Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

describe the mitochondria

A
  • produces most of the energy (ATP)
  • double lipid bilayer
  • contains own set of DNA
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2
Q

where does the citric acid cycle occur in the mitochondria?

A

matrix

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3
Q

where does the ETC occur in the mitochondria?

A

inner surface of cell membrane

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4
Q

what are the folds called in the inner membrane of the mitochondria?

A

cristae

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5
Q

what is the purpose of cristae?

A

increase surface area

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6
Q

define metabolism

A

the sum of all the chemical reactions that take place in an organism

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7
Q

define catabolism

A

break down, release energy

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8
Q

define anabolism

A

building larger molecules

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9
Q

define activation

A

process that starts/increases the action of an enzyme

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10
Q

define inhibition

A

any process that slows or stops the action of an enzyme

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11
Q

define feedback and allosteric

A

enzyme regulation

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12
Q

what are the three major types pathways?

A
  1. a linear sequence
  2. a cyclic sequence
  3. a spiral sequence
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13
Q

4 stages of metabolism

A
  1. digestion
  2. acetyl-coa production
  3. citric acid cycle
  4. ATP production
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14
Q

Explain Stage 1 of Metabolism: Digestion

A
  • breaking down food
  • enzymes in saliva, stomach, and si
  • carbs break down into glucose
  • proteins break down into AA and tryglyceride
  • small molecules go into the blood for transport
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15
Q

Explain Stage 2 of Metabolism: Acetyl-CoA Production

A
  • break carbon atoms into 2 carbon acetyl groups
  • acetyl groups attach to coenzyme A by a bond between sulfur of the thiol group (cysteine)
  • acetyl-coa is the intermediate in the metabolism of all food molecules
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16
Q

Explain Stage 3 of Metabolism: Citric Acid Cycle

A
  • within the mitochondrion
  • break down acetyl-coa to produce energy equivalents (FADH2 and NADH)
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17
Q

Explain Stage 4 of Metabolism: ATP Production

A
  • energy production
  • produce ATP and H2O from NADH and FADH2
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18
Q

calorie vs Calorie

A

1 calorie = 1000 kcal/Calorie

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19
Q

deine calorie (small c)

A

unit of heat measurement
- amount of energy to raise the temp of one gram of water one degree Celsius

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20
Q

define basal metabolism

A

energy used by a body at rest to maintain involuntary, life supporting processes

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21
Q

examples of basal metabolism

A

breathing, heart beating, growing new cells, maintaining body temperature

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22
Q

how much of our bodies energy goes to basal metabolism?

A

2/3

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23
Q

minimum amount of energy expenditure per unit time to stay alive for males

A

1 kcal/hr/kg

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24
Q

minimum amount of energy expenditure per unit time to stay alive for females

A

0.95 kcal/hr/kg

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25
Q

why do taller people have a higher basal metabolism regulation (BMR)?

A

more surface area means more heat lost from the body, which causes the metabolism to speed up in order to maintain body temperature

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26
Q

2 major types of energy carriers

A
  1. ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
  2. reduced coenzymes (FAD/FADH2 + NAD+/NADH)
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27
Q

define FAD

A

flavin adenine dinucleotide

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28
Q

define NAD+

A

nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

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29
Q

What is ATP?

A

the body’s energy transporting molecule

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30
Q

ATP to ADP: exergonic or endergonic

A

exergonic
- gibs free energy = negative

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31
Q

ADP to ATP: exergonic or endergonic

A

endergonic
- gibs free energy = positive

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32
Q

how much ATP do humans use at rest per day?

A

45 kg / 99 lbs

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33
Q

define coupled reactions

A
  • energetically unfavorable reactions are coupled to energetically favorable reactions so the overall energy change is favorable
  • allows energy stored in one chemical compound to be transferred to other compounds
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34
Q

where does excess energy go in a coupled reaction?

A

releases as heat and contributes to maintaining body temperature

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35
Q

example of coupled reactions: glycolysis

A

the phosphorylation of glucose is unfavorable BUT can be made more favorable if coupled with the hydrolysis of ATP
- glycolysis: Gibbs free energy = +3.3 kcal/mol
- ATP: Gibbs free energy = -7.3 kcal/mol

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36
Q

define oxidation

A

lose elections, more O bonds –> C bonds

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37
Q

define reduction

A

gain elections, less O bonds –> H bonds

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38
Q

NAD+ is reduced to ______

A

NADH

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39
Q

NADH is oxidized to _________

A

NAD+ and 2H+

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40
Q

what is NAD/NADH used for?

A

add H to substates (reducing agent)

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41
Q

FAD is reduced to ______

A

FADH2

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42
Q

coenzyme vs electron carrier

A

because the reduced coenzymes have picked up electrons (in H bonds) that are passed along in subsequent reactions they are often referred to as electron carriers

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43
Q

define citric acid cycle

A

a series of biochemical reactions that breaks down acetyl groups to produce energy carried by reduced coenzymes and CO2

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44
Q

what is the first step and product of the citric acid cycle?

A

oxaloacetate

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45
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: Step 1

A

acetyl group is transferred from acetyl-coa to oxaloacetate produced in step 8

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46
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: Step 3

A

isocitrate loses CO2 and is oxidized to yield alpha-ketoglutarate

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47
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: Step 8

A

the cycle of reactions is completed by oxidation of malate to regenerate ocaloacetate

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48
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: outputs

A

NADH (3), FADH2 (1), GTP/ATP (1)

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49
Q

how many steps are in the citric acid cycle?

A

8

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50
Q

what is the reformed starting material for every cycle of the citric acid cycle?

A

oxaloacetate

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51
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: co-product

A

CO2 (2)

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52
Q

why is acetyl-coa important?

A

it is a favorable release of energy

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53
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: Steps 3, 4, 8

A

NAD+ is reduced to NADH and H+
(there are 3 NADH and H+ produced in one cycle)

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54
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: Step 6

A

FAD is reduced to FADH2
(there is one FADH2 produced in one cycle)

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55
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: Step 5

A

GDP —-> GTP/ATP
(one ATP produced in one cycle)

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56
Q

how is the citric acid cycle regulated?

A
  • regulated by the bodies need for ATP
  • ADP accumulation activates it
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57
Q

how to slow down ATP production?

A

NADH is present in excess and acts as an inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase

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58
Q

Citric Acid Cycle: in

A
  • Acetyl-CoA
  • GDP
  • CoA
  • (NAD+ and FAD)
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59
Q

where does the citric acid cycle occur?

A

in the matrix of the mitochondria

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60
Q

where do the reduced coenzymes (NADH and FADH2) come from for the ETC?

A

the citric acid cycle donates FADH2 and NADH

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61
Q

in the ETC what reactions occur to release energy?

A

oxidation-reduction reactions

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62
Q

is the ETC exergonic or endergonic?

A

each reaction in the series is exergonic (favorable)

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63
Q

where does the ETC occur?

A

the inner membrane of the mitochondria

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64
Q

what is the hydrogen gradient?

A

the H+ gradient is between the inner and outer membrane of the mitochondria, it takes energy to flow back into the membrane and the energy is captured during the ETC

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65
Q

what are the electron acceptors in the ETC?

A
  • cytochromes
  • quinones
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66
Q

how many complexes are in the ETC?

A

4

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67
Q

what is the function of the complexes in the ETC?

A
  • contains electron carriers
  • each complex is at a lower energy level
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68
Q

what is the final acceptor of the ETC?

A

O2
(aerobic respiration)

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69
Q

what is oxidative phosphorylation?

A

the synthesis of ATP from ADP using energy released in the ETC

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70
Q

what is the ATP Synthase? How does it produce energy?

A
  • an enzyme complex
  • H ions return through the matrix by going through the ATP synthase releasing potential energy as they move through the concentration gradient driving ADP phosphorylation (creating ATP)
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71
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytoplasm

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72
Q

Where does the citric acid cycle occur in the mitochondria?

A

matrix

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73
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytosol

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74
Q

reactants of glycolysis

A
  • glucose
  • ADP
  • ATP
  • NAD+
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75
Q

reactants of the citric acid cycle

A
  • pyruvate
  • NAD+
  • FAD
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76
Q

reactants of the ETC

A
  • O2
  • FADH2
  • NADH
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77
Q

products of glycolysis

A
  • pyruvate
  • ATP
  • NADH
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78
Q

products of the citric acid cycle

A
  • ATP
  • CO2
  • NADH
  • FADH2
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79
Q

products of the ETC

A
  • ATP
  • H2O
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80
Q

how many ATP produced from glycolysis per 1 glucose?

A

2 ATP

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81
Q

how many ATP produced from citric acid cycle per 1 glucose?

A

2 ATP

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82
Q

how many ATP produced from the ETC per 1 glucose?

A

32 ATP

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83
Q

define glycolysis

A

the biochemical pathway that breaks down a molecule of glucose into 2 molecules of pyruvate plus energy (2 ATP and 2 NADH)

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84
Q

what is alpha amylase?

A
  • an enzyme that breaks glycosidic bonds in carbohydrates (used in the first step of metabolism: digestion)
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85
Q

when alpha amylase is produced in the salivary glands where is it released?

A

the mouth

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86
Q

when alpha amylase is produced in the pancreas where is it released?

A

the small intestine

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87
Q

what is the major fuel for our body?

A

glucose

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88
Q

what is glucose turned into once entering a cell?

A

glucose-6-phosphate

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89
Q

is glucose-6-phosphate exergonic or endergonic?

A

exergonic

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90
Q

what happens to glucose after turning into glucose-6-phosphate? can it leave the cell?

A

because it is phosphorylated it cannot cross the cell membrane, thus trapping it inside the cell

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91
Q

what animal tissues is glucose a major source for?

A
  • embryo
  • nervous system
  • kidney
  • brain
  • RBC
  • tumors
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92
Q

how can plants use glucose?

A

the cell wall

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93
Q

why would drugs target the glucose in bacteria?

A

glucose is used to make the bacterias cell wall

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94
Q

how many total steps of glycolysis?

A

10 enzyme catalyzed reactions

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95
Q

glycolysis products

A
  • 2 pyruvate
  • 2 ATP
  • 2 NADH and H+
  • (2 H2O)
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96
Q

glycolysis reactants

A
  • glucose
  • 2 NAD+
  • 2 HOPO3^2-
  • 2 ADP
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97
Q

what is step one of glycolysis?

A

phosphorylation
- adding a phosphate group to glucose in the 6th position
- requires ATP

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98
Q

define hexokinase

A

enzyme assisting in the production of glucose-6-phosphate

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99
Q

what is the allosteric inhibitor of hexokinase?

A

glucose-6-phosphate

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100
Q

what are the three things that glucose-6-phosphate can do?

A
  1. glycolysis –> made into pyruvate
  2. liver –> glycogen
  3. pentose phosphate pathway –> DNA + RNA precursor
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101
Q

how many ATP total from aerobic respiration?

A

38 ATP

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102
Q

what are three major monosaccharides?

A
  • d-fructose
  • d-galactose
  • d-mannose
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103
Q

what happens to other sugars that enter the body?

A

they are converted to glucose and eventually join the glycolysis pathway

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104
Q

what is fruit sugar?

A

fructose

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105
Q

what is milk sugar?

A

galactose

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106
Q

what is starches/legumes sugars?

A

mannose

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107
Q

which sugar enters upstream of glucose-6-phosphate?

A

galactose

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108
Q

which sugar enters after glucose-6-phosphate?

A

fructose (enters as fructose-6-phosphate)

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109
Q

what are the three fates of pyruvate?

A
  1. acetyl-coa
  2. lactate/lactic acid
  3. ethyl alcohol
110
Q

what is the fate of pyruvate in aerobic cells?

A

acetyl-coa

111
Q

what is the fate of pyruvate in anaerobic muscle?

A

lactic acid

112
Q

what is the fate of pyruvate in anaerobic yeast?

A

ethyl alcohol

113
Q

location of glycolysis

A

cytosol of the cell

114
Q

location of the citric acid cycle

A

mitochondria - matrix

115
Q

location of the ETC

A

mitochondria - membrane

116
Q

what is the aerobic oxidation of pyruvate?

A

pyruvate moves across the outer mitochondrial membrane then carried by a transporter protein (MPC) across the inner mitochondrial membrane

117
Q

define MCP

A

mitochondrial pyruvate carrier

118
Q

define pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

A

catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-coa

119
Q

3 steps of aerobic oxidation of pyruvate

A
  1. a carboxyl group is removed from pyruvate releasing CO2
  2. an oxidation reaction occurs reducing NAD+ to NADH
  3. an acetyl group is transferred to coenzyme A, resulting in acetyl-coa
120
Q

what causes anaerobic respiration?

A

because there is no longer oxygen, NADH cannot be reoxidizes during the ETC

121
Q

what does lactate in anaerobic respiration do?

A

reoxidizes NAD+ BUT it is a major loss of energy

122
Q

if only anaerobic respiration occurs, how many ATP are produced?

A

2 ATP from glycolysis

123
Q

why would microorganisms have evolved to function in anaerobic conditions?

A

because they can not move to areas with oxygen

124
Q

define fermentation

A

microorganisms evolved to have numerous anaerobic strategies for energy production

125
Q

what products are made from anaerobic respiration/fermentation?

A
  • beer
  • wine
  • alcoholic beverages
  • bread
126
Q

what causes bread to rise?

A

CO2 causes bread to rise and the alcohol evaporates while baking

127
Q

how much ATP comes out of glycolysis?

A

two ATP

128
Q

how much ATP comes out of pyruvate oxidation

A

6 ATP

129
Q

how much ATP comes out of TCA cycle per glucose?

A

2 ATP

130
Q

what is a normal glucose concentration?

A

65 to 110 mg/dl

131
Q

define hypoglycemia

A

lower than normal blood glucose concentration

132
Q

define hyperglycemia

A

higher than normal blood glucose concentration

133
Q

what is the blood glucose concentration for uncontrolled diabetes?

A

> 140 mg/100ml

134
Q

what is the glucose concentration for someone in a pre diabetic state?

A

100-125 mg/100ml

135
Q

what are normal blood sugar levels?

A

70-100 mg/100ml

136
Q

what blood glucose would make someone unresponsive?

A

<30mg/100ml and >500mg/ml

137
Q

what two hormones regulate blood glucose?

A

insulin and glucagon

138
Q

where are insulin and glucagon released?

A

the pancreas

139
Q

when is insulin released?

A

when blood glucose is HIGH to speed up glycolysis

140
Q

when is glucagon released?

A

when blood glucose is LOW to get glucose in the blood

141
Q

how does glucagon get more glucose in the blood?

A

can take glycogen stored in the liver

142
Q

how much of our energy is stored in glycogen?

A

less than 1% energy reserve, it is used up in 15-20 hrs at normal activity

143
Q

what does the metabolism do when glucose and glycogen resources are gone (starvation)?

A

breaks down proteins, creates ketone bodies

144
Q

what is the keto diet?

A
  • minimize carbs
  • body uses fats/proteins as energy supply
  • ketone production (mostly from the liver)
145
Q

what are ketone bodies?

A

chemicals produced in the liver when there is not enough insulin in the blood and it must break down fat instead of glucose for energy

146
Q

what is the optimal range of ketone bodies?

A

10-30 blood ketones

147
Q

why can ketones be bad?

A

ketones are acidic chemicals that can build up in the blood (spill over into urine and lungs giving a fruity odor)

148
Q

define ketoacidosis

A

too many ketones in the body

149
Q

what can can happen if you get ketoacidosis?

A

lead to coma and diminished brain function

150
Q

define type II diabetes

A

produces insulin, back lacks recognition

151
Q

how can someone get type II diabetes?

A

it can develop over time

152
Q

treatment for type II diabetes

A

drugs that increase insulin or insulin receptor levels are an effective treatment because more undamaged receptors are put to work

153
Q

what is the most common type of diabetes?

A

type II diabetes

154
Q

define type I diabetes

A

not producing insulin

155
Q

how can someone get type I diabetes?

A

can be inherited

156
Q

what is the treatment for type I diabetes?

A

must supply insulin through a syringe

157
Q

what factors can increase the risk of diabetes?

A
  • high blood pressure
  • high fat and cholesterol
  • smoking
  • overweight
  • sedentary lifestyle
158
Q

why can glucose levels cause cataracts?

A

elevated glucose is reduced to sorbitol which can cause cataracts

159
Q

what are some complications of diabetes?

A
  • heart disease
  • stroke
  • kidney disease
  • blindness
  • neuropathy
  • skin problems
160
Q

how to manage diabetes?

A
  • diet low in fat and salt
  • increased exercise
  • stop smoking
  • checking bg and bp
    (type I: give insulin)
161
Q

define glycogenolysis

A

breakdown of glycogen

162
Q

define glycogenesis

A

synthesis of glycogen

163
Q

define gluconeogenosis

A

synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrates (lactate, glycerol, AA)

164
Q

when is gluconeogenosis needed?

A
  • fasting and early starvation
  • exercise (lactate covering to glucose)
165
Q

why is lactate production moved to the liver?

A

gluconeogenosis requires energy, so shifting the pathway to the liver frees the muscles from the burden of producing more energy

166
Q

what is the cori cycle?

A

converts lactate into pyruvate, the substrate for gluconeogenosis

167
Q

how is glycerol (fat) used in gluconeogenosis?

A

glycerol is converted to dihydroxyacetone and enters the gluconeogenosis pathway at step 7

168
Q

how are carbons from AA (proteins) used in gluconeogenosis?

A

the carbons will enter as pyruvate or oxaloacetate

169
Q

when does gluconeogenosis occur?

A

when fasting (the body maintains glucose)

170
Q

where does gluconeogenosis occur?

A
  • primarily in liver cells
  • also epithelial cells of kidney and intestine
171
Q

define gylcogenesis

A

the formation of glycogen from glucose

172
Q

when does glycogenesis occur?

A

when there is excess glucose and ATP insulin will promote the storage of glycogen in the liver and muscle cells

173
Q

what does glycogen look like?

A

branched polymer of glucose

174
Q

3 steps of glycogenesis

A
  1. glucose –> glucose-6-phosphate
  2. glucose-6-phosphate –> glucose-1-phosphate
  3. glucose-1-phosphate –> glycogen
175
Q

how does muscles use the glucose freed from glycogenolysis?

A

use immediately

176
Q

how does the liver use the glucose freed from glycogenolysis?

A

moves the glucose through the body

177
Q

examples of lipids

A
  • food (butter and oils)
  • steroids
  • soap
  • our body (phospholipids)
178
Q

What physical property to lipids share?

A

They are hydrophobic

179
Q

define amphipathic

A

both hydrophilic and hydrophobic

180
Q

types of simple lipids

A
  • fatty acids
  • waxes
  • triacylglycerols
181
Q

What are fatty acids?

A
  • animal fats and oils that have 12-22 carbon atoms
  • long chain carboxylic acid
182
Q

what are waxes?

A
  • secreted in animal skin, preform external protective functions
  • long straight hydrocarbon chains in both r groups
183
Q

what are triacylglycerols?

A
  • carboxylic acid trimesters of glycerol and 3 carbon trialcohol
  • make up the stored fats in our bodies
  • major source of energy
184
Q

two parts of a fatty acid

A
  • long hydrogarbon chain (hydrophobic)
  • carboxylic acid group (hydrophilic)
185
Q

define micelle

A

a spherical cluster formed by the aggregation of amphipathic so that the hydrophobic ends are at the center and hydrophilic is in the outside

186
Q

define membranes as a lipid bilayer

A
  • polar head (hydrophilic) on the outside
  • non polar tail (hydrophobic) on inside
  • 2 parallel sheets
187
Q

define liposome

A

a spherical structure in which a lipid bilayer surrounds a water droplet

188
Q

what is the fluid mosaic model?

A
  • represents structure of the cell membrane
  • fluid = moving
  • mosaic = contains many molecules
189
Q

What is a triacylglycerols made up of?

A

glycerol backbone with 3 FA tails

190
Q

define saturated

A

single carbon bonds only

191
Q

define unsaturated

A

one or more carbon double bonds (cis bonds)

192
Q

why are oils liquid?

A

they are highly unsaturated

193
Q

why are some fats solid?

A

they are highly saturated

194
Q

why do saturated fats have a higher melting point?

A

they are linear and pack together

195
Q

why do unsaturated fats have a lower melting point?

A

there are kinks that make it difficult to pack together

196
Q

difference between cis and trans fatty acids?

A
  • cis = kink
  • tans = linear
197
Q

why are trans fats bad?

A

they pack well making it thick, we cannot digest it

198
Q

why are cis double bond healthier?

A

the chains don’t pack as well, promotes fluidity of cell membranes

199
Q

why is it bad to hydrogenate (saturate) double bonds in vegetable oils?

A

not every bond gets saturated and some of the natural cis bonds that were healthier are converted to trans fats which are not as healthy

200
Q

What are some foods that contain trans fats?

A
  • buttered microwavable popcorn
  • pizza dough
  • pastries and baked goods
  • coffee creamers
  • deep fried chicken
201
Q

some complex lipids

A
  • phospholipids
  • sphingomyelins
  • glycolipids
202
Q

what is a phospholipid made up of?

A
  • phosphate head (hydrophilic)
  • 2 FA tails (hydrophobic)
203
Q

what are phospholipids used for?

A
  • cell membrane
  • cellular signaling
  • transportation of cholesterol
  • dynamic
204
Q

what are sphingomyelin made up of?

A
  • 1 fatty acid tail
  • 1 phospholipid head group
  • 1 amide bound fatty acid tail
205
Q

main function of sphingomyelin

A

essential to the structure of cell membrane and in nerve cell membranes

206
Q

what are glycolipids made up of?

A
  • 1 fatty acid tail
  • 1 amide bound fatty acid tail
  • 1 sugar head group
207
Q

main functions of glycolipids

A
  • maintains cellular surface
  • signaling molecule
  • immune system (blood type)
208
Q

what is a non-glycerol lipid?

an example

A

sterols

209
Q

what are sterols derived from?

A

cholesterol

210
Q

what is the most abundant animal sterol?

A

cholesterol

211
Q

what are bile acids used for?

A

emulsifies fat, used to digest greasy hydrophobic things

212
Q

define eicosanoids

A

special type of localized intercellular chemical messenger

213
Q

define saponification

A

hydrolysis of fats and oils carried out by strong aqueous bases to form soap

214
Q

define soap

A

the mixture of salts and fatty acids formed by saponification of animal fats

215
Q

define micelle

A

a spherical cluster formed by the aggregation of soap or detergent molecules so that their hydrophobic ends are in the center and hydrophobic ends are on the outside

216
Q

How does soap work?

A

hydrophobic end dissolves in water and the hydrophobic ens dissolves in grease and once suspended in micelles it can be rinsed off

217
Q

define cell membrane

A

barrier between interior of cell and the world, hydrophobic gatekeeper

218
Q

cell membranes are made up of:

A
  • phospholipids
  • glycoproteins
  • proteins
  • cholesterol
219
Q

2 types of membrane associate proteins

A
  1. peripheral protein (one side of bilayer)
  2. integral proteins (completely through the membrane)
220
Q

define active transport

A

moving substances across the cell membrane using energy

221
Q

types of passive transport (don’t use energy)

A
  • passive transport (high to low concentration)
  • simple diffusion (channel protein)
  • facilitated diffusion (protein that changes shape)
222
Q

where are tiacylglycerols digested?

A

begins in the stomach

223
Q

define pancreatic lipase

A

partially hydrolyzes the emulsified triglycerides producing mainly mono and diaclyglycerols, FA, and glycerol

224
Q

where are smaller FA and glycerol absorbed

A

because they are water soluble they are directly absorbed through the vili

225
Q

where are insoluble acylglycerols and larger FA absorbed?

A

in the intestine they are packaged into lipoproteins (chylomicrons) and enter through the lymphatic system

226
Q

define chylomicron

A

a lipoprotein that brings the bulk of lipids through the micelle, transport from small intestine to liver

227
Q

define VLDL

A
  • very low density lipoproteins
  • transport TAG from liver to tissues
228
Q

define LDL

A
  • low density lipoprotein
  • carry cholesterol from liver
229
Q

why are lots of LDL bad?

A

can cause the formation of arterial plaque

230
Q

define HDL

A
  • high density lipoprotein
  • move cholesterol from dead cells back to liver
231
Q

what lipoprotein do we want lots of?

A

HDL

232
Q

list the lipoproteins largest to smallest?

A
  1. chylomicron
  2. VLDL
  3. IDL
  4. LDL
  5. HDL
233
Q

define hyperlipidemia

A

too much LDL, narrowing of the arteries due to plaque build up of cholesterol

234
Q

define serum albumin

A

transports lipids directly

235
Q

risk factors of heart disease

A
  • high cholesterol (LDL)
  • low HDL
  • cigarette smoking
  • high blood pressure
  • diabetes
  • obesity
  • family history
236
Q

define statins

A

inhibits cholesterol synthesis

237
Q

liver functions

A
  1. detoxify dangerous molecules
  2. keep blood glucose levels steady
  3. stores extra energy as TAGs by synthesizing FA
238
Q

what are acetyl groups used for?

A
  • TAG synthesis
  • ketone synthesis
  • steroid synthesis
  • TCA and beta oxidation
  • phosphorylation
239
Q

What happens to TAG after being broken down into fatty acids and glycerol?

A

moves out of the cell carried by albumin to target cells in the bloodstream, travels to the kidney or liver

240
Q

Oxidation of FA: 3 Processes

A
  1. activation (using energy to convert FA to acetyl-coa)
  2. transport (acetyl-coa to matrix)
  3. oxidation (beta oxidation)
241
Q

define beta oxidation

A

4 steps to remove an acetyl group from the fatty acid tail (spiral processes)

242
Q

how much ATP is used in activation for the oxidation of a fatty acid?

A

2 ATP

243
Q

how much greater is the energy yield from FA than CHO?

A

3 times

244
Q

why is there more energy storage of fat than glycogen?

A

greater energy per unit from fat than glycogen

245
Q

liver cell fuel

A

FA

246
Q

fat cell fuel

A

glucose

247
Q

brain cell fuel

A

glucose

248
Q

heart muscle fuel

A

FA

249
Q

red blood cells fuel

A

glucose

250
Q

when are TAG stored?

A

when energy needs are low (extra fat, carbs, proteins, alcohol are stored as TAG)

251
Q

define lipogenesis

A

provides a link between carbohydrate, lipids, and protein metabolism (2 carbons at a time)

252
Q

T/F the greater fat you have the longer you will survive without food?

A

True

253
Q

define the digestion of proteins

A

the hydrolysis of all peptide binds to produce a collection of amino acids

254
Q

where does protein digestion occur?

A
  • stomach
  • small intestine
255
Q

how are proteins digested in the stomach?

A
  • low ph denatures the protein
  • pepsin is activated to break the peptide bonds
256
Q

how are proteins digested in the small intestine

A

pancreatic zymogens break the bonds

257
Q

what is the most important pancreatic zymogen in the small intestine for breaking down proteins?

A

trypsin

258
Q

why is trypsin so important?

A

without trypsin, all other proteases in the small intestine would be inactive

259
Q

what happens after dietary proteins are turned into amino acids?

A

AA are then actively transported across the cell membrane in the intestine and then directly absorbed into the bloodstream

260
Q

define amino acid pool

A

the entire collection of free amino acids in the body (used for metabolism, signaling and synthesis)

261
Q

what is the general scheme of AA catabolism?

A
  1. remove amine group
  2. use NH2 for synthesis of small molecules
  3. N goes to urea cycle
  4. corporation of c-skeletons into the compounds that enter the citric acid cycle
262
Q

define urea cycle

A

the cyclic biochemical pathway that produces urea for excretion

263
Q

what goes into the urea cycle?

A

NH3 (ammonia) and CO2 (aspartate and 2 ATP)

264
Q

what come out of the urea cycle?

A

urea

265
Q

what animals do not need to do the urea cycle?

A

fish

266
Q

define ketogenic AA

A

enter ketogenesis through acetyl-coa

267
Q

define glycogenic AA

A

enter cycle as oxaloacetate (citric acid cycle)

268
Q

what AA are ketogenic ONLY?

A

lysine and leucine

269
Q

how many AA are nonessential?

A

11

270
Q

how many AA are essential?

A

9

271
Q

during the biosynthesis of nonessential AA what are amine groups derived from?

A

glutamate

272
Q

define phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

failure to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine
- can cause mental retardation
- keep away from food with aspartame
- mandated blood screening in babies