Exam 2 - specific Qs Flashcards

1
Q

drugs that may cause interstitial nephritis

A

penicillins
-especially nafcillin and methicillin
-leads to abrupt increase in SCr and possibly renal failure

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1
Q

drugs to consider with sodium content

A
  1. Piperacillin - 1.85 mEq per gram
  2. Pen G - 2 mEq per 1 million units
  3. Nafcillin - 2.9 mEq per gram
  4. Carbenicillin - 4.7 mEq per gram
  5. Ticarcillin - 5.2 mEq per gram
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2
Q

what B-lactam can you use in penicillin allergic pts?

A

aztreonam

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3
Q

list the agents with N-methylthiotetrazole (MTT) side chain and its clinical significance

A

cefamandole
cefotetan
cefmatazole
cefoperazone
moxalactam

-ethanol intolerance
-hypoprothrombinemia (low prothrombin –> low blood coagulation –> more bleeding risk)

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4
Q

Which of the carbapenems and monobactams can penetrate the CSF

A
  • meropenem is best
  • aztreonam does in the presence of inflamed meninges
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5
Q

purpose of cilistatin

A

given in combo with imipenem to inhibit DHP, an enzyme that makes a nephrotoxic metabolite of imipenem

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6
Q

CNS (seizure) risk factors for carbapenems

A

risk factors for seizures include:
-CNS disorder
-high doses
-renal insufficiency

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7
Q

FQs considerations in terms of risk for torsades

A

use with caution in pts w/:
-QT prolongation
-hypokalemia
-concomitant anti-arrhythmic drugs

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8
Q

4 PK advantages of FQs

A

fluorinated quinolones (FQs) provide:
-broadened spectrum of activity
-better oral bioavailability
-better tissue penetration
-longer half lives

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9
Q

AE of macrolides - common and rare

A

common:
-GI (more common w erythro, less with clarithro and azithro)

rare:
-cholestatic hepatitis
-thrombophlebitis (to avoid: dilute dose, slow admin, large vein)
-ototoxicity
-QTc prolongation

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10
Q

macrolide that does not inhibit CYP3A4/2C9

A

azithromycin

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11
Q

DNA gyrase (topo II)

A

gram (-)
-blocks DNA replication by blocking the supercoil relief system

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12
Q

topo IV

A

gram (+)
-separation of daughter cells

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13
Q

telithromycin

A

-community acquired pneumonia
-inhibits CYP3A4

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14
Q

cannot use aminoglycosides (gent, tobra, amikacin) alone in which infection type (gram - or +)

A

gram +

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15
Q

ABx class that requires serum monitoring and why?

A

aminoglycosides due to variability in Vd and Cl, narrow TP index

16
Q

considerations for aminoglycoside dosing pt by pt

A

-renal fxn (determines 1/2 life)
-Vd (conc. dependent killers)
-age
-gender
-weight
-infection type
-severity of infection

17
Q

aminoglycoside risk factors for nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

A

-prolonged high troughs
-long duration of therapy
-underlying renal dysfxn
-elderly
-hypovolemia
-use of other nephrotoxic agents

18
Q

C. diff drug of choice

A

Oral Vancomycin

19
Q

drug of choice for MRSA

A

vancomycin

20
Q

specifics regarding red man syndrome with vancomycin

A

-happens within 5-15 mins of start of infusion
-related to RATE of infusion (too fast, doses should be 60 mins or more)
-resolves after d/c

21
Q

other vanco AE

A

-nephro and ototoxicity
-thrombophlebitis
-interstitial nephritis

22
Q

agents developed and used for VRE (among other things)

A

-synercid (faecium only, not faecalis)
-linezolid
-tedizolid
-daptomycin
-telavancin
-dalbavancin
-oritavancin

23
Q

daptomycin should be avoided in what infection type

24
drugs with activity against VISA
-linezolid -tedizolid -daptomycin -telavancin -dalbavancin -oritavancin
25
drugs with activity against VRSA
oritavancin
26
what to add to metronidazole therapy in polymicrobial infections since metronidazole only covers anaerobes?
something to cover gram (-)
27
synercid hits VRE, but only _____, not _____
faecium, not faecalis