Exam 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

when is the lac operon optimally expressed

A

in presence of lactose and absence of glucose

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2
Q

how many different secondary structures(hairpins) may be formed by the Trp leader mRNA

A

3

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3
Q

what regulatory sequence may be located tens of thousands of nucleotides away from the genes they regulate

A

enhancers
(any trans regulators)

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4
Q

what is the role of DNA methylation in eukaryotes

A

aid in silencing transcription

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5
Q

increased acetylation of histones is typically associated with what

A

gene activation and euchromatin formation

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6
Q

which enzyme acts as template for telomere repeat DNA sequence

A

telomerase

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7
Q

the process by which pneumococcus transfers DNA between RII and heat killed SIII is known as what

A

transformation

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8
Q

which direction of DNA will be the lagging strand

A

side where point of origin moves towards 3’ end

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9
Q

what is one difference between DNA replication in bacteria vs eukaryotes

A

eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication while bacteria only have one

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10
Q

if single stranded binding protein is not present during DNA replication what would you expect to see

A

SSB prevents reannealing, so strands would quickly reanneal and DNA replication could not proceed

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11
Q

why are leading strand primers removed rather than joined like okazaki fragments

A

they contain nucleotides with 2’OH groups, and are targeted for excision by DNA polymerase

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12
Q

a plant cell exhibits in transcription of tRNA genes, which polymerase is mutated

A

RNA plymerase III

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13
Q

what region of gene would need to be mutated to prevent access of RNA polymerase to the gene

A

promoter sequence

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14
Q

why does rho dependent transcriptional termination in bacteria require the rho protein

A

RNA polymerase stalls on termination stem-loop and rho is needed to displace it

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15
Q

what defines end of eukaryotic gene

A

presence of polyadenylation signal sequence leads to cleavage of pre-mRNA

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16
Q

what is the purpose of alternative splicing in eukaryotic cells

A

produce multiple polypeptide sequences from a single primary transcript

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17
Q

role of promoter region

A

recruit transcription factors that form initiation complex

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18
Q

what is the shine-dalgarno sequence in bacteria

A

purine-rich sequence found in 5’ UTR of mRNA

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19
Q

how does eukaryotic ribosomal small subunit recognize start codon on mRNA

A

binds met-tRNA to first AUG codon after kozak sequence

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20
Q

what would you expect to find bound to stop codon at A site

A

translation release factor

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21
Q

how would a single base insertion into second codon of sequence affect AA sequence

A

AA sequence would be changed

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22
Q

difference between NER and BER

A

NER detects ribosomes in double helix, BER removes damaged bases

23
Q

which class of point mutation almost always results in mutant phenotype

A

frameshift

24
Q

2 mutagens classified as base analogs

A

5-bromouracil
2-aminopurine

25
Q

2 forms of double stranded break repair

26
Q

how is DNA replication in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes described

A

bidirectional and semiconservative

27
Q

which protein is responsible for initiation of oriC in E. coli

28
Q

sequence of steps in PCR

A

denaturation, primer annealing, primer extension

29
Q

where does sigma subunit of bacterial RNA pol bind

A

bacterial gene’s promoter

30
Q

what is a characteristic of short tandem repeats in genetic analysis

A

STRs segregate independently

31
Q

A mutation of the O region of the lac operon would most likely result in what?

A

constitutive expression of lac operon, whether or not lactose was present, as the repressor cannot bind

32
Q

in griffins experiment did mice die

A

live IIIS and live IIR with dead IIIS

33
Q

which protein removes RNA primer from nascent DNA in E. coli

A

DNA polymerase I

34
Q

properties of holoenzyme but not core enzyme

A

promoter recognition and binding

35
Q

property of core enzyme but not holoenzyme

A

5’ to 3’ synthesis

36
Q

necessary component of intrinsic but not rho dependent terminators in E. coli

A

string of U’s in RNA

37
Q

during transcription in E. coli when does sigma subunit fall off

A

after first 8-10 RNA nucleotides

38
Q

role of general transcription factors

A

GFT binds to core promoter and allow transcriptional initiation

39
Q

function of shine dalgerno sequence

A

specification of authentic start codon in bacterial RNA

40
Q

what will never be found in A-site of ribosome

A

initiator tRNA(that will be in P-site)

41
Q

in bacterial translation initiation, the mRNA…

A

is oriented on small subunit by shine dalgarno sequence through base pairing with an rRNA

42
Q

last component incorporated in process of translation initiation

A

large ribosomal subunit

43
Q

what complex(es) binds to open A site in process of translational elongation

A

charged tRNA
elongation factor
GTP

44
Q

what class of mutation generally creates decreased amount of gene product

A

promoter mutations

45
Q

strand slippage during DNA replication generally results in what type of mutation?

A

expansion of trinucleotide repeat sequence

46
Q

spontaneous nucleotide changes

A

depurination and deamination

47
Q

alkylating agents generally result in what type of mutations?

A

base substitutions

48
Q

what repair mechanism is used most to repair thymine dimers

A

photoactivation repair

49
Q

presence of what combination of molecules could prevent transcription of a repressible operon

A

repressor and corepressor

50
Q

binding of which complex increases ability of RNA polymerase to transcribe the lac operon

A

cap-cAMP operon

51
Q

what complex transports regulatory RNAs to RNAs targeted for degradation or inhibition of translation

52
Q

what is most efficient at changing gene expression through RNA interference

A

DS RNA that includes gene sequence you want to silence

53
Q

what is primarily responsible for genomic imprinting

A

methylation of cytosine in DNA