Exam 1 - Rybakov Flashcards

1
Q

establishing presence of infection criteria: fever

A

hallmark of infection
non infectious causes: drug induced
false negatives: antipyretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

establishing presence of infection criteria: systemic s/sx

A

hypotension
tachycardia
tachypnea
fever
chills
rigor
malaise
mental status
increased or decreased WBC
- over 12k or below 4k or >10% immature forms (bands)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

establishing presence of infection criteria: lab test (WBC)

A

normal: 4,500-11,000
elevated in response to infectious and non-infectious causes
-non infectious: steroids, leukemia, stress, RA, pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

leukocytosis shows increased ________ +/- ______ and is associated with _______ infections

A

neutrophils, bands, bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

lymphocytosis shows increase in ______ and ______ and is associated with _______, _____, or _____ infections

A

t-lymphocytes, b-lymphocytes, viral, fungal, or tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ANC equation (know for NAPLEX but not this exam

A

ANC = (WBC x (%segs + %bands))/100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

neutropenia is ANC __500 cells/mm^3

A

<

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

risk of infection (increases/decreases) as ANC decreases

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ESR and CRP are (specific/non-specific) markers of infection and are (elevated/lowered) in presence of inflammation

A

non-specific, elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PCT (procalcitonin) is useful in what way?

A

as a serial measurement every 1-2 days to assess response to therapy and when to d/c abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

radiographic tests to establish infection

A

x-ray
CT
MRI
nuclear imaging
Echocardiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

identification of the pathogen: microbiological studies

A

-infected body materials must be sampled, if possible, before initiation of anti-infective therapy
-avoid contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

type of culture based on infection site
osteomyelitis:
meningitis:
Endocarditis:

A

bone biopsy
CSF
blood cultures, heart valve tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

identification of the pathogen: microbiological studies (part 2)
colonization vs infection

A

colonization: potentially pathogenic organism is present at body site but not invading host tissue

infection: pathogenic organism is present at body site and is damaging host tissue or eliciting host responses and symptoms consistent with an infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

identification of the pathogen: cultures timeline

A

minutes to hours: retrieve cultures and send to lab
24-48 hrs: plate organism, await growth, gram stain
48-72 hrs: ID and susceptibility testing of organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

rapid diagnostic testing total time requirements

17
Q

rapid diagnostic test for bloodstream infections

A

PhenoTest BC Kit
BioFire BCID2
ePlex BCID
T2 Bacteria
Verigene

18
Q

other rapid diagnostic tests

A

MRSA PCR Nasal Test
BioFire FilmArray Panels
Verigene Panels

19
Q

susceptibility testing definitions: MIC

A

lowest antimicrobial concentration that prevents visible growth

20
Q

categorization of whether an organism is susceptible or not

A

Breakpoint: tells us the category
Susceptible: “can treat with this ABx”
Susceptible dose dependent: “can treat with this ABx at the right dose”
Intermediate: do not use to treat
Resistant: do not use to treat
non-susceptible: do not use to treat

21
Q

MIC

A

lowest antimicrobial concentration that prevents visible growth
(where no growth exists)

22
Q

rapid tests that test for mecA

A

BioFire BCID2
ePlex BCID
Verigene

23
Q

ESR and CRP are (specific/non-specific) markers of infection

A

non-specific

24
Q

reasons why WBC might be elevated (besides infection)

A

steroids
leukemia
stress
RA
pregnancy

25
SIRS criteria
tachycardia tachypnea fever increased or decreased WBC
26
Explain: -Fever -False negatives -False positives
-fever is a hallmark of infection -might have a false negative if using antipyretics while fever is present -false positives may come from drug induced fevers
27
Infections Scare People So Really Practice Memorizing Drugs
Indication Source Pathogens Spectrum of activity Resistance patterns PK/PD parameters Monitoring parameters Duration of therapy
28
what are the "ceek"s
lactose fermenters (oxidase negative) -Citrobacter -Enterobacter -E. coli -Klebsiella
29
most common resistance mechanism
conjugation: direct contact or mating via sex pili (like swifties exchanging bracelets)
30
common enzyme(s) that hydrolyze carbapenems
KPC-1 KPC-2 KPC-3 NDM-1
31
common enzyme(s) that hydrolyze cephalosporins
Amp-C
32
common enzyme(s) that hydrolyze oxacillin, oxyimino B-lactams, and carbapenems
OXA-48
33
CTX-M = ?
ESBL resistance
34
what to use to treat ESBL resistance?
meropenem
35
all B-lactams induce _____
AmpC -stronger ones: pen G, ampicillin, cefazolin, cefoxitin, carbapenems
36
mecA + PBP2A = ?
MRSA
37
B-lactams are (time dependent/concentration dependent)
time dependent