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IMMUNO > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Antibody affinity

A

strength of binding between a recognition site and epitope

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2
Q

antibody avidity

A

sum of all binding affinities between an antibody and antigen (could be multiple epitopes)

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3
Q

Which antibody is most often used in diagnostic tests?

A

IgG

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4
Q

which antibody can used for earliest detection of disease?

A

IgM

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5
Q

Polyclonal antibodies

A

very sensitive, comes from an immune response from another host, used all the antibodies (inexpensive, easier to develop)

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6
Q

monoclonal antibodies

A

very specific, use tumor cells to create a single copy of an antibody, recognize a single epitope (expensive, easy to mass produce)

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7
Q

how is conjugation used to detect disease?

A

specific enzymes attached to antibodies so they can be identified using normally a color they break down (HRP-luminol and AP-fast red)

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8
Q

ELISA test

A

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, light absorbance measured directly using a spectrophotometer (quantitative serology test)

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9
Q

virus neutralization test

A

serum dilutions performed to determine lowest level of antibodies in solution necessary for preventing cell death (quantitative/semi-qualitative serology test), test for ANTIBODIES

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10
Q

sensitivity

A

detection of small amount of disease, correctly identifies animal WITH disease

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11
Q

specificity

A

detection of disease among other proteins, correctly identifies animals WITHOUT disease

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12
Q

DFA testing

A

Direct fluorescent antibodies test, wash with fluorescent labeled disease specific antibodies, look for ANTIGEN

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13
Q

What sample do you need for rabies DFA testing?

A

FRESH brain

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14
Q

What sample do you need for distemper DFA testing?

A

ocular/nasal discharge

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15
Q

What general values indicate positive viral antibodies in a VN test

A

> 1:80 (second number HIGHER)

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16
Q

ANA testing

A

anti-nuclear antibody testing identifies presence of ANTIBODIES targeting dsDNA/ssDNA and histones (uses rat liver and conjugated anti-antibodies to test if patient antibodies attack liver cells)

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17
Q

Saline agglutination test

A

identifies autoANTIBODIES in patient serum

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18
Q

Coombs (indirect) test

A

identifies ANTIBODIES to exogenous RBCs in patient serum

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19
Q

IDEXX SNAP 4Dx (tick/mosquito-borne disease)

A

looks for ANTIGEN in patient serum, conjugate binds antigen then antibodies on test matrix

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20
Q

IFA test

A

indirect fluorescent antibodies test, tests for ANTIBODIES

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21
Q

difference between immune-mediated diseases and autoimmune diseases

A

autoimmune is KNOWN self-antigen inciting immune response, PRIMARY
immune-mediated is sort of everything else, assumed SECONDARY

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22
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

what drugs do to the body

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23
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

how the body deals with drugs

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24
Q

which molecules are precursors to arachidonate

A

phospholipids and diacylglycerols (enzymes = PLA2 and DG lipase)

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25
Q

differences between COX-1 and COX-2

A

COX-1 is constitutive and generates normal physiology prostanoids
COX-2 is inducible and generates a positive inflammatory feedback loop

26
Q

what do all COX-2 exclusive drug drug names end with

A

“-coxib”

27
Q

what is a nonspecific COX inhibitor drug

A

ketoprofen

28
Q

What does PGE2 do

A

PGE2 promotes IL-1, NO, and TNF-alpha that lead to synovitis and chondrocyte apoptosis

29
Q

EP4

A

PGE2 receptor

30
Q

glucocorticoid prodrugs

A

prednisone has to be converted to presnisolone by the liver, ineffective locally and in cats

31
Q

what are the adverse affects of glucocorticoid joint injections

A

muscle atrophy, inhibition of fibrocartilage growth, and osteoporosis

32
Q

contraindications for topical glucocorticoids

A

cutaneous food allergies, infections or parasites

33
Q

why do we taper steroids?

A

slowly reducing exogenous glucocorticoid dose allows the HPA time to ramp up endogenous

34
Q

itch cytokines

A

IL-2, 4, 6, 13, 31

35
Q

why might some dogs have a declining response to lokivetmab?

A

immune system reacting to mouse antibodies (CAMA?)

36
Q

tumor supressor genes

A

mutations in genes for proteins that inhibit progression through cell cycle, recessive

37
Q

(proto)oncogenes

A

mutations in genes for proteins that promote progression through cell cycle, now constitutive, dominant (cancer viruses)

38
Q

driver vs passenger mutations

A

drivers CAUSE unregulated cell cycle progression, passengers give growth advantages

39
Q

TSAs or MANAs

A

unique antigens to tumor cells (high antigenicity)

40
Q

TAAs

A

normal proteins but inappropriate expression, result from mutations in gene regulatory elements (lower antigenicity)

41
Q

immune surveillance vs immunoediting

A

surveillance is how immune cells recognize and kill tumor cells, immunoediting is how cancer cells evade immune response

42
Q

selective pressure from immune cells is

A

when immune cells kill tumor cells with higher immunogenicity, resulting in proliferation of cells with lower immunogenicity (better passenger mutations)

43
Q

cytokines that activate repressive cell types

A

IL-4, 6, 10, TGF-beta, MCF, PGE2

44
Q

MDSCs

A

myeloid-derived supressor cells, express PD-L1 and inhibitory cytokines

45
Q

M2-polarized macrophages

A

don’t phagocytose but promote blood vessel formation and tissue repair (give tumors more nutrients)

46
Q

Treg effects (3)

A

IL-10 and TGF-beta, apoptosis of other T cells, reduce available IL-2 by binding to CD25

47
Q

FcRn

A

neonatal Fc receptors, IgG binds in acidic pH and crosses barrier cell in a vesicle (can be through placenta or though enterocytes of duodenum)

48
Q

FPT

A

failure of passive transfer, in horses and neonates, newborns are agammaglobulinemic and need adequate colostrum intake

49
Q

live virulent vaccines

A

higher risk of causing disease, uses actual infectious cells that can replicate in the host

50
Q

live attenuated or modified live vaccines

A

live organism but reduced virulence, traditional- pathogen cultured in a non-host tissue, may have modifications in key virulence genes,

51
Q

Aujeszky’s disease (pseudorabies) vaccine

A

vaccine strain has deletion of TK or gE, important genes in viral invasion and replication

52
Q

DIVA vaccines

A

aka marker vaccines, strain is slightly antigenically different naturally occurring pathogen, allows to differentiate in infected vs vaccinated

53
Q

Inactivated/killed vaccines

A

pathogens dead, no risk of causing disease, can use chemicals or irradiation

54
Q

adjuvants

A

substances that are added to vaccines to enhance the immunogenicity of an antigen

55
Q

toxoid vaccines

A

modified toxins with antigenicity but toxic moiety has been altered so no longer toxic

56
Q

subunit vaccines

A

contain parts of an organism, ex. strangles

57
Q

recombinant naked vaccines

A

contain genetically engineered DNA (immunogenic gene in a plasmid vector)

58
Q

recombinant subunit vaccines

A

recombinant plasmid DNA is engineered and inserted into a host organism, host creates lots of proteins and proteins then purified

59
Q

recombinant vectored vaccines

A

live non-pathogenic organisms that contain a gene genetically inserted from a pathogen

60
Q

what symptoms are associated with “normal toxicity” from a vaccine

A

fever, malaise, inflammation, pain

IMMUNO (5 decks)

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