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IMMUNO > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

(60 cards)

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1
Q

Antibody affinity

A

strength of binding between a recognition site and epitope

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2
Q

antibody avidity

A

sum of all binding affinities between an antibody and antigen (could be multiple epitopes)

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3
Q

Which antibody is most often used in diagnostic tests?

A

IgG

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4
Q

which antibody can used for earliest detection of disease?

A

IgM

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5
Q

Polyclonal antibodies

A

very sensitive, comes from an immune response from another host, used all the antibodies (inexpensive, easier to develop)

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6
Q

monoclonal antibodies

A

very specific, use tumor cells to create a single copy of an antibody, recognize a single epitope (expensive, easy to mass produce)

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7
Q

how is conjugation used to detect disease?

A

specific enzymes attached to antibodies so they can be identified using normally a color they break down (HRP-luminol and AP-fast red)

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8
Q

ELISA test

A

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, light absorbance measured directly using a spectrophotometer (quantitative serology test)

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9
Q

virus neutralization test

A

serum dilutions performed to determine lowest level of antibodies in solution necessary for preventing cell death (quantitative/semi-qualitative serology test), test for ANTIBODIES

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10
Q

sensitivity

A

detection of small amount of disease, correctly identifies animal WITH disease

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11
Q

specificity

A

detection of disease among other proteins, correctly identifies animals WITHOUT disease

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12
Q

DFA testing

A

Direct fluorescent antibodies test, wash with fluorescent labeled disease specific antibodies, look for ANTIGEN

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13
Q

What sample do you need for rabies DFA testing?

A

FRESH brain

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14
Q

What sample do you need for distemper DFA testing?

A

ocular/nasal discharge

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15
Q

What general values indicate positive viral antibodies in a VN test

A

> 1:80 (second number HIGHER)

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16
Q

ANA testing

A

anti-nuclear antibody testing identifies presence of ANTIBODIES targeting dsDNA/ssDNA and histones (uses rat liver and conjugated anti-antibodies to test if patient antibodies attack liver cells)

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17
Q

Saline agglutination test

A

identifies autoANTIBODIES in patient serum

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18
Q

Coombs (indirect) test

A

identifies ANTIBODIES to exogenous RBCs in patient serum

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19
Q

IDEXX SNAP 4Dx (tick/mosquito-borne disease)

A

looks for ANTIGEN in patient serum, conjugate binds antigen then antibodies on test matrix

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20
Q

IFA test

A

indirect fluorescent antibodies test, tests for ANTIBODIES

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21
Q

difference between immune-mediated diseases and autoimmune diseases

A

autoimmune is KNOWN self-antigen inciting immune response, PRIMARY
immune-mediated is sort of everything else, assumed SECONDARY

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22
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

what drugs do to the body

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23
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

how the body deals with drugs

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24
Q

which molecules are precursors to arachidonate

A

phospholipids and diacylglycerols (enzymes = PLA2 and DG lipase)

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25
differences between COX-1 and COX-2
COX-1 is constitutive and generates normal physiology prostanoids COX-2 is inducible and generates a positive inflammatory feedback loop
26
what do all COX-2 exclusive drug drug names end with
"-coxib"
27
what is a nonspecific COX inhibitor drug
ketoprofen
28
What does PGE2 do
PGE2 promotes IL-1, NO, and TNF-alpha that lead to synovitis and chondrocyte apoptosis
29
EP4
PGE2 receptor
30
glucocorticoid prodrugs
prednisone has to be converted to presnisolone by the liver, ineffective locally and in cats
31
what are the adverse affects of glucocorticoid joint injections
muscle atrophy, inhibition of fibrocartilage growth, and osteoporosis
32
contraindications for topical glucocorticoids
cutaneous food allergies, infections or parasites
33
why do we taper steroids?
slowly reducing exogenous glucocorticoid dose allows the HPA time to ramp up endogenous
34
itch cytokines
IL-2, 4, 6, 13, 31
35
why might some dogs have a declining response to lokivetmab?
immune system reacting to mouse antibodies (CAMA?)
36
tumor supressor genes
mutations in genes for proteins that inhibit progression through cell cycle, recessive
37
(proto)oncogenes
mutations in genes for proteins that promote progression through cell cycle, now constitutive, dominant (cancer viruses)
38
driver vs passenger mutations
drivers CAUSE unregulated cell cycle progression, passengers give growth advantages
39
TSAs or MANAs
unique antigens to tumor cells (high antigenicity)
40
TAAs
normal proteins but inappropriate expression, result from mutations in gene regulatory elements (lower antigenicity)
41
immune surveillance vs immunoediting
surveillance is how immune cells recognize and kill tumor cells, immunoediting is how cancer cells evade immune response
42
selective pressure from immune cells is
when immune cells kill tumor cells with higher immunogenicity, resulting in proliferation of cells with lower immunogenicity (better passenger mutations)
43
cytokines that activate repressive cell types
IL-4, 6, 10, TGF-beta, MCF, PGE2
44
MDSCs
myeloid-derived supressor cells, express PD-L1 and inhibitory cytokines
45
M2-polarized macrophages
don't phagocytose but promote blood vessel formation and tissue repair (give tumors more nutrients)
46
Treg effects (3)
IL-10 and TGF-beta, apoptosis of other T cells, reduce available IL-2 by binding to CD25
47
FcRn
neonatal Fc receptors, IgG binds in acidic pH and crosses barrier cell in a vesicle (can be through placenta or though enterocytes of duodenum)
48
FPT
failure of passive transfer, in horses and neonates, newborns are agammaglobulinemic and need adequate colostrum intake
49
live virulent vaccines
higher risk of causing disease, uses actual infectious cells that can replicate in the host
50
live attenuated or modified live vaccines
live organism but reduced virulence, traditional- pathogen cultured in a non-host tissue, may have modifications in key virulence genes,
51
Aujeszky's disease (pseudorabies) vaccine
vaccine strain has deletion of TK or gE, important genes in viral invasion and replication
52
DIVA vaccines
aka marker vaccines, strain is slightly antigenically different naturally occurring pathogen, allows to differentiate in infected vs vaccinated
53
Inactivated/killed vaccines
pathogens dead, no risk of causing disease, can use chemicals or irradiation
54
adjuvants
substances that are added to vaccines to enhance the immunogenicity of an antigen
55
toxoid vaccines
modified toxins with antigenicity but toxic moiety has been altered so no longer toxic
56
subunit vaccines
contain parts of an organism, ex. strangles
57
recombinant naked vaccines
contain genetically engineered DNA (immunogenic gene in a plasmid vector)
58
recombinant subunit vaccines
recombinant plasmid DNA is engineered and inserted into a host organism, host creates lots of proteins and proteins then purified
59
recombinant vectored vaccines
live non-pathogenic organisms that contain a gene genetically inserted from a pathogen
60
what symptoms are associated with "normal toxicity" from a vaccine
fever, malaise, inflammation, pain

IMMUNO (5 decks)

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