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Repro > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

In dogs, prolapsed uterus typically occurs when in relation to parturition

A

during (or shortly after) parturition

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2
Q

What hormones are shifting (and in what direction) that leads to the development of pseudopregnancy?

A

declining P4 in the face of rising prolactin

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3
Q

If an owner requests medical treatment for their dog showing signs of pseudopregnancy, what general type of drug would be indicated?

A

Dopamine agonist

remember, dopamine and prolactin always go in opposite directions

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4
Q

A bitch presents to you with a malodorous, red/brown vaginal discharge. The owners inform you she just had puppies a few days ago but doesn’t seem very interested in them recently.
Upon physical exam, she is febrile and depressed.

Based on the timeline and clinical signs, what’s your top differential? What would be a good next step?

A

Metritis

Take radiograph to rule out a retained fetus

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5
Q

In dogs, which form of mastitis is most serious and why?

A

Acute mastitis; can be life-threatening to dam

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6
Q

Most common isolate from dogs with mastitis

A

Staph aureus

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7
Q

What signalment/type of dog would you expect to be affected with eclampsia/hypocalcemia

A

small breed dog with a large litter

heavy lactation demands

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8
Q

How does the presentation of hypocalcemia differ between dogs and cows

A

in dogs, it leads to tetany/tremors

in cows, flaccid paralysis (prevents ACh release)

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9
Q

In dogs, uterine involution is usually complete by _______ (timeframe). If this gets delayed, the dog is at risk of developing?

A

12weeks (3months)

SIPS

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10
Q

A 2yr old bitch presents to you for hemorrhagic vaginal discharge. After talking to the owners, you learn that she recently had her first litter of puppies about 3.5 weeks ago.

After ruling out other potential causes, you diagnose the bitch with SIPS. Is this likely to recur with subsequent pregnancies?

A

NO

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11
Q

Most common location for placement of intraosseous catheters in canine neonates?

A

proximal femur (trochanteric fossa)

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12
Q

What 4 things are important to check for/evaluate in neonates during physical exam

A

cleft palate
anus (atresia ani)
limbs/digits
auscultation

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13
Q

What 2 procedures are typically done on neonates using only local anesthesia. And at what age are these usually done?

A

Dewclaw removal and tail docking

typically done together at around 3-6d of age

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14
Q

Though cattle are usually culled for aglactia, what is the treatment of choice in our other spp. (i.e. dog and horse)

A

Domperidone (dopamine antagonist)

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15
Q

What recommendations would you make to an owner who’s puppy is diagnosed is puppy vaginitis in regards to treatment and future care?

A

tx is probably not needed (most resolve on their own)

Allow this dog to have at least her first heat cycle before spaying

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16
Q

In dogs, vaginal prolapse is stimulated by ______ and most commonly occurs ________?

A

ESTROGEN

Late proestrus (less commonly occurs near parturition)

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17
Q

2 reasons we recommend spay for dogs with vaginal prolapse

A

1) it’s likely heritable so we don’t want to breed these dogs
2) it will increase in severity with each subsequent estrus

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18
Q

In dogs, most vaginal neopalsias are _______ (malignant/benign) and the most common one is ______

A

Benign

Leiomyoma

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19
Q

In cows, vaginal prolapse typically occurs?

What is our usual tx? Are there any exceptions?

A

Prepartum

Cull (affected female AND her offspring)

Exception= embryo donors (prolapse due to high estrogen, not heritable)

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20
Q

When treating vaginal prolapse in cows, the Buhner technique serves to mimic the natural function of which muscle?

A

Constrictor vestibuli

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21
Q

The minchev technique for repair of vaginal prolapse in cows anchors the dorsal vagina to which structure

A

sacrosciatic ligament

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22
Q

In cows, which vaginal prolapse repair technique if common for embryo donor cows & allows normal breeding and parturition

A

Winkler’s cervicopexy

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23
Q

In most spp. vaginal prolapse occurs _____ except for which spp.? When does it occur in them?

A

In most–> prepartum

Not in dogs
dogs= proestrus or estrus (when estrogen is high)

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24
Q

In ALL spp., uterine prolapse is considered to be ________ (it’s cause)

A

an incident of parturition

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25
Q

What should be avoided in a cow with a prolapsed uterus?

A

movement–risk of rupturing middle uterine artery

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26
Q

T/F: once a cow prolapses her uterus once, she should be culled because it is likely to happen again

A

FALSE—no more likely to occur than in animals that have never prolapsed

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27
Q

Most infections of the male repro tract occur by which route?

A

Ascending infection (urinary pathogens)

*seminal vesiculitis, epididymitis, prostatitis

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28
Q

In males, orchitis most commonly occurs secondary to ____

A

epididymitis (which occurs secondary to ascending infection)

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29
Q

Which viral agent has been assoc. with Balanoposthitis in bulls?

A

BHV-1

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30
Q

How do Hypospadia and Epispadia differ?

A

Hypo= urogenital groove didn’t close on the VENTRAL side of the penis

Epi= dorsal side

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31
Q

Most common testicular tumor of dogs and bulls?

A

Interstitial cell tumor

*non-invasive, encapsulated

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32
Q

Sertoli cell tumors primarily occur in _______ testes

A

cryptorchid/retained

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33
Q

Which testicular neoplasia has been associated with a feminizing paraneoplastic syndrome

A

Sertoli cell tumor

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34
Q

Most common testicular tumor of aged stallions?

A

seminoma

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35
Q

2 indications for exteriorizing the uterus with C-section

A

1) fetus emphysematous (septic uterine contents)

2) J-lube present in uterus

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36
Q

When closing the uterus after a C-section, what is the most important goal? What type of pattern is typically used?

A

NO LEAKING (tight seal)

non-penetrating, inverting pattern

37
Q

Which suture pattern for unterine closure following c-section is assoc with the best maintenance of fertility post-op?

A

Utrecht pattern

38
Q

Most common indication for C-section in

1) cow
2) bitch
3) camelids

A

1) fetal oversize
2) single or 2 puppy litter
3) uterine torsion

39
Q

3 ways horse c-sections are different

A

1) always require general anesthesia
2) done in hospital (not field or barn)
3) MUST exteriorize uterus (prevent contamination)

40
Q

In which species is a hemostatic/compressive stitch used post-c section and why

A

Horses (mares)

to compress subendometrial vessels

41
Q

Name the 4 fetotomy cuts

A

decapitation
limb amputation
detruncation
pelvic division (reduction)

42
Q

Fetotomy:
What is the goal when you are:
1) amputating forelimb
2) amputating the hindlimb

A

1) removal of scapula

2) coxofemoral luxation

43
Q

A pelvic symphsiotomy can only be used in which type of cow and what 2 circumstances must be present/true?

A

only in heifer calfs <2yr

Must also only be MILD fetopelvic disproportion and the cow must be ambulatory

44
Q

Milk proteins and eggs are commonly used for what purpose when freezing semen

A

EXTRACELLULAR Cryoprotectants

prevent structural changes in cell membrane when cooled

45
Q

T/F: the addition of antibiotics to semen is done to eliminate the presence of Brucella and Tritrichomonas

A

FALSE

*can only control CEM in horses and Campylobacter in cattle

46
Q

The biggest/most common problem with using frozen semen AI

A

TIMING

47
Q

Where in the female repro tract must frozen semen be placed during AI?

A

MUST go intrauterine

48
Q

For what type of semen is the insemination dose the lowest? Highest?

A

Lowest= fresh

highest= frozen/thawed

49
Q

Insemination dose for bovine if using frozen/thawed semen?

A

10-15 million (x10^6)

50
Q

4 components of BSE?

A

Physical exam
Scrotal circumference
Motility
Morphology

51
Q

A BSE is best done when in relation to the breeding season

A

30-60d prior

52
Q

What two things does a BSE not evaluate for

A

Libido

Mating Ability

53
Q

Which accessory sex gland, though present, isn’t palpable in cattle?

A

Bulbourethral gland

54
Q

For cattle:

1) minimum progressive motility
2) minimum normal morphology

A

1) 30%

2) 70%

55
Q

Bulls >24months should have a scrotal circumference of at least?

A

34cm

56
Q

Primary sperm defects occur when? What parts of sperm are normally affected

A

during synthesis (spermatogenesis)

head and mid-piece

57
Q

Secondary sperm defects occur when? What part of sperm is usually affected

A

during storage or transport

principle piece

58
Q

Scoring for serving capacity testing is based on what 2 things?

A 
sexual interest (mounts) 
services (ejaculations)
59
Q

With multi-sire breeding groups, every additional bull added after the first is good for?

A

1/2 as many cows as the first

60
Q

T/F: If a bull is found to have a corkscrew deviation of his penis while being collected using EE, you should recommend culling

A

FALSE

*EE can sometimes cause this due to over pressure; doesn’t mean it will occur with natural service..do test mating

61
Q

Which species shows the most dramatic seasonal changes in SC and libido

A

Ram

62
Q

Prior to the breeding season, mature rams should have a minimum SC of?

A

36cm

63
Q

To be marked satisfactory, a ram must have a minimum of ____% normal morphology

A

50%

*Motility standards same as cattle

64
Q

SC of a Ram to be marked satisfactory

1) if 8-14months
2) if >14 months

A

1) at least 29 (>36 is exceptional)

2) at least 32 (>40 is exceptional)

65
Q

Which reproductive condition is more common in

1) rams
2) bucks

A

1) rams get Scrotal Varicocele

2) bucks get Sperm Granulomas (polled goats)

66
Q

A gloved hand technique is most commonly use for collection of which spp?

A

Boar

67
Q

What is the minimum motility and morphology for boars?

A

60/60 min for both

68
Q

Around what age to stallions become sexually mature

A

4-5yr

*they go through puberty 12-24months

69
Q

What is the definition of a satisfactory potential breeder (Stallion)

A

produces at least 1billion PM, morphologically normal, sperm in 2nd ejaculate at any time of year

70
Q

How does Imipramine work in the stallion? Use?

A

Use= chemical ejaculation

Lowers the ejaculatory threshold

71
Q

Standard insemination dose for horse?

A

500million progressively motile sperm

**This means if shipping, must ship 1 billion PMS

72
Q

Most common breeding problem in stallions?

A

Low libido

73
Q

How can you determine azoospermia vs. incomplete ejaculation

A

measure seminal plasma alkaline phosphatase

**Will be HIGH if ejaculation was complete (>2500)

74
Q

For hemospermia, what is your top differential

1) stallion
2) dog

A

1) urethral tear

2) prostate problem

75
Q

Most common neoplasia of stallion’s external genital tract?

A

SCC

76
Q

Which accessory sex glands does each have

1) dog
2) cat

A

1) prostate only

2) prostate and bulbourethral

77
Q

Canines are most commonly collected using which technique

A

Manual stimulation (pressure at base of penis behind bulbus glandis)

78
Q

Motility and morphology standards for canine sperm

A

80% motility

80% morphology

<60% in either= decreased fertility

79
Q

What disease must you ALWAYS rule out if a dog presents with orchitis

A

Brucellosis

80
Q

Most common testicular neoplasia in RETAINED testicles

A

Sertoli cell tumor

81
Q

Which testicular neoplasia is almost always located in scrotal testicles

A

interstitial cell tumor

82
Q

Which hormone acts on the prostate in the dog? What enzyme is important for its creation?

A

DHT

5-alpha reductase

83
Q

Which ejaculatory fraction is best to use for evaluation of the canine prostate

A

3rd fraction

1st is okay if dog too painful to ejaculate

84
Q

Symmetrical, non-painful enlargement of the prostate in an older, intact male dog is most likely

A

BPH

85
Q

Fenasteride MOA?

A

5=alpha reductase inhibitor

**reduces prostatic size without affecting testosterone

86
Q

A dog with a sertoli cell tumor may be at risk for developing which prostatic disease?

A

Squamous metaplasia

**due to increased estrogens

87
Q

What characteristics must antibiotics have if you are going to use them to treat prostatitis?

A

Basic & lipophilic

*prostate= acidic

88
Q

Concerning prostatic neoplasia

1) is incident rate higher in intact or castrated males
2) most common type

A

1) neutered

2) adenocarcinoma

Repro (8 decks)

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