Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the monomer of a protein?

A

amino acid

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2
Q

what is the structure of an amino acid

A

amine group (NH2), carboxyl group (COOH), an R group, all bonded to a central (alpha) carbon

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3
Q

All proteins are built from _____ amino acids

A

20

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4
Q

how many neutral AA?

A

15

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5
Q

why are side chains so important?

A

they enable proteins to perform their functions

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6
Q

are nonpolar side chains hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

A

hydrophobic, gather into clusters (oil and water)

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7
Q

are polar, basic, and acidic side chains hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

A

hydrophilic, surface of folded proteins impart water solubility of proteins

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8
Q

how many AA are chiral?

A

19

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9
Q

which AA is achiral?

A

glycine

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10
Q

what is the only secondary amine?

A

proline

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11
Q

what is the importance of intermolecular forces of proteins?

A

important in determining interactions between amino acids

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12
Q

what are the 4 different intermolecular forces in order from strongest to weakest?

A
  1. ionic + covalent bonds
  2. hydrogen bonds
  3. dipole-dipole forces (disulfide bond)
  4. van der waals forces
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13
Q

explain a hydrogen bond b/w AAs

A

side chains can form hydrogen bonds, connecting different parts of a protein molecule

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14
Q

explain van der waals forces

A

the overall charge of the molecules brings them together (weak)

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15
Q

explain hydrophobic interactions of AA

A

hydrophobic (nonpolar) molecules come together and expel the water between them

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16
Q

explain a disulfide bond

A

creates a covalent bond b/w sulfurs

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17
Q

what is a peptide bond?

A

an amide bond that links 2 AA together, PLANAR, releases a water molecule

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18
Q

how do you name peptides?

A

citing AA residues in order

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19
Q

define zitterion

A

a neutral dipolar ion that has one pos charge and one neg charge

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20
Q

amino acid net charge

A

0, NH3 is + and COOH is - so cancels = 0

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21
Q

define isoelectric point (pi)

A

describes the ph at which a sample of an amino acid has an equal number of + and - charges
(AA each have their own pi due to the side chain)

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22
Q

how many essential AA are there?

A

9

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23
Q

what are essential AA?

A

amino acids that the human body cannot produce, must be consumed in the diet

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24
Q

define metabolism

A

chemical reactions maintaining living state

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25
Q

define catabolism

A

breakdown of molecules to form energy

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26
Q

define anabolism

A

synthesis of compounds needed by cells

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27
Q

define a primary structure

A

sequence of AA in a protein chain (order of the AA)

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28
Q

be able to label a primary structure (protein backbone, peptide bonds, and side chains

A

check notes

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29
Q

why is the primary structure important?

A

primary function is crucial to the function of the protein that the change of even one AA can drastically alter a proteins biological properties

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30
Q

define secondary protein structure

A

spatial arrangement of the polypeptide backbones determines the secondary protein structure

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31
Q

what does the alpha helix of the secondary protein structure look like?

A

coil, stabilized by h bonds along the backbone with r groups positioned on the Purdue of the helix, carbonyl group + amide

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32
Q

what does the beta sheet of the secondary protein structure look like?

A

flat sheet-like structure, adjacent protein chains held together by h bonds along the backbones

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33
Q

parallel beta sheet

A

peptide chains in same direction

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34
Q

anti parallel beta sheet

A

turned around/ladder

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35
Q

2 classes of proteins from the secondary structure

A
  • fibrous (tough, insoluble)
  • globular (globe shape, water soluble)
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36
Q

examples of fibrous proteins

A

wool, hair, fingernails

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37
Q

examples of globular proteins

A

alcohol dehydrogenase, serum albumin

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38
Q

what is collagen?

A

secondary structure protein, found in skin, cartilage, blood vessels, bone
–> left handed alpha helix

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39
Q

what disease is associated with collagen?

A

scurvy, lack of vitamin C causing alpha helix to destabilize

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40
Q

define tertiary protein structure

A

the way an entire protein chain is coiled and folded into its specific 3D shape (determined by primary structure)

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41
Q

define native protein

A

a protein with the shape in which it functions in living systems

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42
Q

define simple protein

A

composed of only AA residues

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43
Q

what are simple proteins?

A

they can function alone

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44
Q

what are conjugated proteins?

A

aided by a non-amino acid unit

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45
Q

define quaternary protein structure

A

the way in which two or more protein chains aggregate to form large, ordered structures

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46
Q

what is hemoglobin?

A

a protein in a quaternary structure composed of 4 polypeptide chains held together by hydrophobic interactions and 4 heme groups (function: carries O2 around the body and CO2 out of the body)

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47
Q

what is protein hydrolysis?

A

breaking down proteins, peptide bonds hydrolyzed to yield AA (proteases can do this)

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48
Q

what is chymotrypsin’s function?

A

hydrolyzes a peptide bond on the carboxyl-terminal side of aromatic AA

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49
Q

what is trypsin’s function?

A

hydrolyzes peptide bonds on the carboxyl side of lysine and arginine

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50
Q

what is the n-terminal of a peptide?

A

the AA on the end (left) with amine group on the end

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51
Q

what is the c-terminal of a peptide?

A

the AA on the end (right) with the carboxyl group on the end

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52
Q

define denaturation

A

loss of the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary protein structure

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53
Q

agents that cause denaturation

A
  • heat
  • mechanical agitation
  • detergents
  • organic compounds
  • ph change
  • inorganic salts
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54
Q

what is the connection between protein misfolding and neurodegeneration?

A

neurodegeneration is often attributed to proteins that are not folded the correct way

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55
Q

what are some causes of protein misfolding/neurodegeneration?

A
  • head trauma
  • genetic mutation
  • age
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56
Q

what are amyloid fibrils?

A

stable protein aggregates that form under certain conditions, makes long, stiff fibers of proteins that cause damage to cells and leads to neurodegeneration

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57
Q

what causes Alzheimers?

A

brain tissue formed from the amyloid B peptides

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58
Q

how to prevent Alzheimers?

A
  • diet/eating healthy
  • exercise
  • low doses of aspirin
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59
Q

define enzymes

A

a special class of proteins that act as a catalyst for a biological reaction

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60
Q

What is an enzymatic unit?

A

the time it takes for an enzyme to perform a task
(number of molecules changed from reactant to product per unit of time)

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61
Q

How are enzymes named?

A

most end with -ase

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62
Q

How are enzymes catalysts?

A
  • lowers the energy barrier for a reaction
  • gives direction to a biochemical reaction
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63
Q

Can enzymes be reused?

A

yes

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64
Q

explain specificity with enzymes

A

the limitation of the activity of an enzyme to a specific substrate or type of reaction
- structure of enzyme
- specific to chiral centers
- relates to rate

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65
Q

What is a turnover number?

A
  • measures catabolic activity
  • the max number of substate molecules acted upon
  • (per enzyme unit time)
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66
Q

define active site

A

pocket with a specific shape and chemical makeup necessary to bind a substrate

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67
Q

define substrate

A

a reactant in an enzyme (catalyzed reaction)

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68
Q

How enzymes work, 4 steps written out?

A

E + S –> ES –> EP –> E +P

  • E=enzyme
  • S=substrate
  • P=product
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69
Q

Why are cofactors needed?

A

the functional groups of proteins are limited to those of the AA side chains, so by combining with cofactors enzymes gain chemically reactive groups that are not available as side chains

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70
Q

What are cofactors?

A

METALS
- get from the diet
- bind to the enzyme
- ex: Cu2+, Fe2+, etc.

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71
Q

What are coenzymes?

A

organic molecules
- NOT BOUND
- ex: NAD

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72
Q

How are vitamins and coenzymes related?

A

vitamins help to build/synthesize coenzymes

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73
Q

4 major factors affecting enzyme activity

A
  • substrate concentration
  • enzyme concentration
  • temperature
  • ph
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74
Q

How does substrate concentration affect enzyme activity?

A
  • more substrates = higher rate
  • less substrates = lower rate
  • there is a maximum
    (exponential)
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75
Q

How does enzyme concentration affect enzyme activity?

A

more enzymes in a given volume, the quicker the rate will be
(linear)

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76
Q

How does temperature affect enzyme activity?

A
  • max is when it reaches the optimal temperature
  • too hot, will denature
    (bell curve)
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77
Q

How does pH affect enzyme activity?

A
  • enzymes vary on optimal ph
  • (most enzymes max activity at about 5-)
  • most enzymes will denature in extreme ph
    (multiple bell curves dependent on enzyme)
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78
Q

6 main classes of enzymes

A
  • oxidoreductases
  • transferases
  • hydrolyses
  • isomerases
  • lyases
  • ligases
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79
Q

function of oxidoreductases

A
  • oxidoses –> oxidation of O2 to substrate
  • reductases –> reduction of a substrate
  • require coenzymes
    EXAMPLE: NAD –> NADH
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80
Q

function of transferases

A
  • catalyze transfer of a group from one molecule to another
    EXAMPLE: ATP –> ADP + PO3^2-
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81
Q

function of hydrolases

A
  • breaking down (lipases, proteases, amylases, etc)
  • important in digestion
    EXAMPLE: polypeptide chain –> AA
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82
Q

function of isomerases

A
  • rearrange the bond placement (change chirality)
    EXAMPLE: A –> B
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83
Q

function of lyases

A
  • addition of simple organic groups (H2O, CO2, NH3) yo a double bond
  • no energy required
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84
Q

function of ligases

A
  • addition (bonding 2 substrates)
  • NEED ENERGY
  • proteins and DNA formed
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85
Q

enzymes act as catalysts because of:

A
  1. proximity
  2. orientation
  3. catalytic effect
  4. energy effect
  5. rate of reaction
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86
Q

what are the 2 theories on how a substate fits into an active site?

A
  • lock and key model
  • induced fit model
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87
Q

what is the lock and key model?

A
  • a substrate will only fit into an enzyme with the correct shape
  • flaw = assumes enzymes are static
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88
Q

what is the induced fit model?

A
  • enzyme changes shape as substrate fits into active site
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89
Q

is the lock and key model or induced fit model more accurate for how an enzyme fits into an active site?

A

induced fit model because it accounts for the enzyme moving

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90
Q

3 general enzyme regulators

A
  • activation
  • inhibition
  • feedback and allosteric control
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91
Q

define an enzyme regulator: activation

A

any process that starts or increases the action of an enzyme

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92
Q

define an enzyme regulator: inhibition

A

any process the slows or stops the action of an enzyme

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93
Q

define an enzyme regulator: feedback control

A

regulation of an enzymes activity by the product of a reaction later in the pathway
- negative feedback = stops reaction
- positive feedback = continues reaction

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94
Q

what is negative feedback?

A

the product at the end of the pathway stops the reaction

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95
Q

what is positive feedback?

A

the product at the end of the pathway continues the reaction

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96
Q

define an enzyme regulator: allosteric control

A

product binds to enzyme in a place separate from the active site and changes shape of the enzyme/active site
- negative = substrate cannot bind
- positive = substrate can now bind

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97
Q

what is negative allosteric control?

A

the allosteric regulator is bound the the enzyme and the substrate cannot bind

98
Q

what is positive allosteric control?

A

the allosteric regulator is bound the the enzyme and the substrate can now bind

99
Q

what are the 2 types of inhibition?

A
  1. competitive
  2. noncompetitive
100
Q

what is competitive inhibition?

A

the wrong substate will come in and keep out the actual substate

101
Q

what is noncompetitive inhibition?

A

an inhibitor binds to a different place and changes the enzymes shape so the substate cannot bind to the active site

102
Q

what is an irreversible inhibitor?

A
  • inhibitor binds to enzyme (covalent) and NEVER COMES OFF
  • the enzyme is useless and is destroyed
    EXAMPLES: penicillin, aspirin, sarin
103
Q

examples of poisons that are enzyme inhibitors

A
  • venom
  • heavy metals (irreversible)
  • cyanide (irreversible)
104
Q

examples of enzyme inhibitors that are drugs

A
  • ace inhibitor
  • HIV protease inhibitor
  • proton pump inhibitor
  • cox-2 inhibitors
105
Q

explain the ace inhibitor

A

inhibitor of angiotensin I converting enzyme
- competitive inhibitor
- brings down blood pressure

106
Q

explain the HIV protease inhibitor

A

ritonovir, binds to HIV protease active site
- inhibits HIV production
- competitive inhibitor

107
Q

explain the proton pump inhibitor

A

inhibits the hydrogen potassium ATPase in parietal cells of stomach, inhibiting HCl secretion
- noncompetitive inhibitor
- helps with heart burn

108
Q

explain the COX-2 inhibitor

A

bind to COX-2 enzyme responsible for inflammation and pain
- ibuprofen! (competitive) and Celebrex

109
Q

define zymogen

A

enzyme is released as inactive and undergoes a chemical change to be activated

110
Q

explain the genetic control of enzyme regulation

A

the synthesis of all proteins, including enzymes, are regulated by genes
(example: lactase is not typically synthesized in adults)

111
Q

draw glycine

A

R chain = H

112
Q

draw alanine

A

R chain = CH3

113
Q

draw cysteine

A

R chain = CH2-SH

114
Q

draw aspartate

A

R chain = CH2-COO-

115
Q

draw lysine

A

R chain: CH2(x4)-NH2+

116
Q

define vitamin

A

an organic molecule, essential in trace amounts, that must be obtained in the diet because it is NOT synthesized in the body

117
Q

what are the 2 classifications of vitamins?

A
  • fat soluble
  • water soluble
118
Q

what vitamins are fat soluble?

A

A, D, E, K

119
Q

what vitamins are water soluble?

A

vitamin b complex and C

120
Q

why can you eat a lot of water soluble vitamins?

A

because excess can be easily removed in urine

121
Q

vitamin c deficiency and excess

A

deficiency: scurvy
excess: kidney stones

122
Q

what is vitamin B3 (niacin)

A
  • sources: grains, cheeses, nuts, chicken
  • precursor to NAD+ (oxidoreductase coenzyme)
  • deficiency: dermatitis, weakness, mental confusion
123
Q

what is vitamin B7 (biotin)

A
  • sources: shampoos, fruits, vegetables, nuts, grains
  • benefits: energy support, healthy liver, skin, eyes, hair, nerves, nails, and glucose
124
Q

what is vitamin C used for

A

need vitamin C to transfer of hydroxyl groups to proline to stabilize alpha helix structure
- left handed helix

125
Q

what is vitamin E

A
  • prevents breakdown of vitamins A and FA (antioxidants)
  • source: meat, milk, vegetables
  • deficiency: anemia, other
  • excess: none
126
Q

what is vitamin K

A
  • essential for liver synthesis of prothrombin and other clotting factors
  • source: vegetables, intestinal bacteria
  • deficiency: bleeding disorders
  • excess: liver disfunction, jaundice
127
Q

define antioxidants

A

a substance that prevents oxidation by reacting with and oxidizing agent (diffuse free radicals)

128
Q

define free radicals

A

reactive molecular fragments with unpaired electrons that gain stability by picking up electrons from nearby molecules

129
Q

why are free radicals bad?

A
  • they steal from healthy atoms
  • uncontrolled, domino effect of damage, attracted to DNA
130
Q

how do antioxidants diffuse free radicals?

A

give the electron to the free radical thereby diffusing it

131
Q

What causes free radicals?

A
  • UV damage
  • inflammation
  • air pollution
  • smoking
  • ionizing radiation
  • metabolism
132
Q

dietary antioxidants

A
  • vitamin C
  • vitamin E
  • selenium (cofactor)
133
Q

define mineral

A

an enzyme cofactor, metals in the diet

134
Q

transition metals as minerals

A
  • form positive charge ions
  • different ionic states (+1 to +5)
  • all combine to enzymes
135
Q

what are macro minerals?

A

required daily amounts (greater than 100mg/d)

136
Q

examples of macro minerals

A

Ca, P, Mg, K, Na, Cl, S

137
Q

what are micro minerals?

A

need less of these (transition elements)

138
Q

examples of micro minerals

A

transition elements
- chromium, copper, manganese, molybdenum, selenium, zinc

139
Q

Calcium as a macro nutrient: use, source, deficiency, excess

A
  • use: bone formation + muscle contraction
  • source: dairy, eggs, beans
  • deficient: osteoporosis, muscle cramps
  • excess: kidney stones, heart arrhythmias
140
Q

define carbohydrates

A

a large class of naturally occurring polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones

141
Q

carbohydrates general formula

A

CnH2nOn

142
Q

how to name carbohydrates?

A
  • family name ending in -ose
  • simple sugars = common names
  • number of carbons = prefix (try, treat, pent, hex, hept)
143
Q

define monosaccharide

A

contain 3-7 carbon atoms and one aldehyde or ketone group

144
Q

naming a monosaccharide

A
  1. identify ketone (ketose) or aldehyde (aldose)\
  2. count amount of carbons and determine the prefix
  3. combine with -ose
145
Q

name this molecule: aldehyde, 6 carbons

A

aldohexose

146
Q

what is special about carbohydrate functional groups?

A

they are involved in reactions with alcohols, lipids, or proteins to form biomolecules

147
Q

are all carbohydrates chiral?

A

no, proline is achiral

148
Q

D vs L carbohydrate?

A

chiral carbon atom furthest from the carbonyl group before the last carbon
- D = right
- L = left

149
Q

what are more often seen in nature: D or L carbohydrates?

A

D

150
Q

how many carbons is in an aldehyde ring?

A

6

151
Q

how many carbons is in an pentose ring?

A

5

152
Q

draw glucose

A

check notes

153
Q

draw fructose

A

check notes

154
Q

draw sorbitol

A

check notes

155
Q

What is d-glucose used for in the human body?

A

dextrose or blood sugar

156
Q

What is the most widely occurring monosaccharide and most important functionally?

A

glucose

157
Q

what is the most important simple carbohydrate in human metabolism?

A

glucose

158
Q

what 2 hormones regulate glucose?

A

insulin and glucagon

159
Q

what is galactose used for?

A

d-galactose is distributed in plant gums, pectins, and a component in disaccharide lactose

160
Q

what is galactosemia?

A

galactose deficiency, an inherited (recessive) deficiency of several enzymes needed to metabolize galactose
–> build up causing vomiting, liver failure, brain damage, and cataracts

161
Q

what is fructose used for?

A

it is a fruit sugar (in honey and many fruits)

162
Q

what is ribose and deoxyribose

A

both are 5 carbon aldehyde sugars, RNA and DNA

163
Q

what happens when you oxidize a sugar?

A

it burns fast, very controlled in our body

164
Q

glucose reduces to sorbitol

A

an addition of H2, aldehyde converted to a ketone

165
Q

what is type 2 diabetes?

A
  • increase of sorbitol buildup in intestines
  • higher glucose
166
Q

define glycosidic bond

A

bond that connects 2 monosaccharides

167
Q

define hydrolysis

A

adding water to break the bonds

168
Q

define disaccharide structure

A
  • 2 monosaccharides connected by glycosidic bond (alpha or beta)
  • create a 1,4 link
169
Q

glucose + fructose

A

sucrose

170
Q

galactose + glucose

A

lactose

171
Q

glucose + glucose

A

maltose

172
Q

explain maltose

A
  • fermenting grains
  • alpha 1,4 link
  • food sweetener
  • digested in the small intestine
173
Q

explain lactose

A
  • milk sugar
  • beta 1,4 link
  • lactose intolerance
174
Q

explain sucrose

A
  • 1,2 anomeric link
  • table sugar (beets and cane)
  • sucrase enzyme
175
Q

what are the sweetest sugars?

A

synthetic sugars

176
Q

how do we taste?

A
  1. molecules are “sensed” by taste cells
  2. cells release a signaling compound
  3. ion channel conformational channels trigger a neuron to the brain (sweet, salty, bitter, like, don’t like)
177
Q

define polysaccharides

A

polymers of tens, hundreds, or even thousands of monosaccharides linked together through glycosidic bonds

178
Q

examples of polysaccharides

A
  • cellulose (fiber)
  • amylose (starch)
  • amylopectin (starch)
  • glycogen
179
Q

cellulose source

A

plant – fiber (structure)

180
Q

cellulose subunit

A

glucose (1000s)

181
Q

cellulose bond

A

beta 1,4

182
Q

cellulose structure

A

compact, dense structure with NO BRANCHES

183
Q

what are some examples of cellulose?

A
  • plants
  • wool/cotton
  • wood/paper/cardboard
  • thickener in food
184
Q

starch examples

A
  • amylose (~20%)
  • amylopectin (~80%)
    ex: beans, wheat, rice, potatoes
185
Q

starch source

A

plant

186
Q

starch subunit

A

glucose

187
Q

what bond does amylose have?

A

only alpha 1,4, NO BRANCHING

188
Q

what bond does amylopectin have?

A

alpha 1,4 and 1,6 BECAUSE BRANCHING

189
Q

is cellulose digestible by humans?

A

NO

190
Q

are starches digestible by humans?

A

YES

191
Q

what enzyme breaks down starches?

A

amylase

192
Q

glycogen source

A

animal (liver and skeletal muscle)

193
Q

glycogen subunit

A

glucose

194
Q

glycogen bonds

A

1,4 and 1,6 (branches)

195
Q

what is glycogen storage disease?

A
  • cannot break down glycogen
  • continues to store
196
Q

how is glycogen stored in athlete’s different than average?

A
  • athletes can train their body to store more glycogen
  • rate of consumption is regulated by effort
197
Q

what are the blood types?

A
  • A
  • B
  • AB
  • O
198
Q

what are the differences between blood types?

A

the differences are based on the presence of 3 different oligosaccharide units = A, B, O

199
Q

why is O blood type the universal donor?

A

O has a similar composition to A and B so A, B, and AB will lack the antibodies to cell type O

200
Q

why can AB receive all blood types?

A

has A and B molecules on red cells so it has no antibodies to A, B, or O

201
Q

define energy

A

can be converted from one form to another but can be neither created or destroyed

202
Q

animal cell respiration formula

A

food + O2 —> CO2 + H2O + energy
(oxidation reaction)

203
Q

plant formula

A

CO2 + H2O —> C6H12O6 + O2

204
Q

what are our bodies specific requirements for energy?

A
  • must be released from food gradually
  • stored in an accessible form
  • release must be finely controlled
  • just enough energy released for temp
  • energy needs to be available to drive chemical reactions that are not favorable at body temp
205
Q

explain Gibbs Free Energy

A

equation to explain whether a reaction is favorable or not depends on either release to absorption of energy as heat, together with the increase and decrease of disorder

206
Q

Gibbs free energy equation

A

G= H - T(S)

207
Q

G means (Gibbs free energy)

A

Gibbs free energy

208
Q

H means (Gibbs free energy)

A

enthalpy

209
Q

T means (Gibbs free energy)

A

temperature

210
Q

S means (Gibbs free energy)

A

entropy

211
Q

what does it mean is Gibbs free energy is negative

A

exergonic reaction (reaction will spontaneously occur)

212
Q

what does it mean if Gibbs free energy is positive

A

endergonic reaction (reaction will NOT spontaneously occur)

213
Q

exergonic definition

A

A spontaneous reaction or process that
releases free energy and has a negative G

214
Q

endergonic definition

A

A nonspontaneous reaction or process
that absorbs free energy and has a positive G

215
Q

what is a favorable reaction?

A

exergonic reaction, high reactant energy and low product energy

216
Q

what is an unfavorable reaction?

A

endergonic reaction, low reactant energy and high product energy

217
Q

does the number size matter in Gibbs free energy?

A

yes, larger the number the more energy they need

218
Q

what are pathways?

A

a series of enzyme - catalyzed chemical reactions that are connected by their intermediates, product of first reaction is used in the next reaction and so on

219
Q

define prokaryotic cell

A

single celled organism (bacteria, blue green algae)

220
Q

define eukaryotic cell

A

found in single celled yeast and all plants and animals

221
Q

what are the differences between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?

A
  • eukaryotic are 1000 times larger
  • prokaryotic have a cell wall and no membrane bound organelles
222
Q

what are organelles?

A

small, functional units that perform specific tasks

223
Q

what is a membrane bound nucleus?

A

stores DNA in eukaryotic cells

224
Q

what is cytoplasm?

A

region between cells and nuclear membranes

225
Q

what is cytosol?

A

fluid of cytoplasm (electrolytes, nutrients, enzymes)

226
Q

what is the function of mitochondria?

A

small molecules are broken down to provide energy (ATP) for an organism

227
Q

structure of the mitochondria

A
  • matrix = citric acid cycle
  • inner surface of cell membrane = ETC
  • cristae = folds in the inner membrane
  • double lipid bilayer
  • contains own set of DNA (from the mother)
228
Q

metabolism definition

A

the sum of all chemical reactions that take place in an organism

229
Q

catabolism definition

A

breaking down, releasing energy

230
Q

anabolism definition

A

building larger molecules

231
Q

activation definition

A

any process that starts or increases the action of an enzyme

232
Q

inhibition definition

A

Any process that slows or stops the action of an enzyme

233
Q

feedback and allosteric control

A

two strategies for enzyme regulation

234
Q

3 Types of Metabolic Pathways

A
  • a linear sequence
  • a cyclic sequence
  • a spiral sequence
235
Q

4 Stages of Metabolism

A
  1. digestion (catabolism)
  2. acetyl-coenzyme A production
  3. citric acid cycle
  4. ATP production
236
Q

what is a derivative of B5?

A

acetyl-CoA

237
Q

Stage 1: Digestion

A

enzymes break down molecules

238
Q

Stage 2: Acetyl-Cozenzyme A Production

A

Acetyl groups are attached to coenzyme A by a bond
between sulfur of the thiol group on coenzyme A and
the carbonyl carbon of the acetyl
(thiol group=the AA cystine)

239
Q

Stage 3: Citric Acid Cycle

A

break down acetyl CoA to produce energy (NADH and FADH2)

240
Q

Stage 4: ATP Production

A

NADH and FADH2 are passed through the ETC to produce ATP