EXAM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are fatty acids described as?

A

Amphipathic

This means that within the molecular structure, one end is polar and the other is non-polar.

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2
Q

Which gene sequences are termed orthologs?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate gene sequences from a human and a chimpanzee

These sequences are highly conserved.

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3
Q

When is a reaction always spontaneous?

A

The change in free energy, delta G, is negative.

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4
Q

What is a hydrogen bond acceptor?

A

An atom, ion, or molecule component of a hydrogen bond which does not supply the bridging hydrogen atom.

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5
Q

What are hydrogen bond donors bound to?

A

Hydrogen, specifically N or O atoms.

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6
Q

Which reaction is not spontaneous and could be driven by ATP hydrolysis?

A

Pyruvate + Pi <—-> phosphoenolpyruvate (+31.5 kJ/mol)

Also includes Glucose + Pi <—-> glucose 6 phosphate (+13.8 kJ/mol).

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7
Q

What differentiates the biochemical standard state from the standard state?

A

pH of 7.

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8
Q

How are changes in enthalpy (H) and entropy (S) related to changes in free energy (G)?

A

Delta G = Delta H - T delta S.

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9
Q

Which reaction is entropically favored?

A

ATP —> ADP + Pi.

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10
Q

What is true regarding coupled reactions?

A

The overall free energy of a coupled reaction is the difference of the free energies for the individual reactions.

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11
Q

Which biochemical reaction is endergonic?

A

Glutamate + NH4+ —> Glutamine; Delta G = +14.2 kJ/mol

Also includes L-Malate + NAD+ —> Oxaloacetate + NADH + H+; Delta G = +29.7 kJ/mol.

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12
Q

What is an example of decreasing entropy?

A

An anabolic pathway.

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13
Q

What is the energy charge (EC) for a cell with ATP = 0.5 mM, ADP = 12.2 mM, AMP = 80 µM?

A

0.52.

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14
Q

How would EC change in cells without the hyperactive adenylate kinase mutation?

A

The EC would increase.

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15
Q

What does the first law of thermodynamics state about pressure and volume?

A

Pressure and volume do not change.

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16
Q

How much does 100.0 mol of ATP weigh?

A

50.7 kg.

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17
Q

What is the maximum number of amino acids that six mRNA codons could encode?

A

6.

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18
Q

What problems arise from mutations in the gene encoding G6P dehydrogenase?

A

Nucleotide biosynthesis.

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19
Q

How can someone with G6P dehydrogenase deficiency mitigate symptoms?

A

Consume more five carbon containing foods.

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20
Q

What are the main components of the plasma membrane?

A

Phospholipids.

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21
Q

How many fatty acids do the main chemical components of the plasma membrane contain?

A

Two.

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22
Q

Which chemical contains completely oxidized carbon atoms?

A

Carbon dioxide.

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23
Q

What nucleotides are parts of interacting molecular structures?

A

C - G.

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24
Q

To break a base pair, ______ energy needs to be invested than is required to break a base pair that consists of two hydrogen bonds.

A

More.

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25
Q

An organism that grows at high temperatures is likely to have greater ______ content compared to A/T.

A

G/C.

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26
Q

What amino acid substitution is likely from the CF genetic mutation?

A

A positively charged amino acid is substituted by a non-polar amino acid.

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27
Q

What has become increasingly common for CF patients due to treatment advancements?

A

Gene therapy, lung transplant, inhaled antibiotics.

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28
Q

Why are fatty acids important for cell membrane formation?

A

They are amphipathic.

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29
Q

Which two primates are most related based on morphological phylogeny?

A

Chimp and gorilla.

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30
Q

Which two primates are most related based on molecular phylogeny?

A

Human and chimp.

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31
Q

Which type of phylogeny is more powerful for measuring genetic relatedness?

A

Molecular.

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32
Q

Genes that evolved from one another following duplication are called ______, and comparing them in humans and chimpanzees shows ______.

A

Paralogs; orthologs.

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33
Q

Which term includes both orthologous and paralogous?

A

Homologous.

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34
Q

Which functional group is NOT capable of multiple protonation states?

A

Methyl.

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35
Q

What changes first when the genetic expression pattern of a eukaryotic cell changes?

A

The transcriptome.

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36
Q

In terms of energy conservation, direct regulation of synthesis is more efficient for ______.

A

Transcriptome.

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37
Q

What areas were enhanced by the sequencing of the human genome?

A

All of these areas were enhanced.

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38
Q

What describes fatty acids’ amphipathic nature?

A

One end is polar and the other end is nonpolar.

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39
Q

Which enzymes are involved when yeast converts pyruvate into ethanol?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase, pyruvate decarboxylase.

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40
Q

An increase in acetaldehyde correlates with ______ production.

A

An increase in ethanol.

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41
Q

Which pairs are not standard DNA base pairs?

A

Adenine-guanine, cytosine-thymine, uracil-thymine.

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42
Q

Is there enough information to determine the type of strand for the polynucleotide 5’-AGGGCAACCGGCCGGAAACGACCAGACAAAAAAAAAAGC-3’?

A

Not enough information.

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43
Q

What base pairs with cytosine in DNA?

A

guanine

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44
Q

What is the expected base pairing for adenine?

A

thymine

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45
Q

What is the molecular formula for glucose?

A

C6H12O6

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46
Q

If the molecular formula of a carbohydrate is C6H12O6, then it is most likely considered to be a _______.

A

monosaccharide

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47
Q

Within a eukaryotic cell, the _________ is the organelle with highly invaginated membrane structures that sequester ribosomes for protein synthesis.

A

endoplasmic reticulum

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48
Q

What is the concentration of [OH-] in a solution of 0.025 M HCl?

A

4.0 × 10-13 M

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49
Q

The mobility of lipids in membranes is best described by _______.

A

fast lateral diffusion and slow transverse diffusion

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50
Q

Which of the following is an example of a weak acid?

A

Vinegar, CH3COOH

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51
Q

Which properties of water are true? (Select all that apply)

A
  • Water is polar and an excellent solvent because of its hydrogen-bonding properties.
  • Water is less dense as a solid than as a liquid.
  • Water is liquid over a wide range of temperatures.
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52
Q

What characteristic do molecules found in biological membranes have that allows for the maintenance of low entropy?

A

amphipathic

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53
Q

What common substance has molecular properties similar to the molecules found in biological membranes?

A

detergent

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54
Q

What response is observed in a person experiencing acidosis?

A
  • more CO2 exhaled (hyperventilation)
  • diminished HCO3- excretion
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55
Q

When a protein enzyme folds in an aqueous solution, which of the following is correct?

A

Non-polar amino acids are found in the interior of the protein.

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56
Q

If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, then _______.

A

water will flow into the cell

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57
Q

Placed in a hypertonic solution, a living cell will _______.

A

shrink as water leaves the cell

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58
Q

What is directly responsible for maintaining turgor pressure in a leaf?

A

osmotic pressure

59
Q

Which of the following is correct about biological membranes?

A

Phospholipid head groups are directed toward the aqueous environment.

60
Q

If all the threonines of an antifreeze protein were changed to valines, the protein would _______.

A

not bind water and would lose antifreeze properties

61
Q

How can reactions that create order occur according to the Second Law of Thermodynamics?

A
  • A favorable enthalpy change overcomes entropic penalty.
  • The unfavorable reaction is coupled to a favorable one.
62
Q

What is the correct chronological order of proton hopping events that form the ‘water wire’?

A

C ’ E ’ B ’ D

63
Q

What is the approximate distance each proton ‘hops’ between molecules?

A

1.5 Å (1 × 10-10 m)

64
Q

What distance does proton A appear to travel through the water wire to reach the position marked F?

65
Q

What step is performed when preparing for both RNA-seq analysis and a gene microarray?

A

Isolate mRNA from whole cell lysate.

66
Q

Which gene expression assay requires that the sequence of genes be known in advance?

A

gene microarray

67
Q

On a gene microchip assay, a _______ level of green fluorescence corresponds to more transcripts present upon cell lysis.

68
Q

The HindIII-DNA complex contains ___ amino terminus/termini and ___ carboxy terminus/termini.

69
Q

How much space along the longitudinal axis of DNA does the HindIII enzyme occupy when bound?

A

approximately one major groove and one neighboring minor groove, which in total is approximately 40 angstroms

70
Q

What effect would methylation of the HindIII target DNA have on the binding probability?

A

decrease the probability of binding between HindIII and DNA and would decrease the endonuclease activity at that methylated site

71
Q

If the same experiment were performed in the presence of 1.5 M NaCl, the new curve would be positioned _______.

A

to the right of the current curve

72
Q

Which type of chromatin is usually associated with non-coding DNA?

A

heterochromatin

73
Q

Which type of chromatin is usually associated with the centromere of a chromosome?

A

heterochromatin

74
Q

What is the melting temperature of DNA affected by?

A

The presence of sodium ions and G-C content

Higher G-C content leads to higher melting temperatures due to three hydrogen bonds.

75
Q

Which type of chromatin is associated with the centromere of a chromosome?

A

heterochromatin

76
Q

What genetic anomaly causes Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome (HGPS)?

A

A shortened version of a certain nuclear protein to be synthesized by the cell.

77
Q

Is the genetic anomaly that leads to HGPS a single-nucleotide polymorphism?

78
Q

What type of mutation is associated with the genetic anomaly that leads to HGPS?

A

deamination

79
Q

What is the relationship between G-C content and DNA melting temperature?

A

Higher G-C content results in a higher melting temperature due to three hydrogen bonds.

80
Q

What can be inferred about a thermophilic microbe living at >75°C regarding G-C content?

A

higher G-C content compared to a similar microbe living at 37°C

81
Q

Which chemical component of nucleotides interacts with sodium ions?

A

phosphate group

82
Q

What distinguishes monocistronic from polycistronic genes?

A

Polycistronic genes are multiple genes under a single promoter transcribed into a single RNA, while monocistronic genes encode only a single protein.

83
Q

What conclusion can be drawn from DNA melting curves regarding nucleic acid length?

A

Shorter-length nucleic acid has a lower melting temperature than that of longer-length DNA.

84
Q

Based on VNTR DNA analysis, which suspect should be further pursued?

A

suspect B only

85
Q

What effect do chemotherapy drugs targeting topoisomerase enzymes have?

A

These drugs negatively impact DNA replication so that these cells experience a cell cycle arrest.

86
Q

If the DNA template strand is 5’-AGGCT-3’, what would the new strand read?

A

3’-TCCGA-5’

87
Q

Where is adenine located within a molecular structure?

A

as part of a base pair; at the 3’ end in one polynucleotide strand

88
Q

What is the distance from the guanine amide oxygen to the cytosine amine nitrogen?

A

2.61 angstroms

89
Q

How many hydrogen bonds connect complementary DNA strands in the given nucleic acid?

90
Q

Which terms are considered synonyms regarding DNA integrity?

A

renatured : annealed, melted : denatured

91
Q

If a sample of double-stranded DNA is 20% guanine, what percent adenine is it?

92
Q

What percent of a DNA sample with 20% guanine is purine nucleotide chemistry?

93
Q

Single-stranded nucleic acid is expected to absorb _______ ultraviolet light than double-stranded nucleic acid.

94
Q

What happens to the quantity of light absorbed at wavelength 260nm as temperature increases?

A

The quantity of light absorbed at wavelength 260nm is expected to increase.

95
Q

A __________ mutation will not lead to a change in the protein product of a gene.

96
Q

Which amino acid is categorized as a charged amino acid?

97
Q

What does a Ramachandran plot show?

A

The allowable phi (Φ) and psi (Ψ) angles for a peptide.

98
Q

What is the isoelectric point (pI) of lysine with given pKa values?

99
Q

Which amino acid is most likely found on the exterior of a protein?

100
Q

The type of reaction that forms a peptide bond is _______.

A

condensation

101
Q

What are heat shock proteins classified as?

A

chaperones

102
Q

What type of chaperone is Hsp70?

A

clamp type

103
Q

Amino acids are polymerized via a _______ reaction.

A

condensation

104
Q

Which statement is true regarding keratin in hair and fingernails?

A

Keratin in hair has fewer cysteines and therefore fewer disulfide bonds than keratin in fingernails.

105
Q

What must happen during a hair perm?

A

Reduction of disulfide bonds, reshaping, and then oxidation of disulfide bonds.

106
Q

What are the four groups that amino acids can be divided into?

A

charged; aromatic; hydrophilic or polar uncharged; hydrophobic or aliphatic

107
Q

What restricts the rotation of the peptide bond?

A

partial double bond character

108
Q

What are the four groups that amino acids can be divided into?

A

A. charged; aromatic; hydrophilic or polar uncharged; hydrophobic or aliphatic

109
Q

Rotation in the peptide backbone is around the two bonds that flank adjacent ___ atoms.

110
Q

What is the molecular geometry of the amide nitrogen and carbonyl carbon in a peptide plane?

A

The amide nitrogen is trigonal planar and the carbonyl carbon is also trigonal planar

111
Q

What is the most plausible explanation for the bending of the peptide plane observed?

A

Some other restraint is causing the peptide plane to adopt an unfavorable state. The favorable energetics of the other restraint offset the energetic unfavorability of the skewed peptide plane

112
Q

From the nucleotide sequence 5’-GCCUCCAAACCCCUCCA-3’, what peptides could be encoded?

A

A. Pro-Pro-Asn-Pro-Ser, C. Ala-Ser-Lys-Pro-Leu, D. Leu-Gln-Thr-Pro-Pro

113
Q

Which amino acids contain sulfur?

A

B. cysteine, E. methionine

114
Q

Which amino acid is able to form disulfide bonds?

115
Q

Which bond type has partial double bond character?

A

D. A peptide bond

116
Q

What is a major consequence of the partial double bond character of the peptide bond?

A

Greatly reduced rotational freedom compared to the Æ (phi)/È (psi) torsion angles

117
Q

Hsp70 is a ___ chaperone. GroEL-GroES is a ___ chaperone.

A

Hsp70 = clamp type chaperone, GroEL-GroES = chamber type chaperone

118
Q

Which statement is correct regarding Hsp70 and GroEL-GroES?

A

A. Both Hsp70 and GroEL-GroES utilize ATP to assist in protein refolding

119
Q

For Anfinsen’s studies of RNaseA folding, which statement is not correct?

A

C. Removal of ²-mercaptoethanol, followed by removal of urea, resulted in active RNaseA

120
Q

If RNase were heated to twice its Tm in the absence of ²-mercaptoethanol and then cooled to 4 °C, what state would it be in?

A

A. native state

121
Q

What is the folded state of ovalbumin in a cooked egg?

A

D. irreversibly denatured

122
Q

If the hydrophobic part of a membrane is roughly 60 Å thick, how many amino acids are necessary to form the shortest possible transmembrane spanning α-helix?

A

40 amino acids

123
Q

How many amino acids are necessary if the transmembrane helix is at an angle of 24° from being perpendicular to the plane of the membrane?

A

44 amino acids

124
Q

Which residues would you likely find in a transmembrane spanning α-helix?

A

A. leucine, C. isoleucine

125
Q

What does the amino acid sequence of a protein lead to regarding folding pathways?

A

A. The amino acid sequence of a protein leads to a limited number of possible folding pathways

126
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a hexamer made of three different homodimers?

127
Q

What is the quaternary structure of a hexamer composed of two homotrimers?

128
Q

The GroEL-GroES complex is classified as which types?

A

B. a chaperone, C. an ATPase

129
Q

What type of chaperone is GroEL-GroES?

A

C. chamber type

130
Q

If a mutation occurred in the GroEL gene that abolished ATP binding, what functional consequence would you predict?

A

C. The GroEL complex would form but would not act as a chaperone

131
Q

How many ATP molecules are hydrolyzed during a full cycle of GroEL-GroES-aided protein folding?

132
Q

Quaternary structures provide increased functionality to proteins in which of the following ways?

A

B. They provide structural properties not present in individual subunits, C. They increase efficiency of biochemical processes

133
Q

Which amino acid sequences could form an amphipathic helix?

A

A. TVVEAIDRLVDT

134
Q

Many diseases, including Alzheimer’s disease, are associated with what phenomenon?

A

C. protein aggregation

135
Q

Which of the following is NOT accurately classified as a motif?

A

D. FERM domain fold

136
Q

What would be observed if you overexpressed a GFP fusion protein in E. coli?

A

D. The E. coli would have a green appearance when observed in white light

137
Q

Why would GFP not be a good choice of light-interacting protein for a creature that lives exclusively in a cold, dark sea cave?

A

C. GFP would not emit green light since there is no blue light for it to absorb and re-emit

138
Q

Disulfide bonds are covalent interactions formed between which amino acid residues?

139
Q

What would happen to an existing surface-exposed disulfide bond in a typical cytoplasmic protein in a more oxidizing environment?

A

A. There would be no change since the disulfide bond is already oxidized

140
Q

Which secondary structure elements are stabilized by hydrogen bonds?

A

A. α-helices, B. antiparallel β-sheets, C. parallel β-sheets

141
Q

If a mutation occurred in which a codon changed to that for proline, what would you expect if the codon were found in a region that formed an α-helix?

142
Q

Which secondary structure elements are stabilized by hydrogen bonds?

A

A. ± helices
B. antiparallel ² sheets
C. parallel ² sheets

These elements are crucial for protein structure and stability.

143
Q

What effect would a mutation changing a codon to that for proline in a region that formed an ±helix have?

A

A. The proline would disrupt the ± helix.

Proline’s unique structure can introduce kinks in helices, affecting overall protein folding.