Exam 2- white blood cells Flashcards

1
Q

How is lymph returned to the circulation? (left and right)

A

L- at the junction of the left subclavian and jugular veins, from the thoracic duct which drains most of the body;
R- at the junction of the right subclavian and jugular veins, from the right upper limb, head and neck

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2
Q

What does generalised lymphadenopathy suggest?

A

A systemic inflammatory process or widespread maligancy e.g. leukaemia, lymphoma

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3
Q

Functions of the spleen (2)

A

filter for old and damaged red blood cell- removes from circulation
functions like a large lymph node- antigen presentation, lymphoid follicles

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4
Q

What are the features of splenic enlargement? (2)

A

LUQ discomfort/pain

Hypersplenism

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5
Q

What is the triad of hypersplenism? Generally what causes hypersplenism?

A

Cytopenia [1] which is corrected by splenectomy [2]; splenomegaly [3];

Anything which causes splenomegaly can cause hypersplenism

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6
Q

Causes of splenomegaly? (5)

A
Infection e.g. infectious mononucleosis
Haemolysis e.g. hereditary spherocytosis
Congestive e.g. portal hypertension, cardiac failure
Infiltrative e.g. sarcoidosis
Neoplastic e.g. leukaemia,  lymphoma
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7
Q

Nuclear remnants in red blood cells; feature of hyposplenism

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

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8
Q

What is acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) and which group of patients is it commonest in?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of B cell/T celll blasts;

Commonest cancer of childhood, rare in adults

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9
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute leukaemia?

a) marrow failure (3)
b) infiltrative (4)

A

a) anaemia, infection, bleeding

b) hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, gum hypertrophy, CNS infiltration leading to cranial nerve palsies (ALL)

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10
Q

What is acute myeloid leukaemia? (AML)

What is AML sometimes a complication of?

A

Proliferation of myeloid blast cells;

commoner in adults; sometimes a complication of chemotherapy

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11
Q

Treatment of leukaemias in general (3)

A

Intensive chemotherapy
Supportive care e.g. blood, platelets, fluids (insert Hickman line)
Allogeneic bone marrow transplants

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12
Q

Investigations where acute leuakamia is suspected (4)

A

Blood count and film

Bone marrow aspirate + immunophenotyping, cytogenic analysis

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13
Q

What complication of chemotherapy can result in acute renal failure? How can this be prevented?

A

Tumour lysis syndrome.

Allopurinol + IV fluids

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14
Q

What pattern of metabolic abnormalities in seen in tumour lysis syndrome? (4)

A

Hyper- kalaemia, phosphataemia, uricaemia

Hypocalcaemia

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15
Q

Fever + fatigue + splenomegaly + t (9,22)

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia

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16
Q

t(9,22) creates what fusion protein?

A

creates a fusion Bcr-Abl protein

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17
Q

How is CML treated? (2)

A

Imatinib- Brc-Abl tyrosine kinase inhbitor

Stem cell tranplantation

18
Q

What is the natural history of CML? (3)

A

Chronic (months -> years, few symptoms)
Accelerated (increasing spleen size and symptoms)
Blast transformation- features of acute leukaemia and death

19
Q

Vague symptoms + peripheral blood lymphocytosis (mature lymphocytes)

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

20
Q

Natural history of CLL (3). What is often the cause of death in CLL?

A

1/3 never progress
1/3 progress in time
1/3 actively progressing
Infection, or transformation to aggresive lymphoma

21
Q

What is lymphoma and how is it classified?

A

Malignant proliferations of lymphocytes, which accumulate in the lymph nodes, but also peripheral blood/organs.
Hodgkins and non-Hodgkins (T cell and B-cell)

22
Q

General symptoms of Hodgkins lymphoma? (3)

What are the B-symptoms and what do they indicate? (3)

A

Painless rubbery enlarged lymph nodes (typically cervical)
Pruritus
Alcohol-induced lymph node pain
“B-symptoms”- indicates advanced disease:
Night sweats
Unexplained fever
Weight loss

23
Q

Cells with “mirror-image nuclei” characteristic of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

24
Q

What is the difference between stage II and stage III Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Stage III involves lymph nodes on both sides of the diaphragm

25
Q

malignant clonal proliferation of plasma cells

A

Myeloma

26
Q

Osteolysis, hypercalcaemia, features of marrow failure, renal impairment- diagnosis?

A

Myeloma

27
Q

Tests in myeloma:

a) blood film
b) urine
c) serum
d) skeletal survey

A

a) Rouleaux formation on blood film
b) Bence-Jones proteins (free light chains)
c) Monoclonal band in serum electrophoresis; elevated urea and creatinine
d) osteolytic lesions

28
Q

Treatment of myeloma (4)

A

Chemo
steroids
thalidomide
autologous stem cell transplant

29
Q

Slowly progressive multisystem disease caused by deposition of insoluble light chains in various organs

A

AL amyloidosis

30
Q

Diagnostic test for AL amyloidosis?

A

Biopsy- Congo red stain- apple-green birefringence under polarised light

31
Q

Lymphoplasmacytoid neoplasm causing a characteristic IgM paraprotein

A

Waldenstroms

32
Q

Manifestations of waldenstroms (4)

A

Hyperviscosity syndrome
Neuropathy
Splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy
Marrow failure

33
Q

Structure of antibody?

A

Two heavy chains and two light chains with variable region generated by V-D-J recombination

34
Q

What is the main difference between myeloproliferative disorders and leukaemia?

A

Maturation is relatively preserved in MPD

35
Q

Classification of myeloproliferative disorders:

a) red cell
b) white cells
c) platelets
d) fibroblasts

A

a) polycythaemia rubra vera
b) chronic myeloid leukaemia
c) thrombocythaemia
d) myelofibrosis

36
Q

Causes of secondary polycythaemia (3)

A

Chronic hypoxia e.g. COPD
smoking
EPO-secreting tumour

37
Q

JAK2 mutation is present in 90% of patients with what disease?

A

Polycythaemia rubra vera

38
Q

Splenomegaly and neutropenia in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Felty syndrome

39
Q

Commonest myeloma subtypes?

A

IgG (2/3rds)

IgA (1/3rd)

40
Q

High-grade B cell lymphoma associated with EBV, endemic in Africa

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma