Exam 2: Lecture 13 + 14: Common reproductive & genital surgical procedures Flashcards

1
Q

define pyometra

A

accumulation of purulent material within the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is sometimes referred to as a cystic endometrial hyperplasia-pyometra comlex

A

Pyometra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define hydrometra

A

watery secretions from uterine distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define mucometra

A

mucoid secretions released from uterine distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Hematometra

A

blood secretions from uterine distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Stump pyometra

A

accumulation of purulent material in the vestiage of the uterus that remains after OHE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does vaginal prolapse / hyperplasia occur and what is it?

A

occurs during estrus or proestrus as a result of endemantous enlargement of vaginal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is defined as involving the 360 degree protrusion of mucosa

A

vaginal prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is defined as may originating from a stalk of mucosa on the floor of the vagina
- both are usually cranial to the urethral papilla

A

Vaginal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Another name for uterine prolapse is?

A

uterine eversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define uterine proloase

A

eversion and protrusion of a portion of the uterus through the cervix into the vagina during or near parturition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F: Uterine prolpase occcurrence is NOT rare

A

false, occurence is rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: Testicular agenesis is rare

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Monorhcism is?

A

one testicular agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anorchism is?

A

two testicular agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dogs and cats are considered to have _____ if there is no testicular descent by 2 months of age

A

cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which type of cryptorchidism is more common?

A

unilateral cryptorchidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the characteristics of retained testes?

A
  • small
  • soft
  • misshapened (butterbean)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment of choice for cryptorchidism

A

bilateral casteration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

cryptorchidism is thought to be ______ linked autosomal recessive in dogs

A

sex-linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Retained canine testes are predisposed to _______ (seminomas and sertoli cell tumors)

A

neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What structure is often palpable between the inguinal ring and the scrotum in the anesthesized patient

A

inguinal region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Large inguinal fat pads may obstruct palpation. Which structure may be mistaken for retined testicle?

A

inguinal lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Non-palpable testes must be located. how?

A
  • exploratory laparotomy
  • laparoscopy
  • laparoscopically assisted
  • ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When trying to find cryptorchidism always look in which area?

A

look in the inguinal ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which testes should you remove first, the normal or retained?

A

retained

  • do not remove the descended testicle if you cannot find the retained testicle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F: You can remove the descended testicle if you cannot find the retained testicle

A

false, do NOT remove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where should your incision be during an exploratory cryptorchidism technique

A

ventral midline incision/entry

  • umbilicus to pubis (curving around prepuce)
  • paramedian incision next to prepuce with midline entry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

During a exploratory cryptorchidism technique retroflex which organ?

A

urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

locate the _____ ______ dorsal to the neck of the bladder. Follow this structure to the testicle

A

ductus deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What technique should be discouraged as a means of population control?

A

vasectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which technique inhibits male fertility while maintaining male behavioral patterns
- androgens continue to produce
- rarely recommended

A

Vasectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

_______ males should be evaluated after the procedure to document azoospermic ejaculates before contact with intact bitches

A

vasectomized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why is vasectomy rarely recommended?

A
  • roaming, aggression, and urine marking persistent
  • Reduction or hormonally associated disease does not occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which technique is performed in valuable breeding animals to assist with evaluating fertility problems?

A

testicular biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Testicular biopsy techniques are?

A
  • biopsy needle through scrotal skin
  • wedge resection biopsy
    (prescrotal incision)
    (incise spermatic fascia and tunics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What device can be used for nonpalpable mass deep within the parenchyma

A

ultrasound guided percutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What technique is required for definitively diagnose prostatic disease

A

prostatic biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why are percutaneous techniques preferred for prostatic biopsy

A
  • less invasive
  • less expensive
  • lower morbidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why are operative biopsy for prostatic biopsy useful

A
  • larger samples
  • more specific sites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the preferred method for percutaneous needle biopsies

  • other options are trucut and guided by palpation
A

ultrasound guided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 3 types of needle biopsies

A
  • percutaneous
  • trans-rectal fine needle aspiration
  • open biopsies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are two aspects of open biopsies

A
  • using biopsy needle
  • Wedge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you perform an open wedge prostatic biopsy

A
  • perform a caudal midline abdominal incision
  • retract the urinary bladder cranially using stay sutures
  • Isolate the prostate from the remainder of the abdomen with sterile laparotomy pads
  • palpate the prostate and select a biopsy site
  • Dissect periprostatic fat from the desired site
  • Excise a wedge of prostatic tissue using a #11 blade
  • appose the edges of defect
  • lavage the surgical site
  • replace paraprostatic fat
  • close abdominal in three layers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do you appose the edges of defect during open wedge prostatic biopsy?

A
  • monofilament, absorbale suture
  • simple continuous
  • Sutures placed in prostatic capsule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which structure should be avoided during a prostatic biopsy

A

avoid damaging the prostatic urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why should you submit specimes for prostatic biopsy?

A
  • histopathology
  • Culture
  • Sensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When should you STOP and NOT biopsy the prostate?

A

if an abscess or cyst is suspected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Define Episiotomy

A

incision of the vulvur orifice to expose the vulva and vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the indications for an Episiotomy?

A
  • surgical exploration of the vagina
  • repair lacterations
  • modify congenital defects/strictures
  • expose the urethral papilla
  • facilitate manual fetal extraction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does the following image show?

A

Episiotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

________ to facilitate the surgical removal of a vaginal leiomyoma

A

Episiotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define Episioplasty/ Vulvoplasty

A

reconstruction of the vulva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Episioplasty / vulvoplasty are commonly performed to excise excess skin folds around the vulva, which can cause?

A
  • perivulvular dermitis
  • recurrent UTI’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The following image is of a 1 year old great dane positioned in a perineal (sternal) position with limbs supported. What surgery is this for?

A

Episioplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What procedure does the following image define?

A

Episioplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the goal of a cesarean section (C-section)?

A

remove all of the featus from the gravid uterus as quickly as possible via hysterotomy

  • without hurting the fetuses
  • without undue harm to the bitch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the 4 primary indications for cesarean section (C-section)?

A
  • actual or potential dystocia
  • small pelvic canal
  • uterine inertia
  • fetal putrification
59
Q

With an actual or potential dystocia why would be choose a cesarean section (C-section)?

A
  • oversized fetus / fetuses
  • malpositioned fetus / fetuses
  • maldeveloped fetus / fetuses
60
Q

Breeds associated with cesarean section (C-section) commonly are?

A
  • English bulldogs
  • Boston terriers
  • french bulldogs
  • mastiffs
  • scottish terriers
61
Q

What are the 3 techniques for a cesarean section (C-section)?

A
  • C-section without OHE
  • C-section with OHE
  • En Bloc Resection of the uterus
62
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique will you do with breeding animals that will be bred again?

A

C-section without OHE

63
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • Cannot obtain owner permission for OHE
  • some clinicians prefer to perform the OHE at a later date
A

C-section without OHE

64
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

Patient prep
- clip and perform a perliminary abdominal prep before anesthetic induction to minimize time from induction to delivery
- once patient is anesthetized (position the patient in dorsal recumbency + apply a final aspectic scrub to the ventral abdomen)

A

C-section without OHE

65
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

Anesthesia
- pre-oxygenate the bitch or queen if possible before induction
- anesthetize the animal using a general or regional protocol that is appropriate for the bitch of queen and minimizes neonatal depression

A

C-section without OHE

66
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

Surgery
- ventral midline incision from just cranial to the umbilicus to near the pubis
- Elevate the external recuts sheath
- stab incision through the linea alba
- Exteriorize horns gently by lifting! (uterine walls tear easily + vessels avulse easily)
- isolate the uterus
- tent, the incise the ventral uterine body wall
- extend the incision with metzenbaum scissors to prevent tearing during extraction of the fetus

A

C-section without OHE

67
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • Empty each horn my milking the fetus towards the uterine incision, then grasping and gently pulling the feets from the uterus
  • repture the amniotic sac and clamp the umbilical cord with a curved mosquito forceps as each neonate is presented
  • aseptically pass each neonate to an assistant for neonatal care
A

C-section without OHE

68
Q

Avoid contaminating the abdomen and surgical field with ________?

A

amniotic fluid

69
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

Placenta
- at term, the placenta is often expelled with the neonate
- if the plasma has not seperated, gently pull it from the endomertrium
- do not forcibly seperate the placenta from the uterine wall, or severe hemorrhage may occur
- palpate the pelvic canal and remove any fetus from this location

A

C-section without OHE

70
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

Post-delivery
- uterine contraction usually begins when the fetuses are removed
- administer oxytocin or erogonovine maleate if contraction has not occured
- give oxytocin and compress the uterine walls if endometrial hemorrhage is severe
- lavage the external uterus to remove debris

A

C-section without OHE

71
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

Closure
- close uterine incision with 3-0 or 4-0 absorbable suture using
= an appositional pattern in a single layer simple continuous pattern
= a double layer appositional closure (mucosa and submucoa followed by musclularis layer)
= an appositional closure follwed by a second layer inverting pattern (cushing or lembert)

A

C-section without OHE

72
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • Lavage the surgical site and replace contaminated towles, sponges, instrument and gloves
  • insepect for uterine vessels avulsion and control hemorrhage
  • lavage the abdomen if contamination or spillage of uterine contents has occured
  • cover the uterine incison with omentum
A

C-section without OHE

73
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • Appose the abdominal wall in three layers
  • use subcuticular or intradermal skin closure to eliminate suture ends that may irritate neonates
  • clean all antiseptics, blood, and debris from the ventral abdomen and mammae
A

C-section without OHE

74
Q

______ can safely be performed with c-setion if the patient receives adequate fluid therapy
- fetuses are removed individually as described above
- routine OHE is performed

75
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • minimal anesthesia time
  • minimal potential for abdominal contamination
  • population control without secondary surgery
A

En Bloc Resection of the gravid uterus

76
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • neonatal survival this technique is similar to that for other techniques for managing dystocia
  • not recommended if fetus are distressed, bradycardic, or hypotoxic
A

C-section by En Bloc Resection

77
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • exterorize and isolate the ovarian pedicles
  • seperate the broad ligament from the uterus to the point of the cervix
  • Manipulate fetuses in the vagina or cervix back into the uterine body
  • Double or triple clamp the ovarian pedicles and uterus (just cranial to the cervix)
A

En Block Resection OHE of the gravid uterus

78
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • Quickly transect between the clamps, and remove the ovaries and uterus
  • give the uterus to a team of assistants to open and resuscitate the neonates
A

En Block Resection OHE of the gravid uterus

79
Q

The time from clamping the uterus to removal of the neonates should be less than?

A

60 seconds

80
Q

What type of cesarean section (C-section) technique does the following describe?

  • double ligate ovarian and uterine pedicles
  • inspect for hemorrhage
  • close the abdomen
    = no skin sutures
A

En Block Resection oHE of the gravid uterus

81
Q

most mammary tumors are prevented by _____ in the 1st year of life

82
Q

T/F: Male mammary tumors are common and behave similar to those in females

A

false!! they are rare

83
Q

When should all mammary tumors be evaluated

A

when first indentified

84
Q

Tumors in dogs are benign or malignant; ____ % of those in cats are malignant

85
Q

Each mammary mass may have a different tumor, so what should you do?

A

remove them all

86
Q

Which provided margins are obtained during the tumor excision technique and does not affect survival in the dogs

A

tumor free

87
Q

which technique do you perform in cats with mamary tumors

A

chain mastectomy

88
Q

Why do you not excise the inflammatory carcinomas?

A

prognosis is poor

89
Q

T/F: Adjuvant therapy is not rountinely recommended for malignant tumors

90
Q

What is the goal of mastectomy?

A

usually performed to remove tumors

91
Q

define simple mastectomy

A

removal of one gland

92
Q

Define regional mastectomy

A

removal of several glands

93
Q

Define complete unilateral mastectomy

A

removal of entire chain

94
Q

Define complete bilateral mastectomy

A

simultaneous removal of both mammary chains
- causes significant suture line tension
- should be avoided if possible
- staged procedures are advised to
= facilitate defect closure
= reduce patient discomfort

95
Q

Which type of mastectomy should be avoided if possible

A

complete bilateral mastectomy

96
Q

What does the following define?

  • OHE during the same anesthesia is performed before surgery to prevent seeding the abdmoen with tumor cells
  • if the tumor crosses midline, however, it may be excised first
  • Clean instruments and gloves should be used for OHE
A

mastectomy

97
Q

What does this image and description show?

A

mastectomy

98
Q

T/F: Death usually pccurs without surgical or medical therapy with pyometra

99
Q

What does the image on the left show?

100
Q

What does the image on the right show?

A

Hydrometra

101
Q

T/F: treatment (OHE) should not be delayed more than is absolutely necessary

102
Q

Does morbidity and mortality increase with an increase in concurrent metabolic abnormalities and organ dysfunction

103
Q

T/F: Surgical draining of the uterus without OHE is not recommended, but has been successfully in a few cases

104
Q

T/F: Surgey should not be delayed more than few hours (especially in patients with closed pyometra)

105
Q

What should be monitored preoperatively during a pyometra surgery

A
  • urine output
  • glucose
  • arrhythmias
106
Q

T/F: hydration, electrolytes, and acid-base imbalances can be corrected during surgery

A

false, they should be corrected before surgery if possible

107
Q

T/F: The prognosis is improved when azotemia is corrected before a pyometra surgery

108
Q

A braod spectrum antibiotic should be effective against ____ should be given IV while awating antibiotic susceptibility results

109
Q

_________ are nephrotoxic and not recommended because of the prevelance of renal dysfunction with pyometra

A

Aminoglycosides

110
Q

Fluid input and urine output should be monitored to help assess which organ function during a pyometra surgery

A

renal function

111
Q

for a pyometra surgery, expose the abdomen through a ventral midline incision beginning ______ caudal to the xiphoid and extending to the pubis

A

2 to 3 cm

  • observe the abdomen and locate the distended uterus
112
Q

Observe the surgical field for evidence of _____ (seroal inflammation, increased abdominal fluid and petechiation)

A

peritonitis

113
Q

Obtain abdominal fluid for culture, evacuate the urinary bladder by _______ , and collect a urine specimen for culture and analysis if not previously submitted

A

cystocentesis

114
Q

Carefully exteriorize the uterus without applying pressure or excessive traction. A fluid filled uterus is often ______; therefore, life rather than pull the uterus out of the abdomen

115
Q

T/F: do not use a spay hook to locate and exteriorize the uterus because it may tear

116
Q

Do not correct uterine torsion because this will release?

A

bacteria and toxins

117
Q

isloate the uterus from the abdomen with what 2 techniques during a pyometra surgery

A
  • laparotomy pads
  • Sterile towels
118
Q

Place clamps ad ligatures are previously described for OHE ecept that the cervix may be resected in addition to which 3 structures?

A
  • ovaries
  • uterine horns
  • Uterine body
119
Q

Ligate the pedicles and enlarged vessels within which connective tissue with absorbale monofilament material

A

broad ligament

120
Q

T/F: throughly lavage the vaginal stump, but do not oversew the cut edges

121
Q

The following surgical techniques are important for?

  • transcet at the junction of the cervix and vagina
  • culture the contents of the uterus without contaminating the surgical field
  • remove laparotomy pads, and replace contaminated instruments, gloves, and drapes
  • lavage the abdomen and close the incision rountinely unless peritonitis is present
  • submit the tract for pathologic evaluation
A

Pyometra surgery

122
Q

T/F: complications associated with elective OHE may also occur following OHE for pyometra

123
Q

______% of patients die despite appropriat therapy (57% after uterine rupture)

124
Q

Surgical complications including septicemia, endotoxemva, peritonitis, and cervical or stump pyometra may occur because which surgery?

A

pyometra

  • stump pyometra may be associated with residula ovarian tissue
  • the remaining stump should be excised and residual ovarian tissue removed
125
Q

Most complications of pyometra surgery resolve within how much time?

A

2 weeks or surgery

126
Q

the following defines?

  • the mucosa is not truly hyperplasticity but enlarges because of edema
  • the amount of edema and eversion is extremely variable
  • severe edema causes vaginal tissue to protrude from the vula
A

vaginal prolase / hyperplasia / tumor

127
Q

Although the protruding mass may be large, the origin of the mass is usually _______ and located on the vaginal floor cranial to the urethral orifice

128
Q

What does the following image show?

A

Vaginal prolapse/hyperplasia/tumor

129
Q

T/F: although rare, vaginal prolapse / hyperplasia is the least common in large breed dogs?

A

false!! it is the most common

130
Q

Most common vaginal prolapse / hyperplasia occurs in young bitches (2 years old or younger) during one of the first _____ cycles

131
Q

T/F: vaginal prolapse / hyperplasia is extremely rare in cats?

132
Q

Perform an OHE and take a biopsy of the mass the rule out ?

133
Q

The following is considered surgical treatment for?

  • perform an episiotomy if necessary to allow biopsy
  • replace the protruding mass into the vagina or vestibule
  • lavage, lubercate, and reduce the prolapsed tissue by digital manipulation
  • maintain reduction by placing two or three horizontal mattress sutures between the vulvular lips
A

vaginal prolapse / hyperplasia / tumor surgical treatment

134
Q

What does the following show?

A

uterine prolapse and tearing

135
Q

T/F: uterine prolapses are common

A

false, they are rare

136
Q

Which disease is associated with parturition and involves the entire vaginal circumference

A

uterine prolapse

137
Q

the _____ must be dilated for uterine prolapse to occur

138
Q

uterine prolapse usually occurs with prolonged ______

139
Q

the following describes?

  • the everted tissue is doughnut shaped and discolored from venous congestion, trauma, and debris
A

uterine prolapse

140
Q

______ may tear the broad ligament and uterine artery

A

uterine prolapse

141
Q

T/F: hemorrhage may lead to hypovolemic shock unless controlled quickly during uterine prolapse

142
Q

the following surgical techniques can be done for?

  • reduce prolapse manually
  • lavage the protruding tissue with warm saline or wated and dilted antiseptic
  • hypertonic agents (sugar) may reduce edema and facilitate reduction
  • gently compress the mass to reduce edema while attempting to reduce the prolapse
  • if necessary, perform an episiotomy to assist reduction
A

Uterine Prolapse

143
Q

the following surgical techniques can be done for?

  • insert a uterine catherter
  • place horizontal mattress sutures between the vulvular lips to maintain reduction and prevent recurrence
  • if necessary, perform a celiotomy to facilitate reduction by cranial uterine traction, ensure proper alignment of the uterine horns, and assess integrity of the vasculature
A

Uterine Prolapse