.g., MC4R agonists) to suppress appetite and increase energy expenditure.
- Serotonin (5-HT) receptor agonists to promote satiety and reduce food intake.
- Dopamine receptor agonists to modulate reward pathways and reduce cravings.
Antagonists:
- Cannabinoid receptor antagonists to decrease appetite and food intake.
- Ghrelin receptor antagonists to reduce hunger signals.
- Opioid receptor antagonists to diminish reward-related eating behaviors.

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28
Q

Name one way the axons of the vagus nerve might stimulate feeding behavior and one way they inhibit it.

A
  • Stimulation: Axons of the vagus nerve can transmit hunger signals to the brainstem and hypothalamus, promoting feeding behavior.
  • Inhibition: Vagal input can also convey signals of satiety from the gastrointestinal tract to the brain, inhibiting further food intake.
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29
Q

What does it mean, in neural terms, to be addicted to chocolate? How could chocolate elevate mood?

A
  • Addiction to chocolate involves activation of reward pathways in the brain, particularly the mesolimbic dopamine system.
  • Chocolate contains compounds such as phenylethylamine and theobromine, which can enhance dopamine release and produce feelings of pleasure and reward.
  • Consuming chocolate may elevate mood by increasing serotonin levels in the brain, leading to mood enhancement and temporary relief from stress or anxiety.
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30
Q

Compare and contrast the functions of these three regions of the hypothalamus: the arcuate nucleus, the subfornical organ, and the vascular organ of the lamina terminalis

A
  • Arcuate Nucleus: Contains neurons involved in appetite regulation, sensing peripheral signals of energy balance, and releasing orexigenic and anorexigenic neuropeptides.
  • Subfornical Organ: Acts as a circumventricular organ, sensing changes in blood composition and influencing thirst and fluid balance.
  • Vascular Organ of the Lamina Terminalis: Involved in regulating cardiovascular function, fluid balance, and responses to stress and inflammation
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31
Q

What is the primary function of the lateral hypothalamus in motivated behavior?

A

c) Regulating feeding behavior

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32
Q

Which of the following is a component of the neuronal response involved in maintaining homeostasis?

A

a) Humoral response

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33
Q

In the long-term regulation of feeding behavior, what hormone plays a key role in regulating body mass and energy expenditure?

A

c) Leptin

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34
Q

Which hypothalamic syndrome is associated with obesity and is related to leptin signaling?

A

b) Ventromedial hypothalamic syndrome

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35
Q

What neurotransmitters are released by arcuate neurons in response to elevated leptin levels?

A

b) α-Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (αMSH) and CART

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36
Q

Which phase of the short-term regulation of feeding is characterized by hunger signals initiated by the brain?

A

a) Cephalic phase

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37
Q

What hormone is released when the stomach is empty, activating neurons in the arcuate nucleus to stimulate appetite?

A

c) Ghrelin

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38
Q

What is the primary role of the vagus nerve in regulating feeding behavior?

A

c) Conveying satiety signals

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39
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with reinforcement and reward in the context of eating behavior?

A

c) Dopamine

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40
Q

Dopamine-depleted animals are likely to:
a) Overeat but not enjoy food
b) Have reduced appetite and food intake
c) Seek food actively but not consume it
d) Experience cravings for specific foods

A

b) Have reduced appetite and food intake

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41
Q

What neurotransmitter is implicated in mood elevation and is influenced by changes in blood tryptophan levels?

A

b) Serotonin

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42
Q

Which region of the hypothalamus is primarily involved in controlling feeding behavior?

A

a) Arcuate nucleus

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43
Q

What peptide hormones are involved in the regulation of feeding behavior by lateral hypothalamic neurons?

A

a) Melanin-concentrating hormone (MCH) and Orexin

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44
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by arcuate neurons in response to decreased leptin levels, stimulating appetite?

A

c) Neuropeptide Y (NPY)

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45
Q

Which hormone is associated with the feeling of fullness during the gastric phase of feeding regulation?

A

d) Cholecystokinin (CCK)

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46
Q

Which phase of short-term feeding regulation involves the release of insulin?

A

c) Substrate phase

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47
Q

What term describes the drive reduction aspect of eating behavior?

A

d) Wanting

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48
Q

Which neurotransmitter system is primarily involved in the mesocorticolimbic dopamine pathway associated with motivation and reward in eating behavior?

A

d) Dopaminergic

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49
Q

What neurotransmitter is often implicated in eating disorders and is associated with mood regulation?

A

a) Serotonin

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50
Q

In the context of feeding behavior, what does the lipostatic hypothesis propose?

A

c) The control of body fat levels by a feedback mechanism involving leptin

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51
Q

what are the concepts of motivated behavior and its relationship to maintaining homeostasis

A

Motivated behavior refers to actions and behaviors driven by internal needs, desires, or goals.
Motivated behaviors can vary widely and include actions such as seeking food, water, shelter, social interaction, or reproduction.
Motivated behaviors are closely linked to homeostasis as they are often aimed at restoring equilibrium or meeting biological needs necessary for survival.
For example, when the body experiences deviations from homeostatic set points (e.g., low body temperature), motivated behaviors such as seeking warmth (shivering) or food (increased appetite) are activated to restore balance.

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52
Q

Unconscious Reflexes:
Definition:

A

Unconscious reflexes are automatic, involuntary responses to sensory stimuli that occur without conscious awareness or cognitive processing.

Examples include the pupillary reflex, withdrawal reflex, and knee-jerk reflex.

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53
Q

Voluntary Movements:
Definition

A

Voluntary movements are purposeful actions initiated and controlled consciously by the individual.

Examples include reaching for an object, walking, speaking, and typing.

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54
Q

Motivated Behaviors:
Definition

A

Motivated behaviors are goal-directed actions driven by internal needs, desires, or goals.

Motivated behaviors are influenced by internal states such as hunger, thirst, and arousal, as well as external stimuli and environmental cues.

Motivated behaviors can vary widely and include actions such as seeking food, water, shelter, social interaction, or reproduction.

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55
Q

Functions of Hypothalamus in homeostasis:
Regulation of Body Temperature

A
  • In response to heat loss (e.g., exposure to cold environment), the hypothalamus triggers mechanisms such as shivering, vasoconstriction (to reduce heat loss from the skin), and increased metabolic rate to generate heat.
  • in response to heat gain (e.g., exposure to heat or exercise), the hypothalamus initiates mechanisms such as sweating, vasodilation (to promote heat loss from the skin), and inhibition of metabolic heat production.
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56
Q

Functions of Hypothalamus in homeostasis:
Regulation of Blood Composition:

A

the hypothalamus secretes corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH, in turn, stimulates the adrenal glands to secrete cortisol, which plays a crucial role in metabolism and stress response.

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57
Q

Functions of Hypothalamus in homeostasis:
Regulation of Fluid Balance:

A

The hypothalamus regulates fluid balance by controlling thirst and kidney function.
the hypothalamus influences kidney function by releasing vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys to maintain fluid balance.

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58
Q

Humoral Response:
Definition

A

The humoral response involves the release of hormones into the bloodstream in response to changes in the internal environment to maintain homeostasis.

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59
Q

Humoral Response:
Characteristics:

A

These hormones travel through the bloodstream to target organs or tissues, where they exert their effects by altering cellular activities or gene expression.
Hormonal responses are often slower but more sustained compared to neural responses.

Example: When blood glucose levels rise after a meal, the pancreas releases insulin, which promotes glucose uptake by cells, thereby lowering blood glucose levels.

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60
Q

Visceromotor Response:
Definition

A

The visceromotor response involves autonomic nervous system (ANS) regulation of visceral functions to maintain homeostasis.

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61
Q

Visceromotor Response:
Characteristics

A

Visceromotor responses are coordinated by the hypothalamus, brainstem nuclei, and spinal cord circuits in response to sensory inputs and hormonal signals.
Sympathetic activation typically increases physiological arousal and prepares the body for action (fight-or-flight), while parasympathetic activation promotes relaxation and conservation of energy (rest-and-digest).

Example: During stress, sympathetic activation increases heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose release, while inhibiting digestive functions.

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62
Q

Somatic Motor Response:
Definition

A

The somatic motor response involves voluntary control of skeletal muscles to maintain homeostasis.

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63
Q

Somatic Motor Response:
characteristics

A

Somatic motor responses are under conscious control and involve voluntary movements such as walking, reaching, and speaking.
The primary motor cortex in the brain initiates voluntary movements, sending signals via the corticospinal tract to motor neurons in the spinal cord, which innervate skeletal muscles.
Somatic motor responses enable adaptive behaviors and motor skills necessary for interacting with the external environment.

Example: Adjusting clothing or seeking shelter to regulate body temperature, or consciously drinking water to maintain hydration levels.

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64
Q

Describe the long-term regulation of feeding behavior, including the role of energy balance, prandial states, and the lipostatic hypothesis.

A
  • When energy intake matches energy expenditure, the body maintains a stable weight and composition.
  • Imbalances in energy balance, such as excessive energy intake or reduced energy expenditure, can lead to weight gain or loss over time.
  • Prandial states refer to the metabolic states of the body in response to feeding (prandium means “meal” in Latin).
  • Anabolism occurs during the prandial state, characterized by nutrient absorption and storage. This phase involves the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones, such as the conversion of glucose into glycogen or triglycerides for storage.
  • The lipostatic hypothesis proposes that the brain monitors and regulates body fat levels to maintain energy homeostasis.
    According to this hypothesis, adipose tissue releases signaling molecules called adipokines, with leptin being a key hormone.
  • The lipostatic hypothesis suggests that leptin serves as a feedback signal to regulate food intake and energy balance based on the body’s long-term energy stores.
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65
Q

Explain the significance of leptin in regulating body mass, appetite, and energy expenditure

A
  • The main function of leptin is to signal the brain about the body’s long-term energy stores, specifically the amount of adipose tissue present.
  • When fat stores are high, adipose tissue releases more leptin into the bloodstream. Elevated leptin levels act on specific receptors in the hypothalamus, signaling a state of energy abundance.
  • Leptin plays a key role in regulating appetite by influencing the activity of neurons in the hypothalamus, particularly in the arcuate nucleus.
  • Leptin receptors are present on two types of neurons in the arcuate nucleus: pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)/cocaine- and amphetamine-regulated transcript (CART) neurons and neuropeptide Y (NPY)/agouti-related protein (AgRP) neurons.
  • Activation of POMC/CART neurons by leptin leads to the release of α-melanocyte-stimulating hormone (α-MSH), which suppresses appetite and promotes energy expenditure.
  • Conversely, activation of NPY/AgRP neurons by low leptin levels stimulates appetite and reduces energy expenditure, promoting weight gain.
  • In addition to its effects on appetite regulation, leptin also acts on the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) to increase thermogenesis (heat production) and basal metabolic rate.
  • By stimulating sympathetic outflow, leptin enhances the activity of brown adipose tissue (BAT), which generates heat through uncoupled mitochondrial respiration, thereby increasing energy expenditure.
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66
Q

what are the implications of lateral hypothalamic syndrome (anorexia) and ventromedial hypothalamic syndrome (obesity) in relation to leptin signaling.

A

In the context of leptin signaling:
Normally, leptin acts on neurons in the hypothalamus, including those in the lateral hypothalamus, to suppress appetite and reduce food intake when fat stores are sufficient.
However, in individuals with lateral hypothalamic syndrome, leptin signaling may be disrupted due to damage or dysfunction of hypothalamic neurons.
This disruption can lead to impaired sensitivity to leptin’s appetite-suppressing effects, resulting in a persistent state of reduced appetite and decreased food intake characteristic of anorexia.

Leptin acts on neurons in various hypothalamic nuclei, including the ventromedial hypothalamus, to regulate energy balance by suppressing appetite and increasing energy expenditure.
However, in individuals with ventromedial hypothalamic syndrome, leptin signaling may be impaired due to damage or dysfunction of hypothalamic neurons.
This impairment can lead to reduced sensitivity to leptin’s appetite-suppressing effects and decreased energy expenditure, contributing to increased appetite and weight gain characteristic of obesity.

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67
Q

Explain the Cephalic Phase:

A

Initiation: Begins with the anticipation of food or sensory stimuli associated with food intake, such as sight, smell, taste, or even the thought of food.
Hunger Response: Sensory cues related to food activate neural pathways in the brain, including the hypothalamus and brainstem, triggering the cephalic phase response.
Neural Regulation: Activation of the cephalic phase involves neural signals originating from higher brain centers, such as the cerebral cortex and limbic system, which stimulate appetite and prepare the body for food intake.
Hormonal Release: Release of hormones such as ghrelin, often referred to as the “hunger hormone,” which increases appetite and prepares the digestive system for food ingestion.

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68
Q

explain the Gastric Phase:

A

Initiation: Begins upon the actual consumption of food and the entry of food into the stomach.
Distension Response: Stretch receptors in the stomach wall detect the presence of food and signal the brain via the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) about gastric distension.
Hormonal Release: Gastric distension triggers the release of hormones such as cholecystokinin (CCK) from the small intestine. CCK acts on receptors in the brain to reduce appetite and promote satiety.
Insulin Release: Food ingestion also stimulates the release of insulin from pancreatic β-cells in response to rising blood glucose levels, which further promotes satiety and reduces appetite.

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69
Q

explain the substrate phase

A

Initiation: Begins after the absorption of nutrients from the gastrointestinal tract into the bloodstream, which occurs during digestion and metabolism of ingested food.
Metabolic Responses: Nutrients such as glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids derived from ingested food are metabolized by various tissues in the body to meet energy demands and maintain metabolic homeostasis.
Insulin Regulation: During the substrate phase, insulin levels remain elevated to facilitate the uptake of glucose by peripheral tissues, promote glycogen synthesis, and suppress gluconeogenesis, contributing to the termination of feeding behavior.
Integration: Metabolic signals from nutrient metabolism, including changes in blood glucose and fatty acid levels, are integrated with neural and hormonal signals to regulate appetite and feeding behavior, maintaining energy balance.

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70
Q

Discuss the relationship between neurotransmitter systems (e.g., serotonin) and mood regulation in the context of eating disorders.

A

Role of Serotonin: Serotonin, a neurotransmitter primarily synthesized in the brain and gastrointestinal tract, plays a crucial role in regulating mood, emotions, and behavior. It is involved in mood stabilization, anxiety reduction, and promoting feelings of well-being and satiety.

Impact on Feeding Behavior: Changes in serotonin levels and activity can influence feeding behavior and appetite regulation. For example, alterations in serotonin signaling may lead to appetite dysregulation, increased food cravings, or decreased motivation to eat, contributing to disordered eating patterns seen in individuals with eating disorders.

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71
Q

Compare and contrast the functions of key hypothalamic nuclei involved in feeding behavior, such as the arcuate nucleus, lateral hypothalamus, and ventromedial nucleus.

A

Arcuate Nucleus:
- Contains NPY/AgRP neurons that promote feeding and inhibit energy expenditure.
- Houses POMC neurons that suppress appetite and stimulate energy expenditure.
Lateral Hypothalamus (LH):
- Initiates and maintains feeding behavior, containing orexin/hypocretin-producing neurons.
- Promotes hunger, arousal, and food-seeking behavior.
Ventromedial Nucleus (VMH):
- Regulates satiety and energy expenditure.
- Contains neurons that inhibit feeding and promote satiation.

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72
Q

Which part of the brain plays a role in regulating both reproduction and eating behaviors?

A

Hypothalamus

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74
Q

Which hormone receptor distribution differs between prairie voles and meadow voles?

A

a) Oxytocin

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74
Q

Differentiate conscious control by the cerebral cortex from subconscious regulation

A

Conscious Control by the Cerebral Cortex:
Voluntary Regulation
Awareness and Intentionality

Subconscious Regulation:
Automatic Processes
Efficiency and Speed: (heartbeat/ digestion)

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74
Q

What is the role of the motor system?

A

b) Coordination of muscle movements

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74
Q

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for generating coordinated muscle contractions?

A

a) Spinal cord

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75
Q

Where are lower motor neurons located?

A

c) Ventral horn of the spinal cord

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76
Q

Which muscles are controlled by lower motor neurons located in the ventral horn?

A

a) Axial muscles

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77
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

c) A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

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78
Q

Which type of muscle fiber is slow to contract and can sustain contraction?

A

a) Red muscle fibers

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79
Q

What happens during the plateau phase of the sexual response cycle?

A

c) Peak of sexual pleasure is reached

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80
Q

Which neurotransmitter is responsible for muscle contraction?

A

Acetylcholine

81
Q

What is the function of muscle spindles?

A

c) Detect changes in muscle length

82
Q

What is the myotatic reflex commonly known as?

A

c) Knee-jerk reflex

83
Q

What type of muscle fibers are innervated by gamma motor neurons?

A

b) Intrafusal fibers

84
Q

What is the role of the golgi tendon organs?

A

a) Monitor muscle tension

85
Q

Which reflex is used to withdraw a limb from an aversive stimulus?

A

a) Flexor reflex

86
Q

Where does the circuitry for walking reside?

A

c) Spinal cord

87
Q

What is the function of central pattern generators?

A

b) Generate rhythmic motor patterns

88
Q

Which neurotransmitter receptors are involved in generating rhythmic activity in spinal interneurons?

A

a) NMDA receptors

89
Q

Which term refers to the contraction of one muscle set accompanied by relaxation of the antagonist muscle?

A

b) Reciprocal inhibition

90
Q

What is the primary function of the crossed-extensor reflex?

A

c) Withdraw the limb from a stimulus

91
Q

Which type of muscle fibers contract rapidly and fatigue quickly?

A

d) Fast motor units

92
Q

What did Sherrington call the “final common pathway,” and why?

A

Sherrington called the “final common pathway” the alpha motor neurons because they represent the last link in the chain connecting nervous system commands to muscle contractions.

93
Q
  1. Define, in one sentence, motor unit. How does it differ from motor neuron pool?
A

Motor unit: A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates. It differs from the motor neuron pool, which refers to all the motor neurons that innervate a single muscle.

94
Q
  1. Which is recruited first, a fast motor unit or a slow motor unit? Why?
A

Slow motor units are recruited first because they are responsible for maintaining posture and endurance activities that require sustained muscle contractions.

95
Q
  1. When and why does rigor mortis occur?
A

Rigor mortis occurs a few hours after death due to the depletion of ATP, leading to the inability of myosin heads to detach from actin filaments, resulting in muscle stiffness.

96
Q
  1. Your doctor taps the tendon beneath your kneecap and your leg extends. What is the neural basis of this reflex? What is it called?
A

The neural basis of the reflex is the monosynaptic myotatic reflex, also known as the knee-jerk reflex, which involves the stretch reflex arc where sensory input from muscle spindles in the quadriceps muscle stimulates motor neurons in the spinal cord to cause contraction of the quadriceps, resulting in leg extension.

97
Q
  1. What is the function of gamma motor neurons?
A

Gamma motor neurons innervate intrafusal muscle fibers within muscle spindles, regulating their sensitivity to muscle length changes and ensuring proper function of the myotatic reflex.

98
Q
  1. Lenny, a character in Steinbeck’s classic book Of Mice and Men, loved rabbits, but when he
    hugged them, they were crushed to death. Which type of proprioceptive input might Lenny have
    been lacking?
A

Lenny might have been lacking proprioceptive input from Golgi tendon organs, which monitor muscle tension and prevent excessive force generation, potentially leading to inadvertent crushing of objects or organisms.

99
Q

What is the term used by Sherrington to describe the “final common pathway”?

A

Alpha motor neurons

100
Q

How is a motor unit defined?

A

A single muscle and its innervating motor neuron

101
Q

Which motor unit is recruited first during muscle activation?

A

Slow motor units

102
Q

When does rigor mortis occur and why?

A

After death due to depletion of ATP causing muscle stiffness

103
Q

What is the neural basis of the reflex when the doctor taps the tendon beneath the kneecap and the leg extends?

A

monosynaptic myotatic reflex

104
Q

Which part of the brain influences the activity of the spinal cord?

A

a) Basal ganglia

105
Q

Which pathway controls voluntary movements and is under cortical control?

A

a) Lateral pathways

106
Q

Which area of the frontal lobe is known as the primary motor cortex?

A

a) Area 4

107
Q

Which pathway controls posture and locomotion under brain stem control?

A

c) Vestibulospinal tract

108
Q

Which tract is responsible for head balance and head turning?

A

b) Vestibulospinal tract

109
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

a) Selection and initiation of willed movements

110
Q

Which disease is characterized by trouble initiating willed movements due to increased inhibition of the thalamus by basal ganglia?

A

a) Parkinson’s disease

111
Q

Which symptom is associated with Parkinson’s disease?
a) Hyperkinesia
b) Violent, flinging movement
c) Slow initiation of movements
d) Impaired cognitive disability

A

c) Slow initiation of movements

112
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for coding movement and recording from a single cell in M1?

A

d) Motor cortex

113
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

c) Sequence of muscle contractions

114
Q

Which term describes uncoordinated and inaccurate movements due to cerebellar lesions?

A

a) Ataxia

115
Q

Which structure relays cerebellar cortical output to brain stem structures?

A

b) Deep cerebellar nuclei

116
Q

Which tract enhances antigravity reflexes and maintains posture?

A

c) Pontine reticulospinal tract

117
Q

Where do axons from the brain descend along two major pathways?

A

b) Spinal cord

118
Q

Which area of the cerebral cortex represents the highest levels of motor control and decisions about actions and their outcomes?

A

d) Area 7

119
Q

What is the primary symptom of Huntington’s disease?

A

b) Hyperkinesia

120
Q

Which tract receives input from the retina and is responsible for the orienting response to important stimuli?

A

d) Tectospinal tract

121
Q

Which area of the brain converts actions into signals specifying how actions will be performed?

A

a) Supplementary motor area

122
Q

What is the role of the lateral pathways in motor control?

A

b) Control of voluntary movements

123
Q

Which disease is characterized by degeneration of dopaminergic substantia nigra inputs to the striatum?

A

a) Parkinson’s disease

124
Q
  1. List the components of the lateral and ventromedial descending spinal pathways. Which type of movement does each path control?
A

Components of the Lateral Descending Spinal Pathway:
Corticospinal tract (pyramidal tract)
Rubrospinal tract
Originates in area 4 and area 6 of the frontal lobe Motor CX
Controls voluntary movement of distal musculature
Components of the Ventromedial Descending Spinal Pathway:
Vestibulospinal tract
Tectospinal tract
Pontine and Medullary Reticulospinal tract
Originates in brain stem
Controls posture, locomotion, head balance, head turning, and orienting response to important stimuli

125
Q
  1. You are a neurologist presented with a patient who has the following symptom: an inability to
    independently wiggle the toes on the left foot, but with all other movements (walking, independent finger movement) apparently intact. You suspect a lesion in the spinal cord. Where?
A

Lesion likely in the corticospinal tract controlling distal musculature movements.

126
Q
  1. PET scans can be used to measure blood flow in the cerebral cortex. What parts of the cortex
    show increased blood flow when a subject is asked to think about moving her right finger?
A

Precentral gyrus (motor cortex)
Supplementary motor area (SMA)
Premotor area (PMA)
Higher-order visual cortical areas (Area 7)

127
Q
  1. Why is L-dopa used to treat Parkinson’s disease? How does it act to alleviate the symptoms?
A

L-Dopa is used to increase dopamine levels in the brain.
It acts to alleviate symptoms by facilitating the production of dopamine to increase activity in the supplementary motor area (SMA), helping to initiate willed movements.

128
Q
  1. Individual Betz cells fire during a fairly broad range of movement directions. How might they work together to command a precise movement?
A

Betz cells collectively represent a range of movement directions.
Their collective activity generates a signal specifying the precise movement direction through a tally and averaging mechanism.

129
Q
  1. Sketch the motor loop through the cerebellum. What movement disorders result from damage to the cerebellum?
A

Cortex sends excitatory connection to putamen.
Putamen excites globus pallidus, which inhibits ventral lateral nucleus (VLo).
Release of VLo from inhibition influences activity in the supplementary motor area (SMA).
Damage to the cerebellum can lead to ataxia (uncoordinated and inaccurate movements), dysynergia (decomposition of multijoint movements), and dysmetria (overshoot or undershoot of target).

130
Q

Which of the following is striated muscle?

A

Cardiac and skeletal muscle

131
Q

Which of the following is a flexor of the elbow joint?

A

Brachialis

132
Q

Which muscles are specialized for the movement of the trunk?

A

Axial muscles

133
Q

Why are lower motor neurons called the “final common pathway” for behavior control?

A

They directly command muscle contraction.

134
Q

Which muscles are innervated by the motor neurons, situated in the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord?

A

Arm muscles

135
Q

What is sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)?

A

Extensive intracellular sac containing calcium ions

136
Q

Which is the first step in the contraction phase of the excitation-contraction coupling?

A

Ca2+ binds to troponin.

137
Q

Why does neuromuscular transmission fail in myasthenia gravis?

A

Antibodies interfere with the function of nicotinic ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

138
Q

What type of motor neurons ensures that the spindle continues to provide information about muscle length during muscle contraction?

A

Gamma motor neurons

139
Q

Which reflex prevents you from falling when you suddenly lift one foot off the ground in response to pain?

A

Crossed-extensor reflex

140
Q

What happens to the sarcolemma in the relaxation phase of the excitation-contraction coupling?

A

The sarcolemma returns to resting potential.

141
Q

Which of the following describes the function and location of Golgi tendon organs?

A

Monitor muscle tension, situated in series with muscle fibers

142
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A

The contraction of one set of muscles is accompanied by the relaxation of the antagonist muscles.

143
Q

What are central pattern generators?

A

Spinal circuits that give rise to rhythmic motor activity

144
Q

An alpha motor neuron and all the muscle fibers innervated by it make up the elementary component of motor control called the motor unit.

A

True

145
Q

Grillner and his colleagues showed that the activation of NMDA receptors on spinal interneurons is sufficient to generate alternating rhythmic activity in the lamprey spinal cord.

A

True

146
Q

Dorsal root ganglion cells are the largest source of input to alpha motor neurons.

(T OR F)

A

False

147
Q

In the hierarchy of motor control, which of the following is a function at the lowest level of control?

A

Activation of motor neurons that generate goal-directed movement

148
Q

What is the function of lateral pathways with regard to the descending motor pathways?

A

Control the voluntary movement of distal musculature

149
Q

Which cortical area is referred to as the primary motor cortex?

A

4

150
Q

Which of the following is true about how M1 commands voluntary movement?

A

The activity of each cell represents a single vote for a particular direction of movement and the direction of movement is determined by averaging the votes in the population.

151
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of cerebellar damage?

A

Sequential joint movement and dysmetria

152
Q

What is the role of neurons in the deep cerebellar nuclei?

A

Relay information from the cerebellum to various brain stem structures

153
Q

Which of the following structures are included in the motor loop through the cerebellum?

A

Sensory input through pontine nuclei to cerebellum to motor cortex through the
ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus

154
Q

Which of the following is the function of tectospinal tract?

A

Orienting head and eyes toward new stimuli

155
Q

Which of the following is the target of cortical input to the basal ganglia?

A

Striatum

156
Q

When making tactical decisions, which part of the motor hierarchy controls the sequence of muscle contractions?

A

Motor cortex and the cerebellum

157
Q

What is the function of the vestibulospinal and tectospinal tracts?

A

Balance the head as the body moves and turn the head in the direction of stimuli

158
Q

Consider the motor loop through the basal ganglia. Which of the following is the functional consequence of cortical activation of the putamen?

A

Excitation of the SMA by VL

159
Q

Which part of the brain participates in implementing the “go” in the phrase “Ready, set, go”?

A

Major subcortical input to area 6

160
Q

What is hemiballismus?

A

Violent flinging movements on one side of the body

161
Q

true or false: Lesions of the corticospinal tracts cause complete and permanent paralysis on the contralateral side.

A

False

162
Q

true or false: In monkeys, the rubrospinal tract can partly compensate for deficits caused by lesions of the corticospinal tract.

A

True

163
Q

true or false: Hyperkinesia is excess movement caused by decreased basal ganglia output.

A

True

164
Q

true or false: Cortical area 6 lies at the junction where signals encoding what actions are desired are converted into signals that specify how the actions will be carried out.

A

true

165
Q

Which of the following structures is known as the “true master gland of the endocrine system”?

A

Hypothalamus

166
Q

Where are the lower motor neurons of the autonomic nervous system located?

A

Autonomic ganglia

167
Q

Which of the following are the targets of the ANS?

A

Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

168
Q

How does the locus coeruleus (LC) make the neurons of the cerebral cortex more responsive to salient sensory stimuli?

A

Speeding information processing by the point-to-point sensory and motor systems

169
Q

Which two neurohormones are released into the bloodstream by the magnocellular neurosecretory cells?

A

Oxytocin and vasopressin

170
Q

By what means does the hypothalamus control the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Magnocellular neurosecretory cells

171
Q

Which of the following is a neurotransmitter used by postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Norepinephrine

172
Q

Why is the enteric nervous system known as the “little brain?”

A

It is capable of operating independently.

173
Q

Why is propranolol used to treat stage fright?

A

Slows heart rate and reduces blood pressure

174
Q

Which of the following is true of the diffuse modulatory systems of the brain?

A

Each neuron influences many others, contacting more than 100,000 postsynaptic neurons.

175
Q

Which neurotransmitter is synthesized and released by the raphe nuclei?

A

Serotonin

176
Q

The dopaminergic system originates in the ventral tegmental area. This system innervates a circumscribed region of the telencephalon including the frontal cortex and parts of the limbic system. What term is used to refer to this dopaminergic projection?

A

Mesocorticolimbic dopamine system

177
Q

Which of the following describes neurohormones?

A

Hormones released into the blood by neurons

178
Q

Identify the postganglionic neurotransmitter present in the parasympathetic division of the ANS.

A

Acetylcholine

179
Q

true or false: The secretory hypothalamus, autonomic nervous system, and diffuse modulatory systems of the brain operate in expanded space and time relative to the sensory and motor systems.

A

True

180
Q

true or false: A neuron in the human locus coeruleus can form more than 250,000 synapses.

A

True

181
Q

true or false: The parasympathetic division of the ANS causes you to sweat profusely in reaction to embarrassment.

A

false

182
Q

true or false: The somatic motor system and the ANS constitute the total neural output of the CNS.

A

true

183
Q

Insulin levels are maximal during which of the following phases of the body’s reaction to feeding behavior?

A

Substrate

184
Q

Hypothalamic neurons maintain homeostasis by responding to a sensory stimulus with humoral, visceromotor, and somatic motor responses.

A

Stimulating or inhibiting the release of pituitary hormones

185
Q

Anorexia can result from damage to which of the following parts of the brain?

A

Lateral hypothalamus

185
Q

Which of the following is the process of breaking down complex macromolecules?

A

Which of the following is the process of breaking down complex macromolecules?

185
Q

Which neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus respond to an increase in blood leptin levels?

A

αMSH/CART neurons

186
Q

Which of the following represents the humoral response to a drop in leptin levels?

A

Decreased secretion of TSH and ACTH from the pituitary gland

187
Q

Which of the following describes the ventromedial hypothalamic syndrome?

A

Hypothalamic lesions that cause overeating and obesity

188
Q

Neurons in the lateral hypothalamus that receive a direct projection from leptin-sensitive cells in the arcuate nucleus contain which of the following peptide neurotransmitters?

A

MCH and orexin

189
Q

How do neurons of the vascular organ of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) respond when the blood becomes hypertonic?

A

Excite magnocellular neurosecretory cells that secrete vasopressin and stimulate osmometric thirst

190
Q

Which of the following describes ghrelin?

A

A peptide highly concentrated in the stomach that is released into the bloodstream when the stomach is empty

191
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of diabetes insipidus?

A

Large volumes of pale, watery urine

192
Q

When your stomach is full, mechanosensory neurons in the stomach wall sense the distension and transmit the sensation to the nucleus of the solitary tract in the medulla via which nerve?

A

Vagus

193
Q

Which of the following describes satiety signals responsible for short-term regulation of feeding behavior?

A

Terminate a meal and inhibit feeding for some time afterward.

194
Q

Which is a consequence of leptin deficiency?

A

Increased NPY and AgRP in the arcuate nucleus

195
Q

Warm- and cold-sensitive neurons are located in what part of the brain?

A

Anterior hypothalamus

196
Q

true or false: CCK is a gastrointestinal satiety peptide released by cells of the intestines in response to the presence of fatty food.

A

true

197
Q

true or false: Dopamine-depleted animals appear to lack the motivation to seek food even though they seem to enjoy it when it is available.

A

true

198
Q

true or false: serotonin levels in the hypothalamus spike during a meal, especially in response to carbohydrates.

A

true

199
Q
A