Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: motivation is sometimes confused with instinct.

A

True

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2
Q

The fact that some people need higher levels of excitement than others is best explained by _____ theory.

A

Arousal

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3
Q

________ animals do not produce their own body heat and include animals like _____.

A

Ectothermic, snakes

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4
Q

Endothermic animals can reduce body temperature by

A

Burrowing into the ground, sweating, finding shade etc

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5
Q

Warmth sensitive and cold sensitive cells that help mammals regulate body temperature are found in the ______ of the hypothalamus.

A

Preoptic area

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6
Q

Jason has just eaten an entire bag of potato chips and suddenly feels thirsty. What type of thirst is he experiencing?

A

Osmotic

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7
Q

Which of the following does not result in a loss of extracellular water?

  1. Exercise
  2. Blood loss
  3. Ingesting a lot of salt
  4. Vomiting
A

Ingesting a lot of salt.

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8
Q

True or false: the set point for temperature is less variable than the set point for hunger.

A

True

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9
Q

A species of animal that eats only berries and leaves in a(n)

A

Herbivore

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10
Q

Of all the primary taste qualities, _____ is the most recently discovered.

A

Umami

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11
Q

Foods that provide the ions necessary for neural transmission are most likely to taste

A

Salty

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12
Q

Foods that contain toxins tend to taste

A

Bitter

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13
Q

The taste buds send signals to the _____ area of the cortex.

A

Gustatory

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14
Q

Learned taste aversion accounts for all of the following except:

  1. Bait shyness in rats.
  2. Coyotes’ refusal to eat lamb after consuming a tainted carcass.
  3. Rats’ decreased responsiveness to glucose placed on the tongue after receiving a glucose injection.
  4. Children avoiding certain flavors of ice cream eaten while undergoing chemotherapy.
A

Rats’ decreased responsiveness to glucose placed on the tongue after receiving a glucose injection.

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15
Q

Rats deprived of a _____ can develop a ____ for a food high in that _____.

A

Vitamin, taste preference, vitamin

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16
Q

The stomach releases _____ to aid in digestion.

A

Pepsin

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17
Q

Most of digestion occurs in the ____.

A

Small intestine

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18
Q

Glycerol is a product of the transformation of ____.

A

Fats

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19
Q

After nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream, they are transported to the _____ by the hepatic portal vein.

A

Liver

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20
Q

During the absorptive phase of the feeding cycle, when the parasympathetic nervous system is active, recently eaten food

A

May be stored or used for energy .

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21
Q

Brain cells can import glucose without _____.

A

Insulin

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22
Q

Adipose tissue is contributed to by

A

Excess protein, excess glucose, fat

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23
Q

______ is secreted by the pancreas and transforms glycogen to glucose and converts stored fat to _______.

A

Glucagon, glycerol

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24
Q

A rabbit injected with 2deoxyglucose into its hepatic portal vein will

A

Start eating and eat more than usual.

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25
Q

Which of the following statements about neuropeptide Y are true?

  1. It is released by the preoptic area of the hypothalamus.
  2. It stimulates eating
  3. It is released in response to low glucose.
  4. It may help an animal conserve energy.
A

It stimulates eating.
It is released in response to low glucose.
It may help an animal conserve energy.

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26
Q

Satiety may be signaled by

A

Stretch receptors in the stomach, release of cholecystokinin, presence of nutrients in the liver.

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27
Q

Rats injected with CCK over several days will

A

Stay at the same weight.

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28
Q

In Hervey’s parabiotic rats, the rat without a lesion lost weight because

A

The lesioned rat continually produced a satiety signal that inhibited eating only in the nonlesioned rat.

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29
Q

As leptin ______, neuropeptide Y_____.

A

Increases, decreases

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30
Q

Which of the following is not a health risk associated with obesity?

  1. Loss of bone density.
  2. Colon cancer.
  3. Alzheimers disease.
  4. Heart disease.
A

Loss of bone density

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31
Q

Correlations for BMI are highest for

A

Identical twins raised together

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32
Q

A rat of normal weight is most likely to starve to death when biotically paired with a(n) _____ rat.

A

Db/db

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33
Q

Basal metabolism accounts for energy used to fuel the brain and other organs and for

A

Digestion

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34
Q

Mavis, who does not exercise, has reduced her calorie intake by 25% and expects to lose a lot of weight. What is likely to happen?

A

Her metabolism will decrease

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35
Q

Someone who responds to increased caloric consumption by fidgeting a lot

A

May gain little or no weight

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36
Q

In some obese people, carbohydrate consumption

A

Elevates mood

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37
Q

Which drug blocks the absorption of fat?

A

Orlistat

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38
Q

Serotonin enhancing drugs are least likely to be useful for treating

A

Restrictive anorexia.

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39
Q

Leptin seems to

A

Increase metabolism and decrease appetite.

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40
Q

Based on recent research, the neurotransmitters most involved in anorexia and bulimia are

A

Serotonin and dopamine

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41
Q

The difference between bulimics and purging anorexics is that

A

Bulimics are usually of normal weight.

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42
Q

Osmotic thirst is disrupted when

A

The OVLT is lesioned

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43
Q

A cycle of food-deprivation followed by overeating characterizes:

A

Bulimia

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44
Q

Increased cannabinoid receptors in the insula can be found in individuals with? (Choose all that apply)

A

Anorexia

Bulimia

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45
Q

Humans expend most of their energy on what activity?

A

Basal metabolism

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46
Q

What happens when blood levels of insulin are extremely low?

A

There is excess glucose in the blood but it cannot enter the cells

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47
Q

Which of the following would most likely benefit from taking leptin?

A

Obese people who fail to produce leptin

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48
Q

An animal with hypovolemic thirst will drink:

A

Mildly salty water

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49
Q

Which of the following are hunger signals? (Choose all that apply)

A

Ghrelin
Orexin
Insulin release at sight of food

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50
Q

Lesioning of the ventromedial hypothalamus will result in

A

Insensitivity to leptin signals; overeating

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51
Q

Vasopressin raises blood pressure by:

A

Causing blood vessels to constrict

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52
Q

Which of the following are signals to end a meal? (Choose all that apply)

A
stomach volume (stretching) 
  CCK and other nutrient indicators
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53
Q

Eating salty potato chips increases the concentration of sodium in the:

A

Extracellular fluid

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54
Q

Which phenomena explains variation in food choice?

A

Sensory-specific satiety

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55
Q

If an experimenter cools the hypothalamus preoptic area of an animal in a warm environment, the animal will:

A

Shiver

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56
Q

What area of the brain is largely responsible for detecting osmotic pressure?

A

OVLT

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57
Q

What happens when blood levels of insulin are extremely low?

A

There is excess glucose in the blood but it cannot enter the cells

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58
Q

Leptin directly activates receptors in the part of the hypothalamus called the:

A

Arcuate nucleus

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59
Q

Animals with damage to the paraventricular (PVN) nucleus eat __________ than normal animals.

A

Larger meals

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60
Q

Which theory of motivation explains why people go skydiving?

A

Arousal theory

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61
Q

What defines a homeostatic process?

A

The maintenance of certain body variables within a fixed range

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62
Q

On average, people with anorexia show a variety of biochemical abnormalities including increased:

A

Ghrelin

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63
Q

Which of the following are part of the arousal ascending pathway? (Choose all that apply)

A

Parabrachial nucleus
Locus coeruleus
Pedunclculopontine nuclei

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64
Q

An orexin antagonist would be most helpful in treating which disorder?

A

Narcolepsy

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65
Q

The best way to adjust the circadian rhythm to a new time is to ________.

A

Move the time you go to sleep later until it reaches the desired time.

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66
Q

REM sleep is characterized by which of the following?

A

A high level of brain activity

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67
Q

For a normal person, about how long does a cycle of sleep (from stage 1 to stage 4 and back) last?

A

90 min

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68
Q

Which waves are dominant in stage 1 sleep?

A

Theta

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69
Q

Which waves are dominant in stage 2 sleep?

A

K Complexes

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70
Q

Which waves are dominant in stage 3 & 4 sleep?

A

Delta

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71
Q

The pineal gland releases __________ which influences circadian rhythms

A

Melatonin

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72
Q

Brain waves that arouse the occipital area and initiate REM are generated by the?

A

Pons

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73
Q

The input from the eyes to the suprachiasmatic nucleus, responsible for shifting the phase of the circadian rhythm, originates from:

A

Ganglion cells that are not connected to any cones or rods

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74
Q

Damage to the _____ impairs episodic memory and may produce detachment from self. (Choose all that apply)

A

Frontal temporal lobe.

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75
Q

The relationship between sleep stage and dreaming is that dreams

A

Are more frequent and vivid in REM sleep

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76
Q

The probability of sleep apnea is increased among which group of people?

A

Overweight men

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77
Q

While you are at the store you see a young child climb onto a motorcycle arcade game and the child eagerly begins to press the acceleration and attempts to steer the motorcycle. At first the child thinks they are in control but as the seconds pass and they realize that they are just watching the game demo. Which brain region helped the child detect the discrepancy between what they were doing and what the motorcycle on the screen was doing?

A

Inferior parietal cortex

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78
Q

A person’s circadian activity cycle would most likely drift out of phase if the person

A

Spends a period of time in seclusion, away from sunlight

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79
Q

The best way to adjust the circadian rhythm to a new time is to ________.

A

Move the time you go to sleep later until it reaches the desired time.

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80
Q

Individuals with a mutation in the CKIδ gene would most likely suffer from which sleeping disorder?

A

Insomnia

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81
Q

Which of the following structures is most important in neuronal replay that occurs during sleep?

A

The hippocampus

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82
Q

In which of the following conditions is default mode network activity most likely to be normal?

A

Locked-in syndrome

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83
Q

The surest way to disrupt the biological clock is to damage the

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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84
Q

Alpha waves are characteristic of what type of activity?

A

Relaxed wakefulness

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85
Q

Epigenetic influences on sexual orientation, such as methylation of an X chromosome indicate that

A

prenatal environment can influence sexual orientation

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86
Q

Regarding the case of “Bruce-Brenda-David,” which of the following is TRUE?

A

Brenda wanted to become a boy before she knew her true sex

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87
Q

Penile and clitoral erection first occur in the ________________________ phase of sexual response.

A

excitement

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88
Q

Which of the following groups tends to score the LOWEST on spatial tasks?

A

normal females

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89
Q

Which of the following statements regarding sexual activity in females is TRUE?

A

In women, the increased likelihood of initiating sex corresponds with an increase in sex hormone levels

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90
Q

LeVay’s study of brain anatomy showed that the INAH3 is similar in which groups?

A

homosexual males and heterosexual females

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91
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the refractory phase of the sexual response is TRUE?

A

During the refractory phase, orgasm cannot occur

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92
Q

Which of the following brain areas is active during copulation in female, but not male, rats?

A

ventromedial nucleus

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93
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters increases in the nucleus accumbens during sexual activity?

A

dopamine

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94
Q

According to the text, why aren’t there many studies of homosexual females?

A

Bisexuality is more common in females than in males, which makes females sexuality harder to categorize.

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95
Q

The study of 46 XY DSD in the Dominican Republic found that

A

although raised as girls, most of the individuals adopted male gender identities

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96
Q

Which statement about the causes of homosexuality is most accurate?

A

Heredity, hormones, brain structures, and experiences all seem to play a role in determining sexual orientation.

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97
Q

Which of the following will NOT result in 46 XY DSD?

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia

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98
Q

Homosexuality is other species

A

sometimes resembles heterosexuality

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99
Q

Which of the following statements regarding olfactory receptors is true?

A

humans have 400-600 genes for odor receptors

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100
Q

As forms of motivation, how are hunger and sex different?

A

Hunger, but not sex, represents a homeostatic tissue need

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101
Q

Which of the following is predicted by the steroid/peptide theory of social bonds?

A

females caring for young while not sexually aroused

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102
Q

Anti-androgen drugs

A

may block the production of testosterone
may reduce sexual fantasies
may reduce deviant sexual behaviors

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103
Q

Which of the following statements regarding 46 XX DSD individuals is TRUE?

A

They have ovaries

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104
Q

Steve believes he should have been born into a woman’s body, and he wishes to get gender reassignment surgery to fix the apparent “mistake.” However, he is still sexually attracted to women. If Steve’s doctor were to examine his brain, what area would be smaller in size than it is in homosexual and heterosexual male friends?

A

central bed nucleus of the stria terminalis (BSTc)

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105
Q

In the late 19th century, consciousness was studied primarily

A

By using introspection

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106
Q

Currently brain researchers

A

Integrate philosophical, biological, and computer science perspectives to study consciousness.

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107
Q

True or false: Shift workers sleep less than day workers.

A

true

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108
Q

Circadian rhythms for sleep and waking arise in the

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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109
Q

The most significant zeitgeber for the sleep wake cycle appears to be

A

Sunlight

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110
Q

Research suggests that in order to increase worker productivity, night shift workers should

A

Sleep in complete darkness and work in bright light

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111
Q

Assuming that the day shift is from 8:00 AM to 4:00 PM, the swing shift is from 4:00 PM to Midnight, and the night shift is from Midnight to 8:00 AM, which of the following shift rotation schedule would be most beneficial to the workers?

A

Day to swing to night.

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112
Q

_________ is a hormone released by the pineal gland that induces sleepiness.

A

Melatonin

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113
Q

Which of the following statements is not true?

  1. Mice lacking rods and cones are unable to show normal entrainment and cycling.
  2. Light is able to activate the SCN by way of the retinohypothalamic pathway.
  3. The small percentage of ganglion cells that respond to light directly contain melanopsin.
  4. Melanopsin has been found in cells of humans.
A

Mice lacking rods and cones are unable to show normal entrainment and cycling.

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114
Q

The circadian clock for sleep and waking

A

Is found in the brain and may control clocks in other organs. The clock involves a feedback loop of two groups of genes and their protein products. The clock must be reset each day by light.

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115
Q

What cycle length would be considered an ultradian rhythm?

A

3 hour

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116
Q

The basic rest and activity cycle

A

Shows up in a 90 minute daydreaming cycle.

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117
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about sleep?

  1. It is only an active process.
  2. It is the cessation of activity due to fatigue.
  3. It involves turning some brain structures on and other structures off.
  4. It includes both active and inactive periods of brain activity.
A

It is only an active process

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118
Q

An EEG pattern showing low amplitude, high frequency (13 to 30 Hz) waves characterizes

A

Alertness

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119
Q

Sleep spindles and K complexes are most likely to be observed in

A

Stage 2 sleep

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120
Q

What type of EEG characterizes stages 3 and 4 of slow wave sleep?

A

Delta activity

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121
Q

Arm and leg movements are not typical of ____ sleep.

A

REM

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122
Q

Dreams probably occur

A

In all people

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123
Q

Someone who is deprived of REM sleep will

A

Spend more time in REM sleep when allowed to sleep without interruption.

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124
Q

Which of the following does not occur during slow wave sleep in children?

  1. Bedwetting
  2. Sleepwalking
  3. Atonia
  4. Night terrors
A

Atonia

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125
Q

Infants spend about ______% of their total sleep time in REM sleep.

A

50%

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126
Q

The developmental hypothesis of REM sleep states that

A

REM sleep promotes neural development, encourages maturation and myelination of higher brain regions. These are supported by the finding that genes involved in neural plasticity are upregulated during REM sleep.

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127
Q

Slow wave sleep promotes

A

cerebral recovery, especially the prefrontal cortex

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128
Q

Learning and memory

A

Involve both REM and non REM sleep

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129
Q

Which structure is most important to neuronal replay that occurs during sleep?

A

The hippocampus

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130
Q

Which hypothesis suggests that inappropriate neural connections are discarded during sleep?

A

Synaptic homeostasis

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131
Q

Slow wave sleep is least likely to increase if a person

  1. Swims 25 laps in a chilly pool.
  2. Runs 10 miles on a hot day.
  3. Has a fever.
  4. Works in an overheated office.
A

Swims 25 laps in a chilly pool

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132
Q

Sleep involves all of the following structures except?

  1. Medulla
  2. Basal forebrain region
  3. Pons
  4. Ventrolateral thalamus
A

Ventrolateral thalamus

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133
Q

Muscular paralysis accompanying REM sleep is moderated by

A

Magnocellular nucleus of the medulla

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134
Q

Which of the following statements about the arousal systems of the brain in not true?

  1. One arousal pathway includes the PPT/LDT.
  2. One arousal pathway projects to the thalamus.
  3. Melatonin is required for arousal.
  4. There are two arousal pathways.
A

Melatonin is required for arousal.

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135
Q

PGO waves

A

Begin about 80 seconds before the start of a REM period and travel from the pons to the thalamus then to the cortex.

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136
Q

The desynchrony of REM sleep is initiated by _____ waves.

A

PGO

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137
Q

True or false: insomnia is usually diagnosed in a sleep laboratory.

A

False

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138
Q

The best treatment for delayed sleep syndrome (jet lag) is to

A

Stay up later on consecutive days

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139
Q

Sleepwalking has a genetic basis and is most common during ____ and occurs during ____ sleep.

A

Childhood, slow wave

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140
Q

Narcolepsy is a condition in which a person

A

Falls directly into REM sleep from wakefulness

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141
Q

Someone who literally acts out dreams in probably experiencing

A

REM sleep behavior disorder

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142
Q

All of the following are components that most researchers agree are part of consciousness except?

  1. Attention
  2. Personality
  3. Sense of self
  4. Awareness
A

Personality

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143
Q

In which of the following conditions is default mode network activity most likely to be normal?

  1. Coma
  2. Locked in syndrome
  3. Minimally conscious state
  4. Vegetative state
A

Locked in syndrome

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144
Q

Which of the following is evidence of learning without awareness?

  1. Recognizing that our unconscious mind is capable of motivating our behavior.
  2. Following a coach’s instructions for hitting a ball with a bat.
  3. Using proprioceptive information to sit erect and walk.
  4. Reading instructions for assembling a computer prior to putting it together.
A

Using proprioceptive information to sit erect and walk

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145
Q

The Cheshire cat effect is an example of

A

Binocular rivalry

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146
Q

Attention is a reflection of changes

A

In brain activity.

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147
Q

Which of the following is least likely to recognize herself in a mirror?

  1. A 16 month old human.
  2. An adult rhesus monkey.
  3. An adult chimpanzee.
  4. A 24 month old human.
A

An adult rhesus monkey.

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148
Q

All of the following contribute to sense of self except: arousal, body image, memory, mirror neurons.

A

Arousal

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149
Q

Phantom limb sensations may be experienced

A

By amputees and people born with missing limbs.

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150
Q

Confabulation is usually ______.

A

Unintentional

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151
Q

Split brain patients usually perform ______ tasks better with the left hand better than the right.

A

Spatial

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152
Q

Which of the following statements regarding dissociative identity disorder is false?

  1. It is not included in the DSM.
  2. It was formerly called multiple personality disorder.
  3. It is believed to result from childhood abuse or trauma.
  4. Individuals exhibit different physiological patterns when manifesting different identities.
A

It is not in the DSM.

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153
Q

Sympathetic arousal involves all of the following except.

  1. Increased heart rate.
  2. Increased blood pressure.
  3. Increased respiration.
  4. Increased digestion.
A

Increased digestion

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154
Q

According to James Lange theory, emotional experiences occur in which order?

A

Stimulus, arousal, emotion.

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155
Q

Which of the following is not true of mirror neurons?

  1. They respond both when we engage in a specific act and when we observe the same act in others.
  2. They show increased activity in autism.
  3. They most likely play a role in the emotion of empathy.
  4. They were discovered when researchers noted that the same neurons responded when monkeys reached for food and when they saw the researcher pick up food.
A

They show increased activity in autism

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156
Q

Facial expressions can evoke

A

Emotions consistent with the expression.

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157
Q

Support for the James Lange theory of emotion is found in women who receive botox treatment for facial muscles because?

A

Following Botox treatments to the facial muscles, women experience less negative emotions.

158
Q

Which of the following structures is not considered part of the limbic system: amygdala, cingulate gyrus, hippocampus, medulla.

A

Medulla

159
Q

In the Iowa gambling task described in this chapter, individuals with ventromedial prefrontal damage

A

Did not produce strong skin conductance response to any pile and did not learn to avoid choosing from the risky card piles.

160
Q

In an early study by Heath with humans, stimulation of the septal area evoked

A

Pleasure

161
Q

In an MRI study, investigators found that the right ____ was larger in people with high scores on _____ avoidance.

A

Anterior cingulate, harm

162
Q

Someone with heightened activity in the amygdala would be most likely experience

A

Anxiety

163
Q

People with damage to the amygdala have difficulty learning

A

To avoid harmful situations

164
Q

People with prefrontal damage can probably do all of the following except

  1. Experience any emotion at all.
  2. Learn to avoid venomous snakes.
  3. Experience negative emotions.
  4. Learn to avoid risky investments.
A

Learn to avoid risky investments

165
Q

People with right hemisphere damage have difficulty with

A

Recognizing facial expressions in others, recognizing emotion in others voices, displaying nonverbal signs of emotion.

166
Q

Cortisol is released by the

A

Adrenal gland

167
Q

Cortisol is responsible for

A

Conversion of protein to glucose, increase in fat availability, increase in metabolism.

168
Q

Immune system cells that work by ingesting foreign substances and then displaying their antigens are called

A

Macrophages

169
Q

Which of the following is not a leukocyte: T cells, B cells, macrophages, natural killer cells.

A

Natural Killer Cells

170
Q

Following the three mile Island accident, nearby residents displayed

A

A reduced number of immune cells and a reduced ability to concentrate.

171
Q

Children who showed the greatest increase in blood pressure when placing their hands in ice water were more likely to develop

A

High blood pressure as adults

172
Q

Sudden cardiac death may be linked to

A

Sports, earthquakes, stress.

173
Q

Which of the following structures is not one that helps the body cope with stress?

  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Hippocampus
  3. Pituitary gland
  4. Adrenal gland
A

Hippocampus

174
Q

Brain damage in posttraumatic stress may be due to increased sensitivity to

A

Cortisol

175
Q

The personality factor of hostility is most strongly associated with

A

Heart disease

176
Q

Greater prefrontal right hemisphere activity is associated with

A

Lower antibody production following vaccination.

177
Q

Introversion is associated with

A

Higher levels of HIV

178
Q

True or false: Situational factors may influence how strongly pain is felt.

A

true

179
Q

True or false: The ability to experience pain is not adaptive.

A

False

180
Q

True or false: Some people are unable to experience pain.

A

true

181
Q

The emotional component of pain is most directly linked to activity in the

A

Anterior cingulate cortex.

182
Q

People who underwent prefrontal lobotomy for pain that failed to respond to other treatments

A

Were no longer bothered by the pain.

183
Q

What is an example of impulsive aggression?

A

A woman killing an attacker in self defense.

184
Q

Which of the following brain structures has not been linked to aggression: amygdala, hypothalamus, PFC, thalamus.

A

Thalamus

185
Q

Which of the individuals is most likely to have reduced amygdala activity?

  1. Carol, who has borderline personality disorder.
  2. Ian, who has intermittent explosive disorder.
  3. Susan, who has frontal lobe damage.
  4. John, who played violent videogames for 10 years as a teenager.
A

John

186
Q

True or false: High testosterone is linked to aggression in men but not women.

A

false

187
Q

Antidepressants reduce all of the following except: alcohol cravings, serotonin levels, aggression.

A

Serotonin levels

188
Q

Monkeys who are impulsive, reckless, and prone to aggressive behavior probably have high _____ and low ____ levels.

A

Testosterone, serotonin

189
Q

Males who commit violent crimes most likely have high _____ and low _____ levels.

A

Testosterone, cortisol.

190
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters has not been linked to aggression: acetylcholine, dopamine, serotonin, GABA.

A

acetylcholine

191
Q

Heredity accounts for about _____% of the variability in aggression.

A

50%

192
Q

Which alleles is known as the “warrior genes” because of their link to impulsive aggression?

A

Alleles of the MAOA gene.

193
Q

Family history of abuse in childhood is a risk factor for

A

Increased aggression.

194
Q

Among prisoners, testosterone would probably be lowest in those convicted of which of the following crimes?

  1. Drug offenses
  2. Rape
  3. Murder
  4. Armed robbery
A

Drug offenses

195
Q

As forms of motivation, how are hunger and sex different?

A

Hunger but not sex is represents a homeostatic tissue need.

196
Q

Penile and clitoral erection first occur I the _____ phase of the sexual response.

A

Excitement

197
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the refractory phase of the sexual response is true?

  1. Females have a shorter refractory period than males do.
  2. During the refractory phase, orgasm cannot occur.
  3. Males typically have a refractory phase of 3 to 5 hours.
  4. All above.
A

During the refractory phase, orgasm cannot occur.

198
Q

Anti-androgen drugs

A

May block the production of testosterone, reduce deviant sexual behaviors, and reduce sexual fantasies.

199
Q

Which of the following statements regarding sexual activity in females is true?

  1. Only female humans will engage in sexual activity when they are not ovulating.
  2. Women on birth control pills are less likely to initiate sex midcycle than at other times.
  3. In women, the increased likelihood of initiating sex corresponds with an increase in sex hormone levels.
  4. Women are less likely to engage in sexual intercourse during ovulation that at other times in the cycle.
A

In women, the increased likelihood of initiating sex corresponds with an increase in sex hormone levels.

200
Q

What brain area is active during copulation in female, but not male rats?

A

Ventromedial hypothalamus

201
Q

What could be predicted by the steroid/peptide theory of social bonds?

A

Females caring for young while not sexually aroused.

202
Q

Which neurotransmitter increases in the nucleus accumbens during sexual activity?

A

Dopamine

203
Q

True or false: humans have 400 to 600 genes for odor receptors.

A

True

204
Q

True or false: humans can distinguish approximately 1000 odors.

A

False

205
Q

True or false: Humans have more genes for odor receptors than mice.

A

False

206
Q

True or false: There are as many different odor receptors as odors that can be detected.

A

False

207
Q

Receptors in the VNO project to which two of the four areas of the hypothalamus?

A

Medial preoptic area (MPOA) and ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus (VMH)

208
Q

True or false: Women’s menstrual cycles may be synchronized by pheromones.

A

True

209
Q

True or false: Men wearing pheromones are more likely to engage in intercourse than controls.

A

True

210
Q

True or false: Pheromones have been linked to sexual behavior, but not nonsexual behaviors like aggression.

A

False

211
Q

True or false: women wearing pheromones are more likely to engage in intercourse than controls.

A

True

212
Q

What hormone is known to be important in social recognition, bonding, and causes the muscle contractions involved in lactation and orgasm?

A

Oxytocin

213
Q

Egg cells only contain ____ sex chromosomes.

A

X

214
Q

What internal structure must be actively inhibited in order for the normal pattern of male genitalia to perform.

A

Mullerian ducts

215
Q

The penis in males and the _____ in females develop from the same embryonic tissue.

A

Clitoris

216
Q

What hormone is responsible for masculinization of the external genitalia in males?

A

Dihydrotestosterone

217
Q

What could be considered an activating effect of a hormone?

A

Production of a mature egg cell during ovulation

218
Q

True or false: Among male rats castration does not affect sexual behavior because it occurs after birth.

A

False

219
Q

True or false: Androgenized females will mount other rats but do not display lordosis.

A

false

220
Q

True or false: Castrated males do not display lordosis.

A

false

221
Q

True or false: Normal females occasionally mount other females.

A

True

222
Q

True or false: the hormone estradiol is found only in females.

A

false

223
Q

What has not been found as a gender difference in the research literature.

A

Females are more emotional than males.

224
Q

Which of the following is not a sex difference reported in the literature.

  1. Males are more susceptible to autism.
  2. Women are more affected by stress than males.
  3. Females are genetically more resistant to pain than males.
  4. ADHD is more common in males.
A

Females are genetically more resistant to pain than males.

225
Q

Which hormone may be linked to enhanced verbal fluency?

A

Estrogen

226
Q

Which hormone may be linked to enhanced spatial skills?

A

Testosterone

227
Q

Steve believes that he should have been born into a woman’s body, and he wishes to get a gender reassignment surgery to fix the apparent “mistake.” However, he is still sexually attracted to women. If Steve’s doctor were to examine his brain, what area would be smaller in size than it is in his homosexual and heterosexual male friends?

A

Central bed nucleus of the stria terminalis (BSTc)

228
Q

What are some of the effects of the disorder 46 XY DSD?

A

17alpha hydroxysteroid deficiency, androgen insensitivity syndrome, 5alpha reductase deficiency.

229
Q

Individuals with 46 XX DSD

A

Have ovaries.

230
Q

Who tend to score lowest on spatial tasks?

A

Normal females

231
Q

The study of 46 XY DSD in the Dominican Republic found that

A

Although raised as girls, most of the individuals adopted male gender identities.

232
Q

An early study indicated that, compared to other females, CAH females

A

Were more oriented toward male typical occupations.

233
Q

Gender nonconformity includes

A

Childhood preference for friends of the other sex and preference for activities usually associated with the other sex.

234
Q

Name 2 kinds of evidence for a biological basis of sexual behavior?

A
  1. Shared genetic material in region Xq28 of homosexual brothers.
  2. Childhood preference for friends of the other sex.
235
Q

Epigenetic influences on sexual orientation, such as methylation of an x chromosome, indicate that

A

Prenatal environment can influence sexual orientation.

236
Q

Homosexuality in other species

A

Sometimes resembles heterosexuality (ie pair bonding)

237
Q

LeVay’s study of brain anatomy showed that INAH3 is similar in which two groups?

A

Homosexual males and females.

238
Q

According to the text, why aren’t there many studies of homosexual females?

A

Bisexuality is more common in females than in males, which makes female sexuality harder to categorize.

239
Q

What can be said about the causes of homosexuality?

A

Heredity, hormones, brain structures, and experiences all seem to play a role in determining sexual orientation.

240
Q

According to research, you would most likely see increases in aggression in if you injected testosterone into which group?

A

People with low serotonin levels.

241
Q

Individuals with PTSD have increased sensitivity to?

A

Glucocorticoids

242
Q

Allopregnanolone is a metabolite of ____ that may be linked to aggression in females.

A

Progesterone

243
Q

Patients with bilateral amygdala damage generally do not exhibit signs of fear to normally fear provoking stimuli. However, it has been demonstrated that there are other fear circuits because these individuals show fear when?

A

Inhaling carbon dioxide.

244
Q

Which of the following is NOT a potential effect of chronic stress?

A

Enhanced immune activity.

245
Q

Which hormone is involved in the HPA axis?

A

ACTH

246
Q

Conversion of T cells to TH17 cells that cause inflammation are regulated by the ______ gene which also controls the ________.

A

CLOCK; day-night cycle

247
Q

_____________________ states that the identity of an emotion is based on the cognitive assessment of a situation.

A

cognitive theory

248
Q

GABA is involved in the _____ of aggression by causing ______ in postsynaptic neurons.

A

Inhibition; IPSPs

249
Q

A person with damage to the ventromedial cortex will likely have trouble identifying the difference between what?

A

Risky and safe decks in a gambling task.

250
Q

Alcohol use is associated with aggression because initially it ______ and then ______.

A

Increases serotonin; decreases serotonin below normal levels.

251
Q
The genes involved in the production of the following neurotransmitters are often implicated in aggression EXCEPT for?
Norepinephrine. 
  GABA 
  Serotonin 
  Dopamine
A

Norepinephrine.

252
Q
Which of the following brain regions is not implicated in predatory aggression in cats?
  Central Amygdala. 
  Medial hypothalamus. 
  Ventral Periaqueductal Gray. 
  Lateral Amygdala.
A

Medial hypothalamus.

253
Q

In an MRI study, investigators found that the right ____ was larger in people with high scores on _____ avoidance.

A

Anterior cingulate; harm

254
Q

Your friend Taylor really likes to go new places and try new things while your friend Jordan would prefer to stay at home. What neuroanatomical difference is likely to be observed between your friends?

A

Jordan will have stronger connections between the striatum and PFC while Taylor will have stronger connections between the striatum, amygdala, and hippocampus.

255
Q

Immune system cytokines released by tumors can produce__________________.

A

depressive-like behaviors

256
Q

In pain insensitivity disorders what part of pain perception is missing?

A

Emotional response to pain.

257
Q

__________ is an emotional reaction to an immediate threat; _____________ is apprehension about the future.

A

fear; anxiety

258
Q

What are the 4 theories on motivation?

A

instinct, drive, incentive, arousal

259
Q

What is instinct theory?

A

instincts to survive

260
Q

What is drive theory?

A

working to reach equilibrium

261
Q

What is incentive theory?

A

driven by internal and external rewards

262
Q

What is arousal theory?

A

behavior as ways to stay at desired levels or arousal (skydiving)

263
Q

What makes reward different from motivation?

A

There is an established circuit for reward

264
Q

What are the 3 brain areas involved in reward?

A

VTA, NAC, PFG

265
Q

How does dopamine respond to reward vs the anticipation of reward?

A

The same

266
Q

What is the difference between liking and wanting, and how is this impacted in anorexia?

A

They’re in different areas in the NAC and the hot spots operate separately - they can turn off the wanting hot spot.

267
Q

What is the process of osmosis?

A

Movement of water to equalize water/sodium inside/outside cells.

268
Q

What happens when we eat something super salty?

A

It dehydrates cells - water moves out of cells to equalize sodium levels

269
Q

What kind of neurons monitor concentration of extracellular?

A

Osmosensory

270
Q

Where are osmosensory neurons found?

A

OVLT

271
Q

What does vasopresson do in regards to thirst?

A

Slows urine output, increases re-absorption of water

272
Q

What kind of receptors detect changes in hypovolemic thirst?

A

heart and kidney baroreceptors

273
Q

In regards to thirst, what is the function of the OVLT (osmosis)?

A

Triggers thirst

274
Q

In regards to thirst, what is the function of the brainstem (NST)?

A

triggers hypovolemic thirst

275
Q

In regards to thirst, what is the function of the subfornical organ (SFO)?

A

inhibits drinking after you’ve been drinking

276
Q

In regards to thirst, what is the function of the preoptic area?

A

consolidates info from OVLT, NST, and SFO

277
Q

In regards to thirst, what is the function of vasopressin?

A

increases fluid

278
Q

In regards to thirst, what is the function of osmosensory neurons?

A

monitors concentration of extracellular fluid

279
Q

In regards to thirst, what is the function of baroreceptors?

A

detects change in hypovolemic thirst

280
Q

In regards to thirst, what is the function of angiotensin II?

A

tells kidneys to conserve and replenish water

281
Q

What are the 2 main types of thirst?

A

osmotic (salty) and hypovolemic (blood volume)

282
Q

What is osmotic thirst?

A

salty

283
Q

What is hypovolemic thirst?

A

blood volume

284
Q

What is the coca-cola conspiracy?

A

increased salt initially inhibits SFO and then turns back on to get people to drink more

285
Q

Why do we care about eating?

A

It does more than just keep us alive

286
Q

What is the primary source of energy for the body?

A

glucose

287
Q

Immediate use form of glucose?

A

glucose

288
Q

Short-term use form of glucose?

A

glycogen

289
Q

Long-term use form of glucose?

A

lipids

290
Q

Where does glucagon get secreted from?

A

Pancreas

291
Q

What are the 2 primary functions of glucagon?

A

Converts fat to glycerol and glycogen to glucose

292
Q

What are the 2 main functions of insulin?

A

Converts glucose to glycogen and works as glucose transporters

293
Q

What areas of the body don’t need insulin to function?

A

The brain

294
Q

What role does insulin play in appetite?

A

Lowering levels increases appetite

295
Q

When is insulin released?

A

Release is triggered by smells and sights

296
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

base level

297
Q

What is the difference between ectothermic and endothermic?

A

hot vs cold blooded.

298
Q

Why does serotonin treatment not work in restrictive anorexia?

A

They have too much and it increases anxiety

299
Q

How can eating be rewarding and hedonic?

A

Food plays a role in the reward system - food cues release dopamine

300
Q

Why does the basal metabolism cause issues during weight loss?

A

The body fights to stay the same

301
Q

What did the man on biggest loser have to do to maintain his weight?

A

Eat at 800 calories below others at the same BMI

302
Q

What could lead to a really fast metabolism?

A

Increase energy used by mitochondria in cells

303
Q

How does epigenetics affect obesity?

A

mehtylation can turn genes on vs off

304
Q

Is anorexia the opposite of obesity?

A

No

305
Q

What signals are different in anorexia?

A

elevated ghrelin and diminished leptin

306
Q

What is the anxiety hypothesis of anorexia?

A

no food = no tryptophan = no serotonin production = less serotonin = less anxiety

307
Q

Leptin:

A

Hunger OFF > NPY and POMC. monitors fat supply

308
Q

Insulin:

A

Hunger ON > NPY. activates NPY

309
Q

Ghrelin:

A

Hunger ON > NPY. activates NPY

310
Q

PYY:

A

Hunger OFF > NPY. inactivates NPY

311
Q

CCK:

A

Hunger OFF > NPY. inactivates NPY

312
Q

When is ghrelin at its higherst?

A

when fasting, meal time and midnight snacks

313
Q

Why won’t you lose weight if you injected CCK into your system?

A

The body compensates for it

314
Q

What is the main area of interest for hunger systems in the brain?

A

arcuate nucleus

315
Q

Why is leptin unique in how it works in the arcuate nucleus?

A

It acts on both systems and increases metabolism

316
Q

What are the 2 main types of hunger neurons?

A

POMC - off. NPY - on.

317
Q

What are the 2 hunger projection areas?

A

PVN and Lateral hypothalamus

318
Q

What would happen if you damaged the hunger project sites?

A

PVN - keep eating. Lateral hypothalamus - stop eating.

319
Q

Does orexin turn hunger on or off?

A

ON

320
Q

Does stomach stretch turn hunger on or off?

A

OFF

321
Q

Does dopamine turn hunger on or off?

A

ON

322
Q

Do endocannabinoids turn hunger on or off?

A

ON

323
Q

What types of biological clocks do we have?

A

circadian, ultradian, infradian

324
Q

How long is the circadian rhythm?

A

25 hours

325
Q

What brain structure is primarily in charge of our biological clock?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

326
Q

3 pieces of evidence that confirm importance of SCN?

A

Lesions - cycles disappeared. cells in petri dish - cells still fire in time. transplanted brain - 20 SCN into hamster, recipient went to 20 hr cycle

327
Q

How does the SCN operate?

A

Light signals - fire when dark to signal pineal gland to release melatonin

328
Q

Why is it so bad t look at our screen and devices at night?

A

Halts melatonin production when ganglion cells sense light

329
Q

What genes are involved in the SCN?

A

clock and cycle

330
Q

How do clock and cycle genes interact to produce the clock?

A

when binding it promotes the making of period and chryptochrome and inhibits further creation - when they degrade, clock and cycle creates more. 24 hour cycle

331
Q

What waves are associated with being awake?

A

alpha/beta

332
Q

What waves are associated with being drowsy?

A

alpha

333
Q

What waves are associated with stage 1?

A

theta

334
Q

What waves are associated with stage 2?

A

sleep spindles and k complexes

335
Q

What waves are associated with stage 3/4?

A

slow - wave

336
Q

How does body temperature affect stage 3/4 sleep?

A

more slow-wave after exercise, prevents brain from over-heating

337
Q

What waves are associated with REM sleep?

A

fast and random

338
Q

What kind of dreaming happens in REM sleep?

A

vivid dreaming

339
Q

Why is REM stage paradoxical?

A

It looks like you are awake but body is paralyzed

340
Q

What are the 4 main reasons we sleep?

A

energy conservation, niche adaptation, restoration, consolidate memories

341
Q

Does learning and memory rely on REM or non-REM sleep?

A

Both

342
Q

What are the 3 main hypotheses on memory and sleep?

A

rem replay - consolidation in terms of replay. synaptic homeostasis - synaptic pruning. reverse learning - memories purged to conserve space for what matters

343
Q

What are the 4 main sleep structures?

A

forebrain - generates slow wave sleep. reticular formation - wakes up forebrain. pontine system - triggers rem. hypothalamic system - coordinates other 3 to determine sleep state.

344
Q

What’s the forebrain’s role in sleep?

A

generates slow wave sleep

345
Q

What’s the reticular formation’s role in sleep?

A

wakes up forebrain

346
Q

What’s the pontine system’s role in sleep?

A

triggers REM

347
Q

What’s the hypothalamic system’s role in sleep?

A

coordinates other 3 systems to determine sleep state.

348
Q

Are our brains wired more to stay awake or to fall asleep?

A

Awake

349
Q

When a rat’s connection between the brainstem and the forebrain was severed what kind of sleep patterns did it generate?

A

slow-wave only

350
Q

What accumulates in the basal forebrain when we are awake to induce drowsiness?

A

adenosine

351
Q

What system is in charge of triggering REM?

A

pontine system

352
Q

What system is in charge of waking us up?

A

Reticular formation

353
Q

What does narcolepsy teach us about the transition between sleep states?

A

They are regulated

354
Q

What controls the transition between sleep states?

A

Orexin in the hypothalamus

355
Q

What is the problem with narcolepsy in terms of orexin?

A

Too little orexin

356
Q

What are 2 things that can cause/worsen insomnia?

A

circadian phase delay/advance, addictive sleeping drugs can worsen longterm

357
Q

What are 2 things that make studying consciousness hard?

A

It’s a subjective experience and we don’t have a good definition of it

358
Q

What brain area is involved with dealing with the discrepancy between what we are doing and what we are seeing?

A

inferior temporal cortex

359
Q

What did the video showing circles and squares teach us about consciousness?

A

We project our own consciousness onto objects and animals

360
Q

What is the local state of consciousness?

A

Contents, objects or features - perceptual, bodily, affective experiences

361
Q

What is the global state of consciousness?

A

mutlidimensional, cognitive, behavioral and physiological - verbal report, executive function/free will, inhibitory control

362
Q

What is paradoxical lucidity?

A

out of body experience

363
Q

What mechanisms are involved with paradoxical lucidity?

A

widespread, synchronized brain activity

364
Q

What is encephalitis lethargica?

A

a disease that created a lock-in state

365
Q

What does encephalitis lethargica teach us about consciousness?

A

other factors besides brain damage can change states of consciousness

366
Q

Is DID recognized by the DSM?

A

Yes

367
Q

What makes DID such an incredible disorder?

A

Hard to tell when real or not - brain can create an entirely separate identity

368
Q

What is related to/might be a source of DID isues?

A

abuse and childhood trauma

369
Q

What does damage to the frontal temporal lobe impair?

A

episodic memory - can produce detachment from self

370
Q

In the video about neurons, what happens when a arm is numbed and we watch as another person is touched?

A

The numbed person feels it

371
Q

Do we have free will?

A

Unknown

372
Q

What do studies on mice and decision making teach us about free will?

A

Brain patterns happen before conscious choice is made in mice choosing to go left or right

373
Q

What cell in the brain is responsible for hormone release?

A

neuroendocrine cells

374
Q

What makes hormones difference from other chemical transmission systems?

A

They work through the entire body - released by endocrine cell and travel through the bloodstream to target

375
Q

What hormones are released by the anterior pituitary gland?

A

tropic hormones - FSH and LH

376
Q

What hormones are released by the posterior pituitary gland?

A

Oxytocin and vasopressin

377
Q

What is the negative feedback loop?

A

Hormones travel back to the brain which determines if there’s enough

378
Q

How does birth control hack the negative feedback loop?

A

small amounts of estrogen tell the brain it doesn’t need to release more

379
Q

What hormones are involved in the steroid/peptide theory?

A

oxytocin, vasopressin, testosterone

380
Q

What does the steroid/peptide theory say is necessary for sexual intimacy instead of just social bonding?

A

Hormones - combinations control social bonding and intimacy

381
Q

When are females more likely to initiate sex?

A

during ovulation

382
Q

What are the differences between male and female sex cycles?

A

males - diurnal. females - peak of estrogen and testosterone

383
Q

How is sex different than hunger in terms of motivation?

A

doesn’t fit the pattern of a homeostatic tissue need - ensures survival of the species but not the individual

384
Q

What is the default gender?

A

Female

385
Q

Why is female the default gender?

A

easiest road for developing fetus - nothing needs to be added/changed

386
Q

In XX DSD does the person have male or female genitals?

A

male

387
Q

In XY DSD does the person have male or female genitals?

A

female

388
Q

What does the BSTc show us about transgender male to females?

A

it’s smaller and similar to females

389
Q

What kind of predicting factors have been found for homosexuality?

A

finger length, sibling order, genes, brain areas

390
Q

What difference are there between males and females in regards to spatial tasks?

A

males are better but there is an overlap

391
Q

What do anti-androgen drugs do?

A

they bind to androgen receptors so that androgens like testosterone are unable to