EXAM 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which state of glycogen phosphorylase gives the enzyme its highest activity?

A

phosphorylated glycogen phosphorylase

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2
Q

What best describes the ribbon structure of pepsin?

A

The major secondary structures are beta sheets, and there is no quaternary structure.

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3
Q

The catalytic activity and/or conformational stability of this protein is likely dependent upon ____________ of peripheral amino acid side chains.

A

protonation

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4
Q

The peripheral amino acid side chains are expected to have a ______________ value.

A

low pKa

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5
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the biochemistry of the amino acids at the termini of pepsin?

A

two nonpolar amino acids at the N-terminus and one polar amino acid at the C-terminus

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6
Q

What is a characteristic of a competitive inhibitor?

A

Does not affect the vmax of the reaction

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7
Q

What does a competitive inhibitor bind to?

A

the active site of an enzyme

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8
Q

Higher concentrations of substrate can reduce the effect of which type of inhibitor?

A

competitive inhibitor

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9
Q

What remains the same in the y-axis intercept of the Lineweaver-Burk plot with a competitive inhibitor?

A

remains the same with or without this inhibitor

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10
Q

What is the effect of an uncompetitive inhibitor?

A

decreases both the vmax and the Km

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11
Q

What does a mixed inhibitor do?

A

Can bind to the free enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex

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12
Q

What is the function of kinase enzymes?

A

phosphorylate other proteins and enzymes

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13
Q

Which amino acid is not targeted for phosphorylation by kinases?

A

leucine

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14
Q

Which enzyme activates a zymogen?

A

Enterokinase

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15
Q

What does PKA phosphorylation modify in GPCR?

A

leads to arrestin binding to the receptor for endosomal transport

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16
Q

What are the signaling mechanisms for sweet and salty tastes?

A

Sodium ions directly enter the cells; sweet utilizes the GPCR signaling pathway

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17
Q

What type of receptor system is the agonist signaling through if it increases protein kinase activity?

A

GPCR

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18
Q

Glucagon binding to the glucagon receptor inhibits which process?

A

Glycogen synthesis

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19
Q

What is a shared component of the signaling pathways for glucagon and epinephrine?

A

Adenylate cyclase activation

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20
Q

When ATCase is in the __________ state it indicates that ____________ is bound.

A

T; CTP

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21
Q

What kind of chemical catalysis is identified in a certain reaction?

A

Acid-Base catalysis

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22
Q

Which amino acid can act as X in the reaction?

A

TYR

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23
Q

What are characteristics of allosteric enzymes?

A
  • Often have a sigmoidal (S-shaped) curve of Vo versus [S]
  • Undergo conformational changes between the R and T state
  • Can have a regulatory subunit and catalytic subunit
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24
Q

What do GAPs and GEFs control in G proteins?

A
  • GAPs inhibit GPs by stimulating GTP hydrolysis
  • GEFs activate GPs by stimulating GDP-GTP exchange
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25
Q

What is the nature of sarin gas regarding acetylcholinesterase?

A

irreversible inhibitor

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26
Q

Which characteristics apply to allosteric enzymes?

A
  • Tend to have a sigmoidal (S-shaped) curve of V0 vs. [S]
  • Interconvert between a more active form and less active form
  • May have binding sites for regulatory molecules that are separate from active sites
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27
Q

What happens when protein kinase A is activated in a liver cell in response to glucagon?

A

Glycogen degradation will be turned on

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28
Q

What is the correct order of steps for inhibition of glutamine synthetase by a metabolite allosteric effector?

A
  • Glutamine binding to uridylyltransferase
  • Deuridylation of glutamine synthetase adenylyltransferase
  • Adenylation of glutamine synthetase
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29
Q

What is the correct order of signal transduction pathway steps?

A
  • first messenger
  • receptor protein
  • upstream signaling protein
  • second messenger
  • downstream signaling protein
  • target proteins
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30
Q

Muscle relaxation in response to neuronal stimulation would be reduced if a(n) ______________ was present.

A

stimulator of cGMP phosphodiesterase

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31
Q

What can the GS-alpha subunit of trimeric G proteins do?

A

activate adenylyl cyclase

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32
Q

What is cross talk in signaling pathways?

A

One signaling pathway can activate a different receptor’s signaling pathway

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33
Q

What does the loss of activation of ERK when PKA-I is added indicate?

A

the drug is activating via a GPCR

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34
Q

Which protein is the downstream signaling protein for the TRADD-associated complex in TNF signaling?

A

IKK

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35
Q

What is the role of TRAF2 in TNF receptor signaling?

A

recruits and activates NIK to the TNF receptor complex

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36
Q

What is likely to explain the results of retinoblastoma cases in a family?

A

The requirement for both genes to mutate indicates a loss-of-function tumor suppressor gene mutation

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37
Q

When protein kinase A (PKA) is inactive, what is true?

A

the intrinsic pseudosubstrate peptide is bound to the active site

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38
Q

What is the most likely cause of resistance to cell death by TNF-alpha in breast cancer cells?

A

loss or mutational inactivation of caspase 8

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39
Q

What is the correct order for receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) signaling?

A
  • ligand binding
  • receptor dimerization
  • kinase activation
  • phosphorylation of RTK cytoplasmic tails
  • protein binding to RTK phosphotyrosines
  • activation of downstream signaling pathways
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40
Q

Why are Ras mutations prevalent in certain types of cancers?

A

Because a dominant mutation in Ras requires only one mutation to be a gain of function oncogene activation

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41
Q

What occurs after activation of the PI-3K pathway by insulin signaling?

A

Glucose uptake rates increase and lower blood glucose levels

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42
Q

What is likely to bind to a protein containing a pleckstrin homology domain?

A

PIP3

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43
Q

Which protein prevents glucocorticoid receptors from binding to glucocorticoid response elements (GREs)?

A

Hsp90

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44
Q

How does long-term activation by nuclear receptors differ from membrane receptor signaling?

A

Long-term activation occurs by nuclear receptors activating sets of genes

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45
Q

Which ligand is most likely to bind the receptor shown in B?

A

Vitamin D

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46
Q

Which enzyme’s activity is controlled by glucose-6-P and fructose-6-P levels?

A

Phosphoglucoisomerase

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47
Q

Which parameter does not govern the cell-specific physiological responses controlled by nuclear receptors?

A

Organism-wide expression of coregulatory proteins

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48
Q

If GRB2 were truncated so that the N-terminal domain was missing, the truncated protein would be

A
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49
Q

Which enzyme’s activity is controlled by the levels of glucose-6-P and fructose-6-P in the cell?

A

Phosphoglucoisomerase

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50
Q

Which of the following is not a parameter that governs the cell-specific physiological responses controlled by nuclear receptors?

A

Organism-wide expression of coregulatory proteins

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51
Q

If GRB2 were truncated so that the N-terminal domain was missing, what would it be unable to bind?

A

none of these answers are correct

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52
Q

What is the function of growth factor receptor-bound 2 (GRB2) protein in RTK signaling?

A

It is an adaptor protein that binds to phosphotyrosine residues in RTKs and also binds to GEF proteins.

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53
Q

Choose THREE reasons why caspases function as ‘executioners’ in the cell death pathway.

A
  • Caspases have preferred substrate recognition sites for cleavage
  • Caspases must be activated by proteolytic cleavage to convert the inactive zymogen to the active form
  • Caspases are enzymes that function catalytically
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54
Q

The subunit of trimeric G proteins can function to:

A

activate adenylate cyclase

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55
Q

If a technique isolated EGFR1 and EGFR2 at discrete steps along their activation pathway, what would be isolated?

A

A dimer in which EGFR2 contains phosphotyrosines but EGFR1 does not.

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56
Q

Caspase 3 is responsible for:

A

degrading key regulatory molecules.

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57
Q

Place the following steps in proper order: ligand binding, receptor dimerization, and kinase activation, phosphorylation of RTK cytoplasmic tails, protein binding to RTK phosphotyrosines and phosphorylation of target proteins, activation of downstream signaling pathways.

A
  1. ligand binding, receptor dimerization, and kinase activation
  2. phosphorylation of RTK cytoplasmic tails
  3. protein binding to RTK phosphotyrosines and phosphorylation of target proteins
  4. activation of downstream signaling pathways
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58
Q

Which of the following captures the sequence of biochemical events by which GPCRs link extracellular information with intracellular changes?

A

Extracellular ligand binding to GPCR: causes a conformational change that leads G± to release GDP and bind GTP; GTP-bound G± releases G²³; and instead binds to downstream signaling molecules.

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59
Q

What is the shared intermediate in the following series of reactions?

A

fructose-6-P

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60
Q

If a mutation occurred in SODD that prohibited its interaction with the DD of TNF receptor, what would happen?

A

The TNF receptor would bind TRADD, even in the absence of TNF-a.

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61
Q

What is a distinguishing characteristic specific to all G-protein-coupled receptors?

A

contain seven transmembrane helices.

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62
Q

Why are shared intermediates used effectively in coupled reactions?

A

limit product diffusion and allow intermediates to channel from one enzyme to the next.

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63
Q

Which protein in the insulin receptor signaling pathway is capable of autophosphorylation?

A

insulin receptor (IR)

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64
Q

Which protein is part of the TNF receptor-activated programmed cell death signaling pathway?

A

FADD

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65
Q

Which statement is true of procaspase 8?

A

It is activated by auto-cleavage.

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66
Q

What is the most likely explanation for why only one of two cell types activated gene expression characteristic of the steroid signaling pathway?

A

Only one of the cell types expresses the cognate steroid receptor.

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67
Q

Which human disease states are treated by glucocorticoids based on their anti-inflammatory response? Choose the three most common.

A
  • asthma
  • dermatitis
  • arthritis
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68
Q

Flux is defined as the rate at which __________ is/are interconverted.

A

metabolites

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69
Q

Metabolism is best defined as a collection of:

A

biochemical reactions that convert chemical energy into work.

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70
Q

Which end is responsible for a positive result in Benedict’s test?

A

B

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71
Q

Identify the correct structure of L-arabinose.

72
Q

Determine the secondary structure(s) exhibited in this polypeptide.

A

both alpha helices and beta sheets

73
Q

What is the immediate impact on aldolase if phosphofructokinase experiences a mutation that interferes with substrate binding?

74
Q

In which situation is glycolysis alone likely to be a major contributor to ATP generation?

A

In erythrocytes

75
Q

What is the coupled ΔG°’ of the last reaction in glycolysis?

A

-31.4 kJ/mol

76
Q

How does coupling phosphoenolpyruvate hydrolysis with ATP synthesis change the relationship between Q and Keq?

A

Q < Keq for both reactions; Q/Keq uncoupled < Q/Keq coupled

77
Q

What can be said about the directionality of the reaction A B if ΔG’ is negative?

A

strongly favored in the forward direction

78
Q

How can an unfavorable reaction (ΔG°’ > 0) still occur in a metabolic pathway?

A

link it to a favorable reaction

79
Q

What is the structural difference between glucose and fructose?

A

Fructose is a five-membered ring and glucose is a six-membered ring.

80
Q

Name the following disaccharide using the common name and descriptive nomenclature.

A

Lactose; Gal(Beta 1 -> 4)Glc

81
Q

Which of the following can enter glycolysis without additional reactions?

A

Both products from maltose after maltase treatment

82
Q

What would be the expected results if a physician tested lactate levels during exercise before and after administering glycerol?

A

Lactate levels would be low after intense exercise and would increase after glycerol was administered if the patient has a deficiency in muscle phosphofructokinase-1.

83
Q

Will ingesting additional glucose gel improve athletic performance?

84
Q

Label the effect of high ATP, ADP, or fructose-2,6-bisphosphate on phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) activity.

A
  • Yellow (top): fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
  • Green (middle): ADP
  • Red (bottom): ATP
85
Q

What best describes the effect of ADP on the activity of PFK-1?

A

High concentrations of ADP block the inhibitory effect of ATP by competing for the same allosteric site on PFK-1.

86
Q

What metabolite will be elevated in cancer cells as compared to noncancerous cells even under normal oxygen saturation?

87
Q

In which glycolytic pathway reaction is ATP phosphoryl transfer energy required?

A

glucose -> glucose-6-phosphate

88
Q

Which two compounds are used to produce ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis?

A
  • phosphoenolpyruvate
  • 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
89
Q

A __________ inhibitor is a type of irreversible inhibitor.

90
Q

Which of the following is not a biochemical process affecting the bioavailability of enzymes?

A

binding of a competitive inhibitor

91
Q

Which amino acid is NOT a target for kinases?

92
Q

What is true regarding the roles of adenylylation and uridylylation in the control of glutamine synthetase?

A

High levels of ATP and α-ketoglutarate result in more deadenylylated glutamine synthetase.

93
Q

The Lineweaver-Burk plot shown below is for a(n) __________ inhibitor.

A

competitive

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary mechanism for affecting catalytic efficiency?

A

D. Cellular compartmentalization

95
Q

Which of the following activates a zymogen?

A

D. Enterokinase

96
Q

Which of the following is not a primary mechanism used to regulate the catalytic efficiency of enzymes?

A

B. RNA synthesis

97
Q

Which of the following statements are true about saquinavir and indinavir?

A
  • Saquinavir and indinavir both have a component that mimics the natural Phe-Pro dipeptide substrate of aspartate protease.
  • Very high local concentrations of proteins with Phe-Pro or Tyr-Pro peptide bonds would reduce the effectiveness of saquinavir and indinavir in limiting HIV’s infectivity of new cells.
  • The removal of the phenyl ring on indinavir and saquinavir would likely affect their inhibitory activity.
98
Q

Which mutation would most impact PKA, leading to a constitutively active enzyme?

A

a mutation in the catalytic subunit where the kinase can still bind its target but no longer binds the regulatory subunit.

99
Q

How do epinephrine and glucagon lead to PKA activation?

A

Both receptors bind and activate the same G± subunit, Gs±.

100
Q

What kind of signaling system is lysophosphatidic acid (LPA)?

101
Q

What best describes the structural changes that occur in a G alpha subunit due to guanine nucleotide binding?

A

Dissociation of GDP for GTP with the G alpha subunit structurally shifts the switch II helix region.

102
Q

What is true concerning the role of cGMP in vasodilation?

A

cGMP is a secondary messenger that acts on protein kinase G.

103
Q

Which first messenger is unique because it is not water soluble?

104
Q

What causes the structural shift in the switch II helix region of the G alpha subunit?

A

Dissociation of GDP for GTP

105
Q

What is the role of cGMP in vasodilation?

A

cGMP is a secondary messenger that acts on protein kinase G

106
Q

Which first messenger is unique for not being water soluble and not binding directly to a membrane receptor?

107
Q

What molecule is responsible for protein kinase A activation?

108
Q

What is the most likely impact of caffeine on cell signaling?

A

Leads to vasoconstriction and raises epinephrine levels

109
Q

How are G protein-coupled receptors desensitized?

A

Phosphorylation by G protein-coupled receptor kinases (GRKs)

110
Q

What is cross talk in signaling pathways?

A

When one signaling pathway activates a different receptor’s signaling pathway

111
Q

What does the loss of activation of ERK when PKA-I is added indicate?

A

The drug activates via a GPCR

112
Q

What is phosphorylated before EGFR1 when epidermal growth factor binds its receptor?

A

The cytoplasmic tail of EGFR2

113
Q

What is the most likely cause of resistance to cell death by TNF-alpha in breast cancer cells?

A

Loss or mutational inactivation of caspase 8

114
Q

What is the relationship between mutated Ras and cancer?

A

Mutated Ras is an oncogene

115
Q

What event allows the ²subunit of the insulin receptor to bind to an insulin receptor substrate (IRS)?

A

Insulin binding induces conformational changes enabling autophosphorylation

116
Q

Which enzyme terminates the activity of membrane-bound PIP3?

A

Phosphatase and tensin homolog, PTEN

117
Q

What type of receptor does insulin bind to?

A

A unique class of receptors with a tyrosine kinase intracellular domain

118
Q

How does the insulin receptor become activated?

A

Tyrosines must be phosphorylated to recruit intracellular signaling partners

119
Q

How do mutations in the human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 gene lead to breast cancer?

A

Mutations cause constitutive activation of downstream signaling

120
Q

What might cause apoptosis in mammalian brain cells when cultured without FBS?

A

Withdrawal of a positive growth signal

121
Q

Why would a mutation of tyrosine to glutamate in a growth factor receptor lead to increased tumor formation?

A

It mimics the phosphorylated state, leaving the receptor constitutively active

122
Q

What step of insulin-initiated signaling is indicated by autophosphorylation of tyrosine?

123
Q

What is the net reaction when coupling Reaction 1 (A + B → C) and Reaction 2 (C → D)?

A

A + B → D

124
Q

What is the value of ΔG for the net reaction of A + B → D?

A

-6.7 kJ/mol

125
Q

What is the relationship between Q and K for spontaneous reactions A’B and C’D?

A

Q < K for both reactions

126
Q

Which reaction requires coupling to ATP to be spontaneous under cellular conditions?

A

Reaction 2 (Q → R)

127
Q

How does Rosiglitazone enhance insulin effects?

A

It binds to a nuclear receptor, activating transcriptional regulatory function

128
Q

What happens when more A is added to a metabolic pathway operating within a cell?

A

It will increase the amount of B and C in the system

129
Q

Under what condition would adding more A not increase the flux of the pathway from A to E?

A

An allosteric inhibitor of the enzyme that catalyzes C → D is present

130
Q

What is least likely to affect the metabolic flux of a pathway?

A

Steady-state substrate concentrations

131
Q

What secondary structure is exhibited in a selected polypeptide?

A

Not specified in provided content

132
Q

How does oxygen saturation of hemoglobin compare in individuals with bisphosphoglycerate mutase deficiency?

A

Increased compared to normal individuals

133
Q

Erythrocytes deficient in pyruvate and bisphosphoglycerate mutase would have levels of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate similar to what?

A

Unaffected erythrocytes

134
Q

Why is a hydrophobic environment necessary for phosphoglycerate kinase activity?

A

To prevent hydrolysis of 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

135
Q

What is true about glucose and fructose?

A
  • Both are hexose sugars
  • Glucose found in common disaccharides, fructose in only one
  • Glucose can form furanose and pyranose, fructose only furanose
136
Q

Which relationship is correctly defined?

A

D-Ribose and D-Xylose are epimers

137
Q

What is necessary for optimal activity of phosphoglycerate kinase?

A

A hydrophobic environment

138
Q

Why is the oxidation/reduction reaction necessary in glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase?

A

To form an intermediate with a large free energy of hydrolysis

139
Q

How does hexokinase deficiency affect oxygen transport?

A

Reduces 2,3-BPG levels leading to higher oxygen affinity

140
Q

Why can’t glucose phosphorylation occur without ATP investment?

A

One or both substrates would exceed solvent capacity

141
Q

Can the reverse reaction of glucose phosphorylation be used for substrate-level phosphorylation?

142
Q

(A) What is ΔG’ for phosphorylation of glucose without ATP? (B) What is ΔG’ when coupled with ATP hydrolysis?

A

13.8 kJ/mol
-16.7 kJ/mol

143
Q

What does the phosphorylation of glucose tell about Q and Keq?

A

Without ATP, Q > Keq; with ATP, Q < Keq

144
Q

What is the IUPAC name of the nonnutritive sweetener sucralose?

A

1,6-dicholoro-1,6-dideoxy-²-D-fructofuranosyl-4-chloro-4-deoxy-±–D-galactopyranoside

145
Q

What is the IUPAC name of the molecule discussed?

A

1,6-dicholoro-1,6-dideoxy-²-D-fructofuranosyl-4-chloro-4-deoxy-±–D-galactopyranoside

146
Q

What are the hydrolysis products of sucralose?

A
  • 1,6-dichloro-1,6-dideoxyfructose
  • 4-chloro-4-deoxygalactose
147
Q

Is 1,6-dichloro-1,6-dideoxyfructose a reducing sugar?

148
Q

Is 4-chloro-4-deoxygalactose a reducing sugar?

149
Q

Which enzyme converts glucose to fructose in the production of HFCS?

A

Glucose isomerase

150
Q

Why is HFCS preferred over corn syrup for sweetening?

A

HFCS is sweeter than corn syrup

151
Q

A net yield of _______________ ATP would be produced from the conversion of three molecules of glucose into pyruvate.

152
Q

Which reactions depend only on substrate availability?

A
  • dihydroxyacetonephosphate ↔ glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
  • glucose-6-phosphate ↔ fructose-6-phosphate
153
Q

What can be concluded about irreversible reactions in glycolysis?

A
  • Enzyme activity can be increased or decreased
  • Enzymes are not shared in opposing pathways
  • They operate far from equilibrium
154
Q

What condition is caused by a deficiency in the lactase enzyme?

A

Lactose intolerance

155
Q

Why does lactase deficiency lead to lactose retention within the small intestine?

A

Lactose is a polar molecule and cannot cross the intestinal membrane without a transport protein

156
Q

Should Jamal try the lactase pill to see if it will work for his galactosemia?

157
Q

What is the balanced reaction for the catabolism of glucose to lactate?

A

Glucose + 2 ADP + 2 Pi → 2 Lactate + 2 ATP + 2 H2O

158
Q

Which allosteric regulator is responsible for curve C in PFK-1 activity?

159
Q

Which enzyme acts as the rate-limiting step to regulate entry of products from dietary disaccharides into glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase-1

160
Q

What condition do individuals with a deficiency in the aldolase B enzyme have?

A

Hereditary fructose intolerance

161
Q

How does glucokinase affect blood glucose levels in individuals with aldolase B deficiency?

A

Blood glucose levels would be lower than normal

162
Q

Why is it critical that glucokinase has a low affinity for glucose?

A

It regulates insulin release from the pancreas

163
Q

List three regulatory mechanisms in the glycolytic pathway.

A
  • Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is an allosteric activator of pyruvate kinase
  • Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1
  • ATP is an allosteric inhibitor of phosphofructokinase-1
164
Q

Why is fructose toxic to liver cells in individuals with aldolase B deficiency?

A

Liver cells use ATP to convert fructose to fructose-1P, which cannot be further metabolized

165
Q

What advantage does phosphoglycerate kinase having an open and closed configuration provide?

A

Maximizes accessibility of active site without sacrificing hydrophobic environment

166
Q

Calculate the actual free energy change (deltaG) for a reaction with deltaGº’ of +5.5 kJ/mol and Q of 0.001.

A

-12.3 kJ/mol

167
Q

What best defines substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

Direct transfer of a Pi to an ADP

168
Q

(a) Why is it critical for maintaining flux that NADH be oxidized to NAD+, and (b) how is this done under anaerobic conditions?

A

(a) NAD+ is required for the glyceraldehyde-3P dehydrogenase reaction; (b) by converting pyruvate to lactate

169
Q

What is the linkage between the two monosaccharide units and is this a reducing sugar?

A

alpha1->beta2, nonreducing

170
Q

List the conditions that stimulate liver PFK-1 activity.

A
  • Increased fructose-2,6-bisphosphate levels
  • Shift toward increased amounts of R state structure
  • AMP bound to allosteric site and ATP bound to catalytic site
  • Low energy charge in the cell
  • Increased levels of ADP and AMP
171
Q

What reaction in glycolysis is a redox reaction?

A

glyceraldehyde-3-P → 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

172
Q

What is the correct order of the glycolytic reactions listed?

A
    1. Phosphorylation reaction generating a hexose sugar
    1. An isomerization reaction converting an aldose sugar into a ketose sugar
    1. Phosphorylation reaction converting a hexose monophosphate into a hexose bisphosphate
    1. Cleavage reaction converting a diphosphate sugar into two monophosphate metabolites
    1. A redox reaction utilizing inorganic phosphate and a coenzyme
    1. A substrate level phosphorylation reaction generating ATP
    1. A dehydration reaction generating a high energy phosphorylated compound
    1. Substrate level phosphorylation reaction generating net ATP
173
Q

How does phosphoglycerate kinase make glycolysis energy neutral at this step?

A

It produces 2 ATP along with 3-phosphoglycerate

174
Q

Are glucose and galactose epimers of each other?

175
Q

List three ways in which flux is controlled through glycolysis.

A
  • Regulation of glucokinase
  • PFK-1
  • Supply and demand of intermediates
176
Q

An infant with galactosemia is unable to convert:

A

galactose-1-P to glucose-1-P

177
Q

What is required for the reaction of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate cleaved by aldolase to proceed?

A

Formation of Schiff base intermediate