Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What does lateral and longitudinal folding cause blood islands to do?

A
  • merge into one solid tube

* long: puts it at definitive position in Thorax

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2
Q

What does the Outflow tract become?

A

*pulmonary trunk and aorta

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3
Q

What do the conotruncal cushion grow out from?

A

*wall of primordial heart

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4
Q

What does the endocardial cushion grow out from?

A

*endocardial part of the heart

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5
Q

Where do the conotruncal cushion originate from?

A

*Neural Crest cells

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6
Q

What is the pathway for blood that will close?

A

*ostium primum

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7
Q

what forms from the atrioventricular canal?

A

*interatrium septum (fibrous skeleton of the heart)

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8
Q

What forms 2nd and closes off to cause misalignment of holes?

A

*septum seundum

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9
Q

What is the misaligned hole on the L side called?

A

*oval foramen and valve of oval foramen

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10
Q

What closes in fetal circulation after birth?

A

*ductus arteriosus, oval foramen, umbilical vein and ductus venosus, and umbilical artery

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11
Q

What becomes the aortic and pulmonary trunk?

A
  • P: pulmonary channel

* A: aortic channel

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12
Q

What percent of babies have septal defects?

A
  • 1% of babies (10% if include still born babies)
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13
Q

What percent of babies with heart problems have other developmental defects?

A

*30%

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14
Q

What are the signs and treatment of a septal defect in the membranous part of the ventricles?

A
  • doesn’t seal up, surgery required
  • baby cyanosis and sweat while suckling
  • flow from L to R
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15
Q

How is a septal defect in the muscular part of the ventricles treated?

A

*seals up on its own

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16
Q

What are the signs of an atrial septal defect and how is it detected and treated?

A
  • if doesn’t seal up, surgery required
  • Doppler ultrasound to find hole
  • shunt from R to L
  • big defect causes blood to bypass pulmonary circuit (cyanotic, sweat while suckling)
  • pulmonary side under more pressure (enlarged R side) if have this in adult
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17
Q

What are the alterations a tetralogy of fallot can cause?

A
  • pulmonary stenosis
  • overriding aorta
  • interventricular septal defect
  • hypertrophy
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18
Q

What accompanies tetralogy of fallot and how do you fix it?

A
  • patent ductus arteriosus

* surgical fix

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19
Q

What is stenosis of valves?

A

*calcium of vales, hardening, narrow opening

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20
Q

What is insufficient of valves?

A

*doesn’t close right, blood comes back through

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21
Q

What is ductus arteriosus, signs and treatments?

A
  • ductus art doesn’t close
  • cyanosis sweat during suckling
  • prostaglandins, surgical (can hit recurrent laryngeal nerve)
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22
Q

Where would hypertrophy in tetralogy of fallot occur?

A
  • walls of RV
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23
Q

What part would be effected in the interventricular septal defect in tetralogy of fallot?

A

*membranous part

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24
Q

What are the muscles of the posterior abdominal wall?

A

*psoas, quadratus, iliacus, trans abdominis, internal and external oblique

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25
Q

What can a peritoneal infection do?

A

*travel to psoas major and go into thigh

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26
Q

Where is the pain felt in a psoas abscess?

A

*fever, pain in flank, pain walking

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27
Q

What is a psoas abscess caused by and how is it treated?

A
  • staph aur

* antibiotics, surgically drained

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28
Q

What produces blood in the fetus?

A

*spleen

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29
Q

What stores and releases RBC?

A

*spleen

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30
Q

What is a lymphatic organ and what does that mean?

A
  • spleen

* makes macrophages

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31
Q

What is the spleen derived from?

A

*mesoderm

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32
Q

What does the spleen do?

A
  • splenic circulation (polysach. antigens recognize)
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33
Q

What are some reason why people don’t have a spleen?

A
  • splenic agenesis, rupture in trauma, disease cured by removal of spleen (Hep c)
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34
Q

What is an overwhelming post splenectomy (OPSI) and how is it treated, and what are the signs?

A
  • bacterial septic (blood infection)
  • rec in 24-48 hours, 50-70% die
  • intravenous antibiotics
  • flu like symp, fever, headache, nausea
  • vaccine, renew every 5 years
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35
Q

What gets 20% of the body’s blood supply?

A

*kidney

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36
Q

What does the kidney do and where is it located?

A
  • removes waste

* T12-L3 vert

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37
Q

What is surrounded by a capsule (stretchy)?

A

*spleen

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38
Q

What is surrounded by para fat and a strong capsule of CT?

A

*kidney

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39
Q

What does the renal pyramid have in it?

A

*millions of nephrons

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40
Q

Where can you get constrictions of the ureters?

A

*superior part, kink over common iliac arteries, and by bladder

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41
Q

What is a kidney stone (renal calculi) composed of?

A

*oxalate, calcium, and cholesterol

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42
Q

Where is the pain in a kidney stone felt?

A
  • pain when stretched

* pain in flank, groin, and lower back pain

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43
Q

How do you treat a kidney stone?

A

*lithotripsy (aim sound waves and tear them apart, epidural)

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44
Q

What is a stag horn calculi?

A

*kidney stone that remains in renal pelvis

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45
Q

Where do the kidneys develop?

A

*begin in pelvis ind evelopment

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46
Q

What has little anastomosis?

A
  • segmental artery
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47
Q

Where is the bloodless zone?

A

*along lateral edge of the kidney

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48
Q

What is a simple renal cyst and how is it treated and detected?

A
  • 1 or a few swollen nephrons
  • needle aspirated (if pushing on something)
  • ultrasound
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49
Q

What does the suprarenal gland not have?

A

*hilum

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50
Q

What does the suprarenal gland do?

A

*produce hormones

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51
Q

What do the hormones for the suprarenal gland do?

A

*regulate salt balance, glucose, androgens (esp during development)

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52
Q

What is the cortex and medulla derived from?

A
  • C: mesoderm

* M: neural crest cells

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53
Q

Where does the medulla get sympathetic input from?

A

*T5-L1

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54
Q

What does the Medulla secrete?

A

*epinephrine and norepinephrine

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55
Q

What is a pheochromocytoma tumor and what are the signs and treatment and ways to detect it?

A
  • adrenal constantly release EPI and norepinephrine
  • rapid heart rate, forceful heart beat, high BP, shaking, tremor, sweating
  • urine/blood test, imaging
  • remove suprarenal gland
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56
Q

What can a high BP put you at risk for?

A

*heart attack, stroke, kidney failure

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57
Q

Where does the adrenal medulla pathway synapse?

A
  • in adrenal medulla (with Chromaffin)

* has no post ganglionic fibers

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58
Q

What is chromaffin derived from and dump out?

A
  • neural crest cell

* dump EPI and NPE in blood stream

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59
Q

Where is the superior and posterior mediastinum found?

A
  • S: vertebrae T4 and T5

* P: T5-T12

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60
Q

What is in the venous angle?

A

*internal jugular and subclavian vein

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61
Q

Where are the greater/lesser/least splanchnic nerves found?

A

*G: T5-T10
Less: T10-T11
L: T10-T12

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62
Q

What do the greater/lesser/least splanchnic nerves supply input to?

A

*symp input to foregut and midgut

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63
Q

What dumps into azygous on the R side?

A

*posterior intercostal art

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64
Q

What delivers O2 arterial blood to lung tissues?

A

*bronchial artery

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65
Q

What do you have in embryo?

A

*2 aortas and 2 vena cavas

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66
Q

What predominates on the R and L side during embryo?

A
  • vena cave predominates on R

* aorta predominates on L

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67
Q

What does the azygous vein supply blood to?

A

*superior Vena Cava

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68
Q

What happens in persistent L Vena Cava?

A

*connect common iliac to Renal on L side

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69
Q

What does the thoracic duct do?

A

*conveys most lymph of the body to the venous system

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70
Q

What kind of input is the Vagus nerve and what does it innervate?

A
  • parasymp input

* abdominal structures

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71
Q

What is in the aortic arch?

A

*brachiocephalic trunk, L common carotid art, and L subclavian art

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72
Q

What is coarctation of aorta with collateral circulation and where does it typically occur?

A
  • narrowing that causes obstruction to blood flow to inf part of body
  • distal to ductus art and L subclavian art
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73
Q

What are the signs and treatment of coarctation of aorta with collateral circulation?

A
  • babies: sweating during suckling, cyanosis
  • adults: bruit, enlarged L side of heart
  • balloon catherization, resection and anastomosis
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74
Q

What is Bruit and what can it lead to?

A
  • swishing sound

* congestive heart failure

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75
Q

What are the causes of treatment of coarctation of aorta with collateral circulation?

A
  • duct art tissue eptoptic

* not enough blood delivered during development

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76
Q

What is the origins of the Recurrent laryngeal nerve and what does it do?

A
  • O: vagus nerve

* intrinsic muscle of larynx

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77
Q

What is the pharyngeal arch derived from and how many are there?

A
  • 6

* derived from arch of eardrum, mandible

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78
Q

What happens to the 5th aortic arch?

A

*never develops

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79
Q

What is the Subclavian art derv from?

A

*4th arch

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80
Q

What happens to the 6th on the L side become part of?

A

*pulm artery and ductus arter

81
Q

What happens to the 6th arch on the R side become?

A
  • disappears

* causes R recurrent larynx. to hook around subclavian art

82
Q

What closes off the obturator foramen?

A

*muscle and deep fascia

83
Q

What separates the greater foramen from the lesser foramen?

A

*sacrospinous ligament

84
Q

What structures pass through the greater sciatic foramen?

A
  • superior/ inferior gluteal artery
  • piriformis
  • sciatic nerve
85
Q

What does piriformis do?

A

*lateral rotator of femur

86
Q

What does the pudendal nerve do?

A
  • inn soft tissue

* leaves pelvis and goes in perineum

87
Q

What structures pass through the lesser sciatic foramen?

A
  • internal pudendal artery
  • pudendal nerve
  • obturator internus muscle
88
Q

What is the pelvic inlet also called?

A

*pelvic brim

89
Q

What is the conflict of the pelvic outlet?

A

*baby head has to fit through here

90
Q

What do bipedal humans have to have?

A

*narrow pelvis

91
Q

What is altricial?

A

*born immature

92
Q

What are the boundaries of the pelvic outlet?

A

*inferior part of pubic symp, ischioppubic ramus, ischiotuberosity, sacrotuberous lig, inf tip of coccyx

93
Q

What is the pelvic diaphragm?

A
  • musculofascia sling (support for pelvic viscera)

* boundary between pelvis and perineum

94
Q

What are the functions of the pelvic diaphragm?

A

*support pelvic viscera, maintain voluntary fecal content, guide baby head out

95
Q

What is all the soft stuff beneath pelvis and between the thigh called?

A

*perineum

96
Q

What are the muscles of the pelvic diaphragm?

A
*coccygeus
Levator ani (iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, puborectalis)
97
Q

What is the obturator artery a branch of?

A

*internal iliac artery

98
Q

What is the external anal sphincter?

A

*voluntary

99
Q

What is the internal anal sphincter made of?

A
  • inner circular layer

* involuntary sphincter

100
Q

What does the internal sphincter respond to?

A

*pressure by opening

101
Q

What is the pectinate lilne?

A

*anal columns with anal sinus

102
Q

What is inferior and superior to the pectinate line?

A
  • I: somatic innervation

* S: visceral innervation

103
Q

What is the spot of the clocal membrane in embryo?

A

*pectinate line

104
Q

Which hemorrhoids are painful?

A

*external

105
Q

What is internal hemorrhoid associated with?

A

*age, lining of GI track weaken (can’t hold veins in place)

106
Q

What wraps around the anal canal and you kink it to control the anal sphincter?

A

*puborectalis

107
Q

What is the urinary bladder covered with?

A

*perineum

108
Q

What is the wall of the bladder made up of?

A

*detrusor muscle

109
Q

Where does the trigone develop from?

A

*distal part of ureter in embryo

110
Q

What prevents urine from going back up?

A

*ureteric orifices

111
Q

What does the neck of the detrusor muscle function as?

A

*an internal urethral sphincter

112
Q

What is the function of the internal urethra sphincter in men and women?

A
  • F: argue if still there

* M: contracts during orgasm, prevents semen from going into bladder

113
Q

What holds the ovarian artery and vain in place?

A

*suspensory ligament of ovary

114
Q

What do the ovaries do?

A

*produce hormones that regulate uterine cycle and early pregnancy

115
Q

Where does fertilization happen?

A

*distal part of uterine tube

116
Q

What is an eptopic pregnancy and what is it due to?

A

*can occur in uterine tube, due to scar from STI (chlamydia, gonorrhea)

117
Q

What are the signs of chlamydia and detection and treatment?

A
  • 20% no symptoms
  • pain in lower abdomen, heavy mens bleeding, foul smelling vaginal discharge, fever, painful urination/sexual intercourse
  • sample of fluid near cervix
  • antibiotics
118
Q

What is in the lumen of the uterine tube?

A

*ciliated epithelium, secretory cells

119
Q

What do the ciliated epithelium and secretory cells do?

A
  • C: propel egg toward uterus

* S: provide nutrition to egg and sperm

120
Q

What is the function of the uterus?

A
  • smooth involuntary

* development of fetus, expel fetus

121
Q

How long is the urethra in women?

A

*2.5-4 cm long

122
Q

Where does the embryo implant?

A

*myometrium

123
Q

What is the endometrium?

A

*lining of lumen, shed every month

124
Q

What is scraped during a pap smear and prone to cervical cancer?

A

*external os

125
Q

Why does more menstrual cycles make you more likely to get cervical cancer?

A

*inverts ever month into acidic environment, causes inflammation

126
Q

What is the Prostate?

A

*fibromuscular gland (has CT and smooth muscle)

increase in size over age (makes more tissue)

127
Q

What is BPH (benign prostate hyperplasis), signs/treatment?

A
  • close off urethra, cant drain bladder
  • frequent urination, sudden urge to urinate
  • drugs to relax muscle, transurethral resection of prostate
128
Q

What adds the nutrient part to sperm during ejaculation?

A

*seminal and prostate gland

129
Q

What is the ductus deferens?

A

*muscular tube (smooth muscle, moves ejaculate)

130
Q

Where is sperm produced and stored?

A
  • S: epididymis

* P: testis

131
Q

What adds the lubricating part of ejaculate?

A

*bulbourethral gland

132
Q

What turns 90 degrees and you can puncture while inserting the catheter?

A

*spongy urethra

133
Q

What does the spongy urethra contain?

A

*urethral glands in wall (omit lubricating fluid)

134
Q

What kind of fibers are in the superior hypogastric plexus?

A

*symp fibers, has both pre and postganglion fibers

135
Q

What does the erectile tissue have?

A

*symp and parasymp innervation

136
Q

What do the pelvic splanchnic nerves innervate, and what kind of innervation?

A

*erectile tissue (parasymp)

137
Q

what kind of fibers does the inferior hypogastric plexus have?

A

*symp and parasymp

138
Q

What inn the pudendal nerve?

A

*anti rami S2-S4, motor and sen functions

139
Q

Where do the motor and sensory functions of the pudendal nerve go?

A
  • M: inn pelvic diaphragm

* S: perineum and external genital

140
Q

What does the phallus become?

A

*penis or clit

141
Q

What can an undescended testis lead to?

A

*infertilization and cancer

142
Q

What is the remnant of vaginal process?

A

*tunica vaginalis

143
Q

What is the remnant of the gubernaculum?

A

*ligament of ovary, round ligament of uterus , scrotal ligament

144
Q

Where is an indirect (congenital) inguinal hernia found and where is the pulse felt?

A
  • lateral to inferior epigastric vessels

* pulse felt deep over inguinal ring

145
Q

Where is a direct (acquired) inguinal hernia found and where is the pulse felt?

A
  • medial to inferior epigastric vessels

* more superficial

146
Q

Who gets more femoral hernias?

A

*females

147
Q

What muscles help with erection?

A
  • ischiocavernosus

* bulbospongiosus

148
Q

What is in the bulb?

A

*corpus spongiosum

149
Q

What is the perineal body and what can happen there?

A
  • fibromuscular
  • can tear during child birth
  • lead to prolapsed uterus, bladder
150
Q

What is an episiotomy and what can it lead to?

A
  • enlargement of birth canal by cutting muscle

* weakness

151
Q

What passes obliquely through the tunica albuginea?

A

*veins that when squeezed become erect

152
Q

What is a tumescence?

A

*erection

153
Q

What happens during the parasympathetic input of an erection?

A
  • arousal/tumescence phase

* causes smooth muscle of helicine arteries to relax and blood flows in

154
Q

What happens during the sympathetic inputs of an erection?

A
  • ejaculation/ orgasm phase

* vasocontrict, detumescence (blood flows out)

155
Q

What does the anterior compartment of the arm do?

A

*arm extension and forearm flexion

156
Q

What does the biceps brachii do?

A

*supination

157
Q

What does the brachialis do?

A
  • main forearm flexor

* inn by musculocutaneous nerve

158
Q

What does the coracobrachialis do?

A
  • arm adductor

* weak arm extensor

159
Q

What does the forearm do?

A

*flexion, extension, abduction, adduction of wrist

160
Q

How many muscles are in your forearm?

A

*19

161
Q

What does the flexor carpi radialis do?

A

*flex wrist/wrist abduction

162
Q

What does the palmaris longus do?

A

*tenses palmar aponeurosis

163
Q

What do 2-60% or people not have?

A

*palmaris longus

164
Q

What does the flexor carpi ulnaris do?

A

*adduct wrist

165
Q

What does the first layer of the forearm do and what does it attach to?

A
  • pronators and flexor

* attach to medial epicondyle (common flexor tendon)

166
Q

What is the distal attachment for the flexor digitorum superficialis and what does it do?

A
  • middle phalanges

* flexes metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalanges

167
Q

What is the distal attachment for the flexor digitorum profundus and what does it do?

A
  • distal phalanges

* flexes metacarpophalangeal and proximal/distal interphalanges

168
Q

What does the flexor pollicis longus do?

A

*flexes thumb

169
Q

What does the pronator quadratus do?

A
  • primary pronator

* fibers going 90 degrees

170
Q

What innervates the anterior forearm?

A

*median nerve

171
Q

What does the ulnar nerve innervate?

A

*medial half of flexor digitorum profundus and ulnaris

172
Q

What innervates the Thenar muscle?

A

*median nerve

173
Q

What can cause an injury at the median nerve?

A

*cubital fossa, supracondylar fracture

174
Q

What are the symptoms of a median nerve injury?

A
  • thenar wasting (ape hand)
  • diminished opposability
  • lose of pronation
  • numb/tingling in lateral 3.5 digits
175
Q

What causes injury to the ulnar nerve?

A

*fracture of medial epicondyle

176
Q

What are the signs of ulnar nerve injury?

A
  • wasting of hypothenar (claw hand)
  • digits 3,4,5 hyperextension at metacarp joints, flexed at proximal/ distal interph. joint
  • middle digit has sensory deficit
  • lose function in adduction/abduction of digits
177
Q

What does the posterior compartment of the forearm do, what is it innervated by and what are its origins?

A
  • extend wrist and digits, abduction/extension of thumb, supination
  • origins of common extensor tendon (on lateral epicondyle)
  • all inn by radial nerve
178
Q

What is the extensor digiti minimi attached to?

A

*5th digit

179
Q

What is the extensor carpi radialis longus attached to?

A

*2nd metacarp

180
Q

What is the extensor carpi radialis brevis attached to?

A

*3rd metacarpal (more deep)

181
Q

What can cause damage to the radial nerve and what are the signs?

A
  • broken humerus
  • wrist drop (can’t extend wrist)
  • if at proximal wrist (diff extending elbow)
182
Q

What is a reflex?

A

*rapid involuntary response to a stimulus

183
Q

What is clonus?

A
  • most hyperactive a reflex can be

* reflex keeps working indefinitely

184
Q

What does a hypoactive and hyperactive reflex indicate?

A
  • O: peripheral problem

* E: Central problem

185
Q

What does a Golgi tendon detect?

A

*tension of tendon

186
Q

What does a muscle spindle detect?

A

*movement of muscle fibers

187
Q

How can a legion be determined?

A

*by reflexes in CNS and PNS (can find location)

188
Q

What kind of reflexes are there?

A

*deep tendon, cranial nerve, cutaneous stimulation

189
Q

How do you score reflexes?

A

*0-absent, 1-hypoactive, 2-normal, 3-hyperactive without clonus, 4- hyperactive with clonus

190
Q

What is a doctor looking for when they are checking your reflex?

A

*symmetry

191
Q

What spinal segments are affected in a quadriceps, triceps, biceps, calcaneal, and plantar reflex?

A

*Q: L3,4
*C:S1
*P: L5,S1
*T: C6,7
B:C5,6

192
Q

What are the normal response to a plantar reflex check?

A
  • babies: spread toes apart

* adults: curl toes

193
Q

What is a Babinski sign and what does it indicate?

A
  • CNS legion

* separate toes during plantar reflex test

194
Q

What is bifurcation of the brachial artery and how common is it?

A
  • divides at middle of arm

* 3%

195
Q

What can high bifurcation cause?

A
  • ulnar art run superficial (mistaken as vein)

* chemical drug can accidently be put into it

196
Q

What is a chemical endartitis?

A
  • put drugs in brachial artery

* damage art, inflammation of capillary distal to site of injection (causes blood clott, circulation shut down)

197
Q

What runs on superficial side of serratus anterior?

A

*long thoracic nerve

198
Q

How can the long thoracic nerve get injured?

A

*stabbing injury

199
Q

What does a damage to the long thoracic nerve cause?

A
  • winged scapula

* can’t hold scapula against rib cage, pops out