EXAM 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What happens after 2 night of sleep deprivation?

A

tremors, difficulty focusing eyes, increased sensitivity to pain

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2
Q

What happens after 4 nights of sleep deprivation?

A

paranoid delusions, bizarre hallucinations

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3
Q

What are the stages of sleep??

A
  1. Awake: Alpha (smooth/relaxed), Beta (irregular, aroused)
  2. Stage 1 sleep: Theta, sleep spindle, K complex
  3. Stage 2 sleep: Theta, sleep spindle, K complex
  4. Stage 3 sleep: Delta waves (synchronized)
  5. Stage 4 sleep: Delta waves (synchronized)
    REM: Theta & beta (desynchronized), dreaming
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4
Q

What are the differences between REM and slow-wave sleep?

A

REM: dreams, de-synchrony, lack of muscle tonus, erection/vaginal secretion

Slow wave: synchrony, muscle tonus, absent eye movements, no genital activity

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5
Q

Why do we need REM sleep?

A
  1. Help with development: highest % of REM sleep = most active phase of brain development.
  2. Help consolidate non-declarative memories
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6
Q

Why do we slow wave sleep?

A

Consolidate declarative learning

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7
Q

Discuss insomnia:

A

can’t fall asleep, treat with benzodiazepines: GABA system

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8
Q

Discuss sleep apnea:

A

stop breathing while asleep

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9
Q

Discuss REM sleep disorder:

A

muscles do not paralyze during sleep, acts out dreams: can be
dangerous

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10
Q

Discuss slow wave sleep problems:

A

bed wetting, night terrors, sleep walking, sleep eating disorder,
EXTREME sleep walking

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11
Q

Discuss narcolepsy:

A
irresistible sleep (orexinergic neurons- in adolescent the immune system 
attacks these neurons and narcolepsy begins)
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12
Q

Discuss Cataplexy:

A

complete paralysis during waking (sudden emotions) (genetic, autoimmune
disorder attacks neurons responsible for arousal/wakefulness)

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13
Q

Discuss sleep paralysis:

A

paralysis before falling asleep

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14
Q

Discuss hypnagogic hallucinations:

A

vivid dreams before falling asleep (treat with stimulants-

methylphenidate)

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15
Q

Chemicals involved in arousal?

A

acetylcholine, norepinephrine, serotonin, histamine, and orexin

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16
Q

How is slow-wave sleep initiated?

A

vIOPA secretes GABA inhibits arousals of NT and we sleep

Flip-flop is “off”

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17
Q

What do Orexin neurons promote? sleep or wakefulness? Do they promote REM sleep or non-REM sleep?

A

Wakefulness. REM-off.

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18
Q

What does adenosine do?

A

Deals with caffeine, caffeine blocks adenosine receptors. Adenosine makes you sleepy and accumulates throughout the day.

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19
Q

Where in your brain is your biological clock?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus. It’s on top of the optic chiasm.

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20
Q

What happens if your internal rhythms and your external cues are off? How can you fix it?

A

Make environment as dark as possible, melatonin: released in to pineal gland and sends messages to SCN to shhhh

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21
Q

What are orexin neurons influenced by?

A

Hunger, satiety, time of day

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22
Q

What is genotypic sex?

A

determines gonad sex. Which releases specific hormones that determines.

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23
Q

What is phenotypic sex?

A

the hormones released by genotypic sex.

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24
Q

What is the “sex-determining region” of the Y chromosome?

A

Sry gene. If present: develop testes. If absent: gonads develop ovaries.

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25
What is the male duct system and what is the female duct system? Which one develops by default?
Male duct system: wolffian duct. Female duct system: mullerian duct. Mullerian duct develops by default
26
What do the testes secrete to cause the female duct system to regress?
AMH (Anti-mullerian hormone) and testosterone
27
Describe organizational hormone effects.
The permanent effects of hormone exposure that occurs early in development.
28
Fill in the blanks: ----------- (hormone) gets converted to --------- (hormone) to masculinize the brain.
Testosterone, estrogen
29
What keeps the female brain from becoming masculinized?
Alpha fetoprotein which attaches to estrogen and doesn’t allow it to cross over the BBB.
30
Testosterone is converted to estrogen in the male brain by what?
aromataste
31
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome =
Male genotype (XY) with defective gene for androgen receptors so no T or AMH which leads to no male genitals making them have female phenotype
32
Persistent Mullerian Duct Syndrome =
male genotype (XY), but do not produce AMH, T exposure = male genitals, the uterus never regresses, so they have a male and female phenotype INTERNAL
33
Turner’s Syndrome =
only one X, no Y = no male genotype, because no second X = no ovaries, therefore female phenotype
34
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia =
secretion of high levels of androgens, XY=develop normally, XX= develop with female internal genitalia and an enlarged clitoris and deformed labia (male EXTERNAL genitalia)
35
Neural control of hormones: ____________ releases ____________ which stimulate _____________ to release _______________ which stimulate ________________.
Hypothalmus releases GnRH stimulates pituitary to release gonadotropins to stimulate gonads
36
Activational hormone effects:
TRANSIENT effects of hormone exposure that occur LATER in development.
37
Organizational Hormone Effects
PERMANENT effects of hormone exposure that occur EARLY in development.
38
As of 2011, the range of obesity rates in US states =
400 Million
39
Obesity is a risk factor for which negative health effects?
Diabetes, cancer, hypertension, sleep apnea, gallstones, stress
40
What causes obesity?
simple imbalance in energy input and output
41
Salt–
Maintain cellular balance
42
Sweet-
Seek carbohydrates and energy
43
Sour-
Avoid unripe fruit
44
Bitter-
Avoid plant-based poisons
45
Umami-
Reflects protein content
46
How are the different types of taste receptors distributed across the tongue?
Evenly distributed, taste bud map not correct.
47
Miracle berry fruit detects what taste receptors?
Sour
48
What evolutionary process occurs in children ages 2-5 years old, resulting in a dislike for new food?
neophobia
49
The ________________ Component = muscular movements.
behavioral
50
What are the stages of sleep?
Stages 1-4 and REM
51
Explain organizational vs. activational hormone effects
Organizational Effects = permanent and early in life | Activational Effects = transient and later in life
52
Which taste receptor recognizes the PTC/PROP chemical?
bitter
53
Describe one psychological factor that influences how much we eat.
Proximity & visibility, color of food or utensils, portion or utensil size, how well you know the people you are eating with, how much others around you eat, health halo bias, memory, variety, economics, geography, culture
54
The ________________ Response = Provides quick mobilizaton of energy for vigorous movement.
autonomic
55
The _______________ Response = Reinforces the autonomic responses.
hormonal
56
Where is the amygdala located and what does it do?
Temporal lobes and consists of approximately 12 subnuclei Does: Receives sensory info: neurons are firing
57
What is Aversive Emotional Learning?
A conditioned emotional response occurs when a neutral | stimulus is followed by an aversive stimulus.
58
What brain regions is responsible for aversive emotional learning?
amygdala
59
How do humans acquire most fears?
acquired socially, not through firsthand experience with painful stimuli.
60
What is the process of adapting to an inappropriate emotional response?
1) learning: CS is no longer followed by an aversive stimulus 2) result: The CS is extinguished to the aversive stimulus.
61
Does extinction mean forgetting?
NO
62
What brain regions is responsible in adapting to an inappropriate emotional response?
Medial prefrontal cortex
63
Which neurotransmitter inhibits aggression?
5-HT (serotonin) Inhibits aggression
64
Describe the relationship between the vmPFC and amygdala for emotion control/reactivity.
vmPFC: important role in the regulation of emotional responses. Inhibits raw emotional reactivity of the amygdala. vmPFC executive portion of brain tells primate part (amygdala) we aren’t primates aka calm down. vmPFC develops last.
65
What happens if the vmPFC is underdeveloped (adolescents) or gets damaged?
impacts judgement, endorsing actions nonmoral, impersonal and personal more than one that isnt impacted....etc
66
What hormone facilitates normal aggression in males and can increase aggression in females?
organizational and activational effects of Testosterone impact aggressive behaviors.
67
What hormone facilitates maternal aggression?
oxytocin
68
What does David Eagleman propose we should do in our justice system to account for the fact that everyone has a different brain and that we often times cannot control our behavior beyond the capabilities of our brain?
IMAGINE A SPECTRUM of culpability
69
Are facial expressions species-typical? Are they cross cultural?
Evidence from cross-cultures, athletes, bind people, isolated tribes
70
What system of neurons becomes active when we watch other people make facial movements?
Mirror Neuron System
71
Where are mirror neurons?
Ventral premotor area of the frontal lobe
72
Describe the James/Lange theory of emotion.
Our own emotional feelings are based on sensory feedback we receive from the activity of our muscles and internal organs. Stimulus --> physiology --> we react to the physiology (emotion)
73
What behavior is associated with low levels of 5HIAA?
Aggression and anti-social behavior
74
Those with high levels of 5HIAA?
live longer. More serotonin
75
Define learning:
a long term change in behavior as a function of experience.
76
Define memory:
the ability to remember or recall information that has | been learned or experienced.
77
Define learning phases:
acquisition --> storage --> retrieval
78
Perceptual:
learning to recognize a | particular stimulus.
79
Stimulus response:
learning to automatically make a particular response in the presence of a particular stimulus
80
Classical conditioning:
when a stimulus that initially produces no particular response is followed several times by an unconditional stimulus that produces a defensive or appetitive response (the unconditional response), the first stimulus (now called a conditional stimulus) itself evokes the response (now called a conditional response).
81
Instrumental/Operational conditioning:
Learning to associate a behavior with a consequence
82
Reinforcing stimulus:
consequences that increase the frequency of the behavior that precedes it.  Appetitive aka good
83
Punishing stimulus:
consequences that decrease the frequency of the behavior that precedes it.  Aversive aka bad
84
Where is consolidation in the atkinson model?
process of converting information from | short-term memory to long-term memory
85
Where is working memory in the model?
occur somewhere in here, most | suggest it is a form of short-term memory
86
What us working memory?
a system that permits a temporary storage | and MANIPULATION of information
87
the process of converting information from | short-term memory to long-term memory.
consolidation
88
• Has limited capacity and duration (like short-term memory)
working memory
89
Describe the case of H.M. What did he have removed, why and what were his resulting learning and memory deficits vs. his intact learning and memory abilities?
bilateral temporal lobe lesions to stop seizures anterograde amnesia: no new memories
90
H.M. had no new learning of ________ memories
declarative
91
H.M. had an intact __________ memory
procedural
92
Where does procedural learning occur in the brain?
Basal ganglia/caudate
93
Skill memory, or the memory of highly practiced behavior. These memories may not be accessible to conscious awareness.
Procedural
94
Where does declarative learning occur in the brain?
hippocampus
95
The hippocampus is important for what type of memories?
Declarative
96
Where does operational/instrumental conditioning occur in the brain?
basal ganglia
97
What is the main neurotransmitter involved in operational/instrumental conditioning?
dopamine
98
Once a memory is made, does it leave the hippocampus?
Yes it can
99
Where does it go? What do we know from fMRI studies and the Lashley experiments?
frontal cortex/gyrus
100
Define spatial memory:
a form of declarative memory where one consolidates information about the location of rooms, corridors, buildings, roads, and other important items in their environment.
101
What brain structure is important for spatial memory?
hippocampus
102
What tests are used in animals to measure spatial memory and how do they work?
The Morris Water Maze Can be used for declarative spatial memory if we vary the “drop off” location or stimulus response memory if we keep the start point the same every time. Hippocampal lesioned rats do not do well.
103
Place cells:
``` A neuron that becomes active when the animal is in a particular location in the environment. ```
104
Grid cells:
``` show an evenly spaced coverage of the entire environment in which the animal is located ```
105
Border cells
fire when the animal is near one or more boundaries of the environment.
106
Describe Hebb’s theory –
proposes that our experience of an event activates a neural circuit in the CNS. Cells that are consistently activated together, produce a strong connection and response. “Cells that fire together are wired together”
107
Synapatic plasticity -
refers to any lasting (days or weeks) effects of synaptic strength is thought to underlie learning and memory.
108
ability of axon | to talk to a neuron
synaptic strength
109
Long-term potentiation (LTP) –
a form of synaptic plasticity. It is a long term increase in the magnitude of postsynaptic potentials.
110
What is the first receptor involved in LTP
NMDA
111
Requires a --------------- of the neuron and activation of its ------------.
depolarization, synapses
112
Which receptor is unregulated after LTP?
AMPA
113
Is depolarization involved in unlocking the NMDA receptor?
Yes to remove the magnesium
114
What blocks the NMDA receptor?
Magnesium
115
What neurotransmitier binds to them? Is it inhibitory or excitatory? – Does LTP make synapse stronger, weaker, or no effect?
glutamate: excititory , stronger
116
Name two ways a synapse can be made stronger:
synaptic placisity, LTP, Use it or lose it
117
Where are the greatest # of new neurons produced in the adult brain:
hippocampus
118
What type of test did HM do?
mirror-drawing test
119
What type of amnesia did H.M. have?
anterograde amnesia