Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Be able to identify the following landmarks, and note on which bone (ilium, ischium, pubis)
these feature may be found: Iliac crest, Iliac fossa, Acetabulum, Anterior Superior Iliac Spine,
Anterior Inferior Iliac Spine, Posterior Superior Iliac Spine, Posterior Inferior Iliac Spine,
Greater sciatic notch, Lesser sciatic notch. Ischial tuberosity, Obturator foramen, Pubic Tubercle,
Ischial ramus, Ischial spine, Superior pubic ramus, Inferior pubic ramus, Auricular surface

A

illium- Iliac crest, Iliac fossa, Acetabulum, Anterior Superior Iliac Spine,
Anterior Inferior Iliac Spine, Posterior Superior Iliac Spine, Posterior Inferior Iliac Spine,
Greater sciatic notch

illiac- Lesser sciatic notch. Ischial tuberosity, Obturator foramen, ischial spine, ischial ramus

pubis- pubic tubercle, superior pubic ramis, inferior pubic ramus,
auricular surface= auricular surfaces of illium and sacrum is where the sacroilliac joint goes

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2
Q

Be able to identify the following landmarks, and note on which bone (ilium, ischium, pubis)
these feature may be found: Iliac crest, Iliac fossa, Acetabulum, Anterior Superior Iliac Spine,
Anterior Inferior Iliac Spine, Posterior Superior Iliac Spine, Posterior Inferior Iliac Spine,
Greater sciatic notch, Lesser sciatic notch. Ischial tuberosity, Obturator foramen, Pubic Tubercle,
Ischial ramus, Ischial spine, Superior pubic ramus, Inferior pubic ramus, Auricular surface

A
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3
Q

Note the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis at the acetabulum. Note that the ilium and
ischium make a greater contribution (approx. 4/5) to the acetabulum; while the pubis contributes
to 1/5 of the acetabular surface

A

acetabulum is the large cup shaped socket on the lateral aspect of the hip bone. Articulates with the head of the femur to form the hip joint. all three primary bones forming the hip bone contribute to the formation of the acetabulum

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4
Q

Distinguish between the greater pelvis and lesser pelvis

A
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5
Q

Identify the compartments of the thigh, the muscle group in that compartment, and the nerve that
supplies most of the muscles

A

No real lateral compartment. The muscles that would be in the lateral compartment (gluteus medius and minimus) do not extend past the greater trochanter of the femur tensor fascia lata as well but it continues down the thigh as the IT band, muscle at the hip

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6
Q

What is the function of the fascia lata? What is the function of the iliotibial band?

A

fascia lata function= flex, abdduct medially rotate hip
Innervation= superior gluteal nerve
origin= ASIS
insertion= It band, IT band attaches to lateral condyle of tibia
function of IT band= tensor fascia lata tenses the fascia lata and IT band. When the knee is fully extended, the tensor fascial lata contirbutes to the extending force, adding stability, and plays a role in supporting the femur on the tibia when standing if lateral sway occurs.

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7
Q

Pectineus

Identify the muscles of the thigh: anterior, medial, and posterior thigh muscles. Identify the bone
attachments, innervation, and action of each muscle

A

origin= superior rami of pubis
insertion= pectineal line of femur, just inferior to lesser trochanter
innervation=femoral nerve
actions= adducts and slightly flexes hip joint, assists with lateral rotation

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8
Q

illiopsoas
Psoas major
PSoas minor

A

Psoas major origin: sides of T12-L5 vertebrae, transcerse processes of all lumbar vertebrae
Psoas minor origin: sides of T12-L1 vertebrae
Psoas major insertion= lesser trochanter of femur
Psoas minor= pectineal line and illiopubic eminenece
Innervation for both= anterior rami of lumbar nerve
Action for both= act conjointly in flexion and lateral rotation of hip joint

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9
Q

Illiacius

A

Origin= illiac crest, illiac fossa, ala of sacrum,
insertion= tendons of psoas major, lesser trochanter
innvervation= femoral nerve
action= act conjointly in flexion and lateral rotation of hip joint (exact same as Illiopsoas muscles)

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10
Q

Sartorius

A

origin= ASIS
insertion= superior part of medial surface of tibia
innervation= femoral nerve
action= flexes, abducts, laterally rotates hip joints, flexes knee joint

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11
Q

Quadriceps femoris-
Rectus femoris
Vastus lateralis
Vastus medialis
vastus intermedius

A

Rectus femoris origin: AIIS
vastus lateralis origin: greater trochanter and lateral lip of aspera of femur
vastus medialis origin: interochanteric line and medial lip of linea aspera of femur
vastus intermedius: anterior and lateral surface of shaft of femur
Insertion for all= via quadriceps tendon (common tendinosus) and independent attachemnts to base of patella. medial and lateral vasti also attach to tibia and patella
innervation= femoral nerve
function= extend knee joint, rectus femoris helps illiopsoas with hip flexion as well

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12
Q

adductor longus

A

origin= body of pubis inferior to pubic crest
insertion= middle third of linea aspera of femur
innervation= obturator nerve
adducts thigh

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13
Q

adductor brevis

A

origin= body and inferior ramus of pubis
insertion= pectineal line and proximal part of linea aspera of femur
innervation= obturator nerve
action= adducts thigh and and to some extent flexes it

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14
Q

adductor magnus

A

origin= adductor part: inferior ramus of pubis, ramus of ischium
hamstring part: ischial tuberosity
insertion:
adductor part=gluteal tuberosity, linea aspera
hamstring part= adductor tubercle of femur
innervation=
adductor part: obturator nerve
hamstring part: tibial part of sciatic nerve
action= adducts thigh, and flexes thigh
hamstring part extends it

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15
Q

gracilis

A

origin= body and inferior ramus of pubis
insertion= superior part of medial surface of tibia
innervation= obturator nerve
action= adducts thigh, flexes leg, medialy rotation

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16
Q

obturator externus

A

origin= margin of obturator foramen and obturator membrane
insertion= trochanteric fossa of femur
innervation= obturator nerve
action= laterally rotates hip joints

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17
Q

semitendinosus

A

origin= ischial tuberosity
insertion= superior part of medial surface of tibia
innervation= tibial divison of sciatic nerve part of tibia
action= extend hip joints, flex knee joints, and medially rotate it when flexed.
when hip and knee joints are flexed (like when sitting) the muscles can extend trunk at hip joints

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18
Q

semimembranosus

A

origin= ischial tuberosity
insertion= posterior part of medial condyle of tibia
innervation= tibial division of sciatic nerve part of tibia
main action=extend hip joints, flex knee joints, and medially rotate it when flexed.
when hip and knee joints are flexed (like when sitting) the muscles can extend trunk at hip joints

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18
Q

biceps femoris

A

Long head origin= ischial tuberosity
short head origin= linea aspera and lateral supracondylar line of femur
insertion= lateral side of head of fibula
innvervation:
long head= tibial division of sciatic nerve
short head= common fibular divison of sciatic nerve
action= flexes knee joint and laterally rotates it when flexed. long head extends hip joints.

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18
Q

Note that the quadriceps tendon surrounds the patella, classifying it as a sesamoid bone. Note
the role of the patella to increase the torque exerted by the quadriceps muscle group

A

The patella is the largest
sesamoid bone in the body
The patella
increases the
amount of torque
produced by the
quadriceps group

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19
Q

What is the most common direction for a recurrent patellar dislocation? Name an anatomical
feature that helps to prevent this dislocation: (

A

lateral direction
vastus medialis obliques

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20
Q

Describe the location (lateral to medial) of the femoral nerve, artery, and vein in the femoral
triangle

A

femoral triangle= boundaries are inguinal ligament, adductor longus, sartorius
NAVy lateral to medial

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21
Q

What is the purpose and contents of the adductor canal?

A

Adductor canal a.k.a Hunter’s
Canal
This is a fibrous tunnel that prevents the
femoral vessels from getting squeezed
closed by the contraction of the large
thigh muscles

The apex of the femoral
triangle marks the opening of
the adductor canal
The femoral artery, femoral
vein, the saphenous nerve
and nerve to vastus
medialis (branches of the
femoral nerve) enter the
adductor canal

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22
Q

exit of femoral artery and vein from adductor canal? what do they continue as

Note the exit of the femoral artery (and vein) from the adductor canal at the adductor hiatus and
its continuation in the leg as the popliteal artery (and vein)

A

The femoral artery and vein
exit the adductor canal at the
adductor hiatus; they
continue as the popliteal
artery and vein behind the
knee

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23
Q

Identify the great saphenous vein and note its potential as blood vessel material used for
coronary bypass procedures. Identify the function of valves in large veins in the lower extremity
to assist in blood return against gravity back to the heart.

A

Large veins of the lower extremity have
valves to help keep blood from pooling

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24
Q

FUNCTION

Describe the structure and function of the collateral ligaments of the knee. Note that the deep
fibers of the tibial collateral ligament are attached to the medial meniscus; while the fibular
collateral ligament is separated from the lateral meniscus by the tendon of popliteus.

A

THEY ARE EXTRASCAPULAR LIGAMENTS OF THE KNEE
fibular collateral ligament (LCL)= extends inferioly from lateral epicondle of femur to lateral surface of the fibular head
tibial collatearl ligament (MCL) = extends from medial epicondyle of the femur to the medial condyle of the tibia.
MCL is attaches to medial meniscus, MCL is weaker then the LCL and is more often damaged. This causes the MCL and medial meniscus to tear together

the collateral ligaments are taut when the knee is fully extended which gives stability when standing
During flexion they become increasingly slack, which permits rotation at the knee

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25
Q

identify the location and function of the cruciate ligaments of the knee
what does ACL serve as?

A

THEY ARE INTRASCAPULAR LIGAMENTS OF THE KNEE
the cruciate ligamentsare intracapsular but
extrasynovial

The cruciate ligaments
prevent displacement of
the tibia in the direction of
their names

Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL):
Prevents Anterior Displacement of
the Tibia. Weaker of the two ligaments.
Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL):
Prevents Posterior Displacement of
the Tibia. weight-bearing flexed knee PCL is main stabilizing factor for femur (walking downhill)

The ACL and PCL are not uniform bands—they are made of an anteromedial and a
posterolateral portions, which act differently as the knee moves through its range

The anteromedial bundle
(a) lies parallel to the
posterolateral bundle in
extension; but tightens up
as it wraps around the
posterolateral bundle (b)
in knee flexion. The
anteromedial bundle
serves as the primary
restraint to anterior tibial
movement in the flexed
knee.

THEY

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26
Q

Describe the anterior drawer test; posterior drawer test

A

Anterior Drawer
Test: Assesses
the status of the
ACL
Posterior drawer test: status of PCL

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27
Q

Describe the structure and function of the knee menisci
which meniscus is held tighter to tibia?

A

acts to cushion the bones of the knee joint

The menisci are
incomplete rings of
fibrocartilage attached
to the tibial plateau

The menisci provide a little
more contact for the femoral
condyles on the tibial plateau

The menisciare cup-shaped;steepest attheir outer
margins

menisci are attached to the tibial plateteau by the coronary ligaments

medial meniscus is held to the tibia more tightly than lateral meniscus, it has less give when a force is applied

Tears of the medial meniscus are
especially common-its firmer
attachment to the tibial plateau
leaves it less able to withstand
forces put on the knee

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28
Q

Note the difference in structure between the medial and lateral menisci. Note the larger
anterior-to-posterior distance in the medial meniscus. Describe the significance of this larger
distance for the “screw-home” mechanism of the knee

A

The medial meniscus is
larger in the anterior-to-
posterior dimension

The medial femoral condyle
slides posteriorly, slightly
more than the lateral
femoral condyle, because
the medial compartment is
larger in the anterior-
posterior direction

The knee “locks” into place
(called the “screw home”
mechanism), resulting in a
stable, weight-bearing
position
In full extension, the knee is
stable to allow prolonged
standing with minimal
muscle activity

popliteus is needed to move back into flexion when the knee is fully extended

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29
Q

Locate the suprapatellar, subcutaneous infrapatellar, and subcutaneous prepatellar bursae of
the knee. Which bursa is inflamed in housemaid’s knee and clergyman’s knee? What is a Baker’s
cyst?

A

Inflammation of the subcutaneous
prepatellar bursa = housemaid’s knee
Inflammation of the subcutaneous
infrapatellar bursa = monk’s knee
(clergyman’s knee)
bakers cyst= popiteal cyst

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30
Q

Leg compartments with nerves

A
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31
Q

Tibialis anterior

Leg muscles…. Know the muscles in each compartment of the leg; proximal and distal
attachments; what nerve innervates the muscle, describe the action of the muscles

A

origin= lateral condyle and superior half of lateral surface of tibia
insertion= medial and inferior surfaces of medial cunfeiform and base of 1st metatarsal
innervation= deep fibular nerve
action= dorsiflex ankle, invert foot

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32
Q

Extensor hallucis longus

A

origin= middle part of anterior surface of fibula
insertion= dorsal aspect of base of distal phalanx of great toe
innervation= deep fibular nerve
action= extends great toe, dorsiflexes ankle

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33
Q

extensor digitorum longus

A

origin= lateral condyle of tibia
insertion= middle and distal phalanges of lateral four digits
innervation= deep fibular nerve
action= extends lateral four digits, dorsiflexes ankle

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34
Q

fibularis (peroneus) tertius

A

origin= anterior surface of tibula
insertion= dorsal surface of base of the 5th metatarsal
innercation= deep fibular nerve
action= dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot at ankle

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35
Q

fibularis longus

A

origin= head and superior two thirds of lateral surface of fibula
insertion= base of 1st metatarsal and medial cuneiform
innervation= superficial fibular nerve
action= evert foot, plantarflex

36
Q

fibularis brevis

A

origin= inferior two thirds of lateral surface of fibula
insertion= dorsal surface of tuberosity of base of 5th metatarsal
innervation= superficial fibular nerve
action
action= eversion and plantarflexion

37
Q

Gastrocnmeius

A

lateral head origin= lateral aspect of lateral condyle of femur
medial head origin= popiteal surface, superior to medial condyle
insertion= posterior surface of calcaneus to calcaneal tendon (achilles)
innervation= tibial nerve
action= plantarflex when knee is extended

38
Q

soleus

A

origin= posterior aspect of head of fibula, superior quarter of posterior surface of fibula
insertion= posterior surface of calcaneus via calcaneal tendon (achilles)
innervation= tibial nerve
action= plantarflexes ankle

39
Q

plantaris

A

origin= inferior end of lateral supracondylar
insertion= posterior surface of calcaneus via calcaneal tendon (achilles)
innervation- tibial nerve
action= weakly assist gastrocnmeius

40
Q

popliteus

A

origin= lateral surface of lateral condyle of femur
insertion= posterior surface of tibia
innervation= tibial nerve
action= flexes knee and unlocks when standing fully extended

41
Q

flexor hallucis longus

A

origin= inferior two thirds of posterior surface of fibula
insertion= base of ditsal phalanx of great toe
innervation= tibial nerve
action= flexes great toe, plantarflexes ankle

42
Q

flexor digitorum longus

A

origin= medial part of posterior surface of tibia inferior to soleal line
insertion= bases of distal phalanex of lateral four digits
innervation= tibial nerve
action= flexes lateral four digits, plantarflexes ankle

43
Q

tibialis posterior

A

origin= interosseuous membrane, posterior surface of tibia inferior to soleal line
insertion= navicular tuberosity and to cuneiforms
innervation= tibial nerve
action= plantarflexes ankle, inverts foot,

44
Q

What nerve is at risk when the neck of the fibula is fractured? What muscles would be affected,
and how would the person’s gait be affected?

A

The common fibular
nerve is at risk when the
proximal fibula (near the
fibular head) is fractured

Damage to the common
fibular nerve may lead to a
condition called foot drop

Foot Drop = Lack of Ankle
Dorsiflexion, Toe Extension
Compensated by a
High-Stepping Gait

muscle effected by footdrop are from the anterior compartment= tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, fibularis tertius

45
Q

Describe the blood supply of the lower extremity (femoral artery, popliteal artery, anterior tibial
artery, posterior tibial artery

A

femoral artery=

46
Q

What is meant by “compartment” syndrome?

A

Compartment Syndrome=
Tissue injury, hemorrhage,
edema, may compress muscles
and restrict blood supply -
Crural fascia is very strong

Fasciotomy may be required

47
Q

gluteus maximus

Identify the muscles of the gluteal region (gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimis).
Note the bone attachment sites, origin, insertion, innervation, action. Identify the deep gluteal
muscles (lateral rotators of the hip): piriformis, superior and inferior gemelli, obturator internus,
quadratus femoris). Include obturator externus as a lateral rotator of the hip.

A

Gluteus Maximus –powerful hip
extensor (as in stair climbing or
rising from a seated position;
also lateral rotation of thigh

origin= illium, dorsum of sacrum and coccyx
insertion= IT band, some fibers insert on gluteal tuberosity
innervation= inferior gluteal nerve
extends thigh, lateral rotation

48
Q

gluteus medius

A

origin= external surface of illium between anterior and posterior gluteal lines
insertion= lateral surface of greater trochanter of femur
innervation= superior gluteal nerve
action= abduct and medially rotate tihgh

49
Q

gluteus minimus

A

origin= external surface of illium between anteiror and inferior gluteal lines
insertion= anterior surface of greater trochanter
innervation= superior gluteal nerve
action= abduct and medially rotate

50
Q

piriformis

Identify the deep gluteal
muscles (lateral rotators of the hip): piriformis, superior and inferior gemelli, obturator internus,
quadratus femoris). Include obturator externus as a lateral rotator of the hip.

A

origin= anterior surface of sacrum
insertion= superior border of greater trochanter
innervaiton= branches of anterior rami of S1 and S2
action= laterally rotate extended thigh and abduct flexed thigh

51
Q

superior and inferior gameli

A

origin:
superior= ischial spine
inferior= ischial tuberosity
insertion= medial surface of greater trochanter
innervation= superior gamellus is the nerve to obturator internus, inferior gamellus is nerve to quadratus femoris
action= laterally rotate extended thigh and abduct flexed thigh

52
Q

obturator internus

A

origin= pelvic surface of obturator membrane
insertion= medial surface of greater trochanter
innervation= nerve to obturator internus
action= laterally rotate extended thigh, abduct flexed thigh
obturator externus is also a lateral rotator

53
Q

quadratus femoris

A

origin= lateral border of ischial tuberosity
insertion= quadrate tubercle
innervation= nerve to quadratus femoris
action= laterally rotates thigh

54
Q

Describe the role of gluteus medius and minimis as abductors of the hip and their role in
stabilizing the pelvis during gait. Describe the role of the lesser gluteal muscles and the superior
gluteal nerve in Trendelenburg gait. Pg. 750

A

lesser gluteal muscles= gluteus medius and minimus, they abduct the thigh at the hip

When the foot is free to move (open chain)-
gluteus medius and minimus will abduct the
thigh at the hip
When the foot is planted (closed chain)-
gluteus medius and minimus will contract to
keep the pelvis level
This allows the contralateral leg to clear
the ground when taking a step forward

Trendelenburg Sign (aka Trendelenburg Gait)
Cause: Injury to Gluteus Medius and/or
Gluteus Minimus; e.g. damage to
Superior Gluteal Nerve

Trendelenburg Sign (aka Trendelenburg Gait)
The pelvis sags on the side contralateral to
the injured muscle/nerve
The contralateral leg moving forward (swing
leg) cannot clear the ground (will drag)
To compensate, the trunk leans toward the
damaged side to help the swing leg clear
the ground

Trendelenburg gait requires a lot
more muscle activity for walking—
so walking can be very tiring

55
Q

Why is gluteus maximus commonly used for intramuscular injections? (abundant blood supply
to the muscle). Explain why intramuscular injections are done in the upper right quadrant of
gluteus maximus (This site avoids chance of the needle contacting the sciatic nerve). Pg. 751-752

A

Intramuscular injections into Gluteus Maximus are
done in the upper right quadrant of the
muscle, this avoids contact of the needle with the
sciatic nerve

glute max used for intramuscular injections for abundant blood supply to the muscle

56
Q

Largest nerve in posterior thigh?
Two parts of sciatic nerve

Identify the sciatic nerve as the largest nerve in the posterior thigh. Identify the two parts of the
sciatic nerve: common fibular nerve and tibial nerve. Note that the physical separation of the
sciatic nerve into the tibial and common fibular nerve usually occurs just proximal to the knee.

A

sciatic nerve
two parts are common fibular nerve and tibial nerve
. Note that the physical separation of the
sciatic nerve into the tibial and common fibular nerve usually occurs just proximal to the knee.

57
Q

What is the function of the acetabular labrum? Identify the articular vs non-articular surfaces of
the acetabulum

A

The depth of the acetabulum is
deepened by a complete ring of
fibrocartilage along its edge,
called the acetabular labrum
This provides better coverage for the
head of the femur

the floor of the
acetabulum is not
articular, and contains
a pad of fat

lunnate surface forms artiuclar surface
non articular surce is formed by the centrally located acetabular fossa, which forms the floor of the acetabulum

58
Q

illiofemoral ligament (y ligament)

Identify the ligaments of the hip joint (iliofemoral, ischiofemoral, pubofemoral) and the
movements of the hip they limit. Note the location and role of the Ligament of the Head of the
Femur

A

The hip ligaments allow a
considerable amount of
flexion, but become taut in full
extension; greatly limiting the
amount of extension possible
at this joint

illiofemoral ligament= one of the strongest ligament in the body,The Y ligament strongly
resists hyperextension at
the hip joint
It assists in maintaining
balance and upright posture,The Y ligament also resist external rotation and
adduction at the hip joint

59
Q

pubofemoral

Identify the ligaments of the hip joint (iliofemoral, ischiofemoral, pubofemoral) and the
movements of the hip they limit. Note the location and role of the Ligament of the Head of the
Femur

A

The pubofemoral
ligament reinforces the
capsule inferiorly

The pubofemoral
ligament resists the
movement of abduction
and external rotation

All three ligaments limit
medial rotation of the
femur, to some extent

60
Q

ischiofemoral

Identify the ligaments of the hip joint (iliofemoral, ischiofemoral, pubofemoral) and the
movements of the hip they limit. Note the location and role of the Ligament of the Head of the
Femur

A

The ischiofemoral
ligament is the
posterior
reinforcement of the
capsule

The ischiofemoral ligament
limits the movement of
abduction and internal
rotation, as well as
hyperextension

The ischiofemoral
ligament is the
weakest of the three

61
Q

Note the location and role of the Ligament of the Head of the
Femur

A

The Ligament of the Head
of the Femur (LHF) runs
from the acetabular notch
to the fovea capitis of the
femur

The LHF plays a minor role
in movements of the hip;
it somewhat limits
abduction of the hip

62
Q

Why is the hip less likely to dislocate than other joints? Note the position of the thigh
(adduction, medial rotation) where a blow to the femur may dislocate the hip

A

strong ligaments and muscle,

The hip is more likely to
dislocate when force is
applied to a femur that is
flexed, adducted and
medially rotated

Dashboard injury

Congenital hip dislocation is
sometimes seen in infants

63
Q

identify the blood supply to the hip: , and blood
supply from the internal lilac artery:
What are retinacular arteries, and what role do they serve in the blood supply of the hip?

A

From the Deep Femoral Artery:Medial Femoral Circumflex
Lateral Femoral Circumflex

From the Internal Iliac Artery:
Obturator
Superior Gluteal
Inferior Gluteal

Branches of the Medial
Femoral Circumflex Artery
are the most important
blood supply to the head of
the femur

Branches of the Medial
Femoral Circumflex are
the Retinacular arteries
that run in the joint
capsule to supply the
head of the femur

Fractures close to the head
of the femur are likely to
tear the retinacular vessels
and deprive the head of
much of its blood supply

Failure to re-establish the
blood supply after femur
fracture may result in
avascular necrosis of the bone
Usually requires hip replacement

64
Q

Note the relationship of the femoral neck and head to the shaft of the femur. Define the angle of
inclination and note the value of the typical angle of inclination of the femur (125 degrees).
Identify the cases when the angle is greater than (coxa valga) or less than (coxa vara) the typical
value. How does that influence the alignment of lower extremity joints? (Coxa vara may be
accompanied by genu valgus to compensate, commonly called “knock-knees”; Coxa valga may
be accompanied by genu varus, commonly called “bow-legged”

A

angle of inclination= the angle between the neck and the shaft of the femur, typical angle is 125 degrees

Varus = the distal part of the
body segment is located more
medially than normal,

Valgus = the distal part of the
body segment is located more
laterally than normal,

coxa valga= angle is greater than typical value
coxa vara= angle is less than typical value

65
Q

Identify the angle of torsion (anteversion) and describe the impact of this angle on the position of
the femur and patella

A

angle of torsion= a line through the femoral condyles in the transverse plane and another line following the head and neck of the femur. The angle between these two lines is the angle or torsion (averages 12-15 degrees). Values greater than 15 degree called anteversion. Values less than 15 are called retroversion

66
Q

Describe the significance of the bone trabecular pattern
breakdown of trabecular pattern can cause what?

A

the proximal epiphysis contains trabecular bone (cancellous bone)-good for
accommodating forces coming from many directions-allows bending

Breakdown of the trabecular
pattern may be seen in
osteoporosis—bone is more
vulnerable to fracture

67
Q

Distinguish between visceral and parietal serous membranes (pleura, pericardium, peritoneum)
and note their relationship to organs and the body wall.

A

The lungs are surrounded
by a serous membrane
called pleura

Serous membrane = mesothelium +
thin connective tissue; mesothelium
secretes serous fluid

Serous membranes
Pleura - Lungs
Pericardium - Heart
Peritoneum - Abdominal Organs

Serous membranes have two layers
outer layer- parietal
inner layer- visceral

68
Q

Be able to define the cavities outlined by serous membranes: .
Note that the normal contents of these cavities is a small amount of serous fluid

A

pleural cavity=surrounds the lungs, lined by the plerua
pericardial cavity= surrounds the heart, lined by pericardium a
peritoneal cavity= surrounds the abdominal organs, lined by the peritoneum

Normally, there should only be a
small amount of serous fluid in
the pleural cavity
The presence of blood, pus or
air in the pleural cavity is
associated with pathology

69
Q

Identify the fissures and lobes of the left and right lungs

A

right- 3 lobes, 2 fissures
left- 2 lobes, 1 fissure
fissure= A lung fissure is a deep groove or cleft that separates the lobes of the lungs

70
Q

identify the structures located at the hilus of the lung

A

(primary bronchus, pulmonary artery,
pulmonary vein)
Hilus: Site where
nerves, blood vessels,
primary bronchi enter
the lung

71
Q

identify the muscles of respiration: identify accessory muscles of
respiration

A

iidentify the muscles of respiration: diaphragm, intercostals; identify accessory muscles of
respiration (e.g. pectoralis minor, anterior and middle scalenes, sternocleidomastoid)

72
Q

identify the divisions of the respiratory tree. .
Be able to identify how many primary, secondary, and tertiary bronchi may be located on the left
and on the right lungs

A

identify the divisions of the respiratory tree. (trachea, primary, secondary, tertiary bronchi, etc).

right lung: 1 primary bronchi, 3 secondary bronchi, 10 teritary bronchi
left lung: 1 primary bonchi, 2 secondary bronchi, 8 tertiary bronchi

73
Q

identify the role of surfactant
lack of surfactant leads to what

A

(reduces surface tension to keep alveoli from collapsing

Surfactant is a lipid-protein
product that lowers surface
tension; thereby helps keep
alveoli from collapsing

Lack of surfactant leads to
respiratory distress syndrome
in infants born prematurely
(formerly called hyaline
membrane disease)
Administration of artificial surfactant may
help support lung function in premature
infants

74
Q

Define what a bronchopulmonary segment is, and describe the clinical significance of them (may
be removed if needed in certain lung conditions) and identify how many are located in the left
and right lungs.

A

Bronchopulmonary Segment=
A portion of lung that receives its
own segmental bronchus and a
branch of the pulmonary artery
Venous drainage is intersegmental

Bronchopulmonary segments
may be surgically removed in
cases of lung disease or
damage

right lung= has 10 bronchopulmonary segments
left lung= typically 8-9 segments

75
Q

Describe the gross anatomy of the heart. Describe the external and internal features of the atria
and ventricles. Describe the differences in myocardial thickness between the right and left
ventricles pgs. 366-37

A

go through heart slides

Note the thicker walls of
the left ventricle as
compared to the right
ventricle

76
Q

Identify and describe the structure of all heart valves: aortic, pulmonary, tricuspid, mitral
(bicuspid)

A

The left atrioventricular (AV)
valve = bicuspid valve
The right atrioventricular
valve = tricuspid valve

  1. Aortic Valve
    Location: Between the left ventricle and the aorta.
    Structure: It has three cusps (leaflets) named the left, right, and posterior cusps.
    Function: Opens to allow oxygen-rich blood to flow from the left ventricle into the aorta and then to the rest of the body. It prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle
  2. Pulmonary Valve
    Location: Between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.
    Structure: Composed of three cusps named the left, right, and anterior cusps.
    Function: Opens to allow deoxygenated blood to flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery, which carries it to the lungs for oxygenation. It prevents blood from flowing back into the right ventricle
  3. Tricuspid Valve
    Location: Between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
    Structure: It has three cusps (anterior, posterior, and septal).
    Function: Opens to allow blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle. It prevents blood from flowing back into the right atrium when the right ventricle contracts
  4. Mitral (Bicuspid) Valve
    Location: Between the left atrium and the left ventricle.
    Structure: It has two cusps (anterior and posterior).
    Function: Opens to allow oxygen-rich blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. It prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium when the left ventricle contracts12.
    These valves are crucial for maintaining the unidirectional flow of blood through the heart and ensuring efficient circulation throughout the body
77
Q

Identify the structures of the conduction system (action potential conduction) of the heart;
describe the path of the conduction signal from SA node to myocardium
Pg. 377-378

A

conduction system of the heart= generates and transmits impulses that produce the coordinated contractions of the cardiac cycle

Path of the Conduction Signal
SA Node: The impulse begins at the SA node, causing the atria to contract.
Internodal Pathways: The impulse travels through the internodal pathways to the AV node.
AV Node: The AV node delays the impulse, allowing the atria to empty their blood into the ventricles.
Bundle of His: The impulse moves from the AV node to the Bundle of His.
Bundle Branches: The impulse travels down the right and left bundle branches.
Purkinje Fibers: Finally, the impulse spreads through the Purkinje fibers, causing the ventricles to contract

78
Q

Describe the flow of blood through the heart-from venous return to the right atrium to left
ventricular output

A
  1. venous return to the atrium
  2. right atrium to the right ventricle
  3. right ventricle to pulmonary artery
  4. pulmonary veins to left atrium
  5. left atrium to left ventricle
  6. left ventricle to aorta
79
Q

rectus abdominis

Describe the bone attachments, action and innervation of the abdominal muscles (rectus
abdominis, external abdominal obliques, internal abdominal oblique, transversus
abdominis

A

origin= pubic symphysis and pubic crest
insertion= xiphoid process
innervation= thoraco-abominal nerves
action= flex vertebral column (lumbar vertebrae) and compress abdominal viscera

80
Q

external oblique

A

origin= external surfaces of 5th-12th ribs
insertion= linea alba, pubic tubercle, anterior half of iliac crest
innervation= thoraco-abdominal nerves
action= compresses and supports abdominal viscera,
bilaterally compresses abdomen and flexes spine
unilaterally- laterally flexes trunk to the same side and rotates trunk to the opposite side

81
Q

internal oblique

A

orgin= thoracolumbar fascia, anterior, two thirds of iliac crest
insertion= inferior borders of 10th-12th ribs, linea alba
innervation= thoraco-abdominal nerves
action= compresses and supports abdominal viscera, bilaterally compresses abdominal viscera and flexes spine,
unilaterally - laterally flexes and rotates the spine to the same side

82
Q

transversus abdominis

A

origin= internal surfaces of the 7th-12th costal cartilages, thoracolumbar fascia, illiac crest
insertion= linea alba
innervation= thoracoabdominal nerves
action= compresses and support abdominal viscera

83
Q

Muscles of the posterior abdominal wall?

A

iliacus, psoas major, quadratus lumborum

84
Q

quadratus lumborum

A

origin= medial half of inferior border 12th ribs and lumbar transverse processes
insertion= illiolumbar ligament and internal lip of illiac crest
innervation= anterior branches of T12 and L1-L4 nerves
action= extends and laterally flexes vertebral column

85
Q

identify landmarks of the abdominal region: arcuate line, linea alba

A

The anterior and posterior layers
of the rectus sheath interlace in
the anterior median line to form
the linea alba

The point where the aponeuroses pass
anterior to rectus abdominis is called the
arcuate line

86
Q

Describe the contribution of the three lateral muscles to the rectus sheath; note the
relationship of their aponeuroses to the rectus abdominis muscle (above the arcuate line):
External oblique-anterior to rectus abdominis; internal oblique-aponeurosis splits so that
it surrounds rectus abdominis; transversus abdominis-posterior to rectus abdominis.
Below arcuate line—aponeuroses of all three lateral muscles are anterior to rectus
abdominis pg. 417, Fig 5.6

A

three lateral muscles- external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblqiue, transversus abdominis

The lateral muscles have a thin
aponeurosis that surrounds a pair
of vertically-oriented muscles -
Rectus Abdominis

The aponeuroses form the
rectus sheath, which fuses
in the midline to form the
linea alba

Above the Umbillicus:
-the aponeurosis of the external oblique
passes anterior to rectus abdominis
-the aponeurosis of the internal oblique splits
into two layers-one layer passes anterior to
rectus abdominis; the other passes posterior
to rectus abdominis
-the aponeurosis of transversus abdominis
passes posterior to the rectus abdominis

Below the umbilicus:
-The aponeuroses of all three lateral
muscles pass anterior to rectus abdominis
- The point where the aponeuroses pass
anterior to rectus abdominis is called the
arcuate line

87
Q

Provide an example of a retroperitoneal organ in the abdominal region (lecture ppt

A

Some organs become
associated with the posterior
abdominal wall, and will be
only partially covered by
peritoneum-These organs are called
retroperitoneal

Retroperitoneal Organs
Kidneys
Duodenum
Pancreas
Ascending colon
Descending colon

88
Q

Identify the roles of the greater omentum (lecture ppt)

A

covers the intenstines as an apron
protection, fat storage,

89
Q

Identify the prevertebral muscles and describe their actions

A

longus colli- bilaterally flex neck, unilaterally flex neck to opposite side
longus capitis- bilateraly flexion of neck, lateral flexion laterally
rectus capitis anterior-Flexion of head at
atlantooccipital joint (bilateral)
Lateral flexion of head (unilateral)
rectus capitis lateralis- lateral flexion of the
head

90
Q

dentify the muscles, bone attachments, actions and innervation of muscles of the suboccipital
region: Rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, obliquus capitis superior,
obliquus capitis inferior
Identify the contents of the suboccipital triangle
Head and neck Pgs. 934-941
Provide an example of a muscle of facial expression. Identify the Facial Nerve (C.N. VII) as the
nerve supplying motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression
Identify the four muscles of mastication: Temporalis, Masseter, Medial Pterygoid, Lateral
Pterygoid. Note their general bone attachments and location. Identify the nerve supplying motor
innervation to the muscles of mastication: Trigeminal Nerve (mandibular branch C.N. V3):
Describe the structure of the temporomandibular joint. Note the location of the articular disk,
and note how it separates the joint cavity into superior and inferior compartments.
Anterior and Posterior Neck
Review the superficial anterior and posterior muscles of the neck (platysma,
sternocleidomastoid, trapezius); their bone attachment sites, innervation, action. pgs.1008-1011
Review the suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles (note their attachment to the hyoid bone). pgs.
1018-1022

A