Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How are joints classified?

A

by structure and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Functional classification of joints are defined as?

A

the degree of movement allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Structure of joints are defined as ?

2 parts

A

Presence/absences of a synovial cavity

the type of CT binding bones together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three functional classifications of joints?

SAD

A

Synarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Diarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the characteristics of a joint that is functionally classified as a synarthrosis?

A

They are immovable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the characteristics of a joint that is functionally classified as a Amphiarthrosis? ec- What hormone causes them to become more movable in pregnant woman in late pregnancy?

A

They are slightly movable

relaxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the characteristics of a joint that is functionally classified as a Diarthrosis?

A

They are freely movable

Differ in size and shape to permit different movement types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Classify the the function joint type based off of stability vs ROM

A

Syn- no ROM very stable
Amphi- Lass stable very little ROM
Di- Not very stable more ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three types of structural classifications of joints?
Fat Cats Sing

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three types of fibrous joints?

SSG

A

Sutures
Syndesmoses
Gomphoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where can suture joints be found?

A

On the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What fibers fill suture joints?

A

Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the bones in suture joints?

A

Bones are bound tightly together but they still allow for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the functional classification of a suture joint?

A

Synarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is synostoses?

A

When the suture joints calcify completely and become bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a syndesmoses joint?

A

They are types of ligaments that connect bones together for stability. found as a bundle or sheet covering articulating bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function class. of syndesmoses joints?

A

amphiarthritic

they allow some movment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gomphoses joints are also called?

A

peg in socket jounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the only example of Gomphoses?

A

the periodontal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the two types of Cartilaginous joints?

A

Symphysis

Synchrondroses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a Symphysis joint?

A

A cartilaginous joint where the ends of articulating bones are covered in hayline cart. but a broad dist of fibro cart connects the bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where do all symphysis occur?

A

at the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the functional classification of a synchondrosis ?

A

synarthritic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a synchondrosis?

A

a cart. joint where hyaline cart is the CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a synovial joint?

A

Freely moving diarthroses with synovial cavity that are connected by the CT of a articular capsule and ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Give and example of a suture joint

A

The sutures of the skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Give an example of a synarthritic joint

A

Suture joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

give an example of an ampiarthrosis

A

a syndesmoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of joints are diarthroses?

A

synovial joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Give an example of a syndesmoses?

A

radioulnar syndesmosis

holds the radius and ulna together but allows for twisting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give an example of a gomphoses?

A

periodontal ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

give an example of a symphysis?

A

pubis symphysis and vertebral disks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

give an example of a synchondroses

A

costal cartilage and epiphyseal plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give an example of a synovial joint

A

Any movable joint
Shoulder
Ball and socket of the hip
etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the Articular capsule?

A

A fibrous capsule surrounding synovial joints and synovial cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two layers of the articular capsule?

A

The outer fibrous capsule

the inner synovial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The outer fibrous cap is an extension of the bones_____

A

Periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does the inner synovial membrane produce?

A

synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is synovial fluid?

A

A very slick film produced by the synovial membrane comprised of hyaluronic acid and interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What component of synovial fluid acts as a barrier from infection?

A

the hyaluronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens to synovial fluid after prolonged use?

A

it becomes less viscous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Synovial fluid moves in and out of articular cartilage in a way similar to a ______?
explain

A

sponge.
Pressure caused the fluid to rush out of the art. cart. and when the pressure is removed the fluid then flows back into the cart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What other types of cartilage are found in joints? what form do they take?

A

Articular disks

the form from fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Articulating disks are also called?

A

menisci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the function(s) of menisci?

A

Improving the fit of two articulating bones with diff shapes,
allow different movements at different portions of joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Are bursa and tendon sheaths types of synovial joints?

A

no but they contain synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Other than lubrication, what are the functions of synovial fluid?

A

the transport and removal of waste and nutrients to the articular cartilage and menisci.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a bursa

A

A flattened fibrous bag lined by a synovial membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where do bursa occur?

A

where ligaments, muscles, skin, tendons, or bones overlie each other and rub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a tendon sheath?

A

an elongated bursa that wraps around a tendon subjected to friction crowded tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Degenerative joint disease
due to “wear and tear”
Deterioration of articular cartilage
often affects weight bearing joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

an autoimmune disease where the body attacks its own joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Gouty Arthritis?

A

the build up of uric acid crystals in joints

can cause joints to fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Planar joints articulate on ___planes?

A

flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Condyloid joints allow movent ____ to ___ and _____ to ____ but do not rotate

A

back and forth side to side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The joint between C1 and C2 is a _____ joint

A

Pivot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a sprain?

A

When ligaments are torn or stretched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How do sprains heal?

A

If it is a tear than slowly over time

if completely torn, they require surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

A subluxation is a _____

A

a partial dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of the bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What happens to Ligaments and tendons over time?

A

the shorten and get weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What two types of muscle cells are elongated?

A

Smooth and skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are muscle fibers?

A

another word for muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the two myofilaments found in muscle fibers?

A

Actin

myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The prefixes myo, mys, sacro refer to?

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the scarcolemma?

A

the muscle plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the sarcoplasm?

A

the cytoplasm of a muscle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Where does skeletal muscle attach?

A

to the bones of the skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

IS skeletal muscle voluntary or non-voluntary?

A

voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Skel. muscle contracts easily and it also _____ easily as well?

A

tires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What two aspacts of skel muscle make it adaptable?

A

it can vary forces

and increase or decrease as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

skeletal muscle makes up what % of body weight generally

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The wave like contractions of muscle that move things along is called?

A

peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the four functions characteristics of muscle?

ECEE

A

Excitable
contractable
extensible
elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does it mean for a muscle to be excitable?

A

It receives signals and responds to stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the two typical types of signals that muscles receive?

A

Neurotransmitters

pH change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does it mean for a muscle to be contractable?

A

It can shorten forcible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What does it mean for a muscle to be extensible?

A

it stretches and/or extends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What does it mean for a muscle to be elastic?

A

it recoils to resume its original resting length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the five main functions of muscle?

JSMPH

A
Movement
posture
joint stabilization
heat generation
Storage/movement of substances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How does muscle create movment

A

through integated skeletal muscle function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How does muscle provide posture?

A

the muscles continuously help maintain body positions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How do muscles generate heat?

A

forced contractions shivers produce heat thermogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How do muscles store/move substances?

A

Sphincters regulate openings
cardiac muscles move blood
skeletal muscle moves lymph and venous blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What cells fuse during development to form skeletal muscle fibers?

A

myoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Why do muscle fibers have hundreds of myofiliments striations

A

because of the fusion of myoblasts into muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When do muscle fibers stop undergoing mitosis?

A

after the fuse from myoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

when you build muscle what makes them bigger?

A

the enlargement of existing muscle fibers not the addition of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the three layers of connective tissue in muscle? deep to superficial
EPE

A

Endomysium
perimysium
epimysium/fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the endomysium?

A

a fine sheath of CT that surrounds each muscle fiber (sarcomere)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is the perimysium?

A

the fibrous CT surrounding groups of muscle fibers called fascicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the epimysium/fascia?

A

the over coat of dense irregular CT that surrounds the entire muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What layer of CT in muscle extends to form tendons?

A

All layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Where do tendons attach to bone?

A

periosteum

95
Q

when muscle attaches to other muscle this is referred to as a _____ attachment?

A

direct

96
Q

When CT extends as a broad, flat layer then the tendond is called a _____. this is a ____ attachment

A

aponurosis

indirect

97
Q

What direction do muscle fibers run in a fascicle?

what does this arrangement provide?

A

parallel

power and ROM

98
Q

Power depends on the _____ area

A

cross sectional

99
Q

ROM depends on _____

A

the length of fibers

100
Q

Short muscles can be just a forceful as _____

A

long muscles

101
Q

What three shapes can fascicles be?

A

straight, pennate, or orbicular

102
Q

When skeletal muscle produces movement it is exerting force on ____. these pull bones/structures

A

tendons

103
Q

The bone that muscle is attached to that doesn’t move is called the ____

A

orgin

104
Q

The action end of a muscle is called the _____

A

insertion

105
Q

Most muscles are arranged in _____pairs

A

antagonistic

106
Q

is a muscle cell the same as a sarcomere?

A

no

107
Q

what are the two intracellular tubules that regulate muscle contraction?

A

the t-tubules (transverse)

the sarcoplasmic reticulum

108
Q

What are t-tubules?

A

deep indentations on the sarcolemma

109
Q

What is the function of t-tubules?

A

the connect nervous impulses to the deepest regions of the cell

110
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

A modified smooth endoplasmic reticulum with interconnecting tubules that surrounds each myofibril

111
Q

What is the function of the SR

A

it stores calcium ions when relaxed

112
Q

What is the myofibril?

A

the long rods of proteins within the scaroplasm

they contain the mitochondria

113
Q

What caused the visible striations in muscle fibers?

A

the myofibril rows

114
Q

What is the basic unit of contraction in a muscle fiber?

A

a sarcomere

115
Q

What are the two repeating protein filaments in a sarcomere?

A

Myosin

actin

116
Q

What are the boundaries of the end of a sarcomere called?

A

the z line/disk

117
Q

What protein filaments are attached to the z line/disk

A

actin

118
Q

what are the three components of actin

A

the actin itself
tropomyosin
troponin

119
Q

IN the triations of muscle fibers, the dark bands are ____

A

myosin

120
Q

what is the function of tropomyosin?

A

to cover the binding sites on actin to prevent myosin from binding.

121
Q

What is the function of troponin?

A

it is a protein with calcium binding sites that when activated, change the shape of tropomyosin exposing the binding sites and allowing myosin to bind to actin

122
Q

Where do the calcium ions come from during contraction?

A

the sarcoplasmic rectitculum

123
Q

what type of action allows for the full contraction of a sarcomere?

A

the pulling action of myosin heads on actin

124
Q

what is required to release myosin from actin?

A

ATP

125
Q

neurons that stimulate skeletal muscle to contract are called?

A

somatic motor neurons

126
Q

what is the neuromuscular junction?

A

the structural point of contact and the functional site of communication between motor neurons and muscle.

127
Q

What is the motor unit?

A

the somatic motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers it stimulates (typically 1:150)

128
Q

The strength of a contraction depends on how many _______ are activated at the same time

A

motor units

129
Q

how can the firing of a single motor unit cause a weak contraction of the entire muscle?

A

because the neuron is woven into the entire muscle and will contract multiple fibers located through out the muscle

130
Q

what neurotransmitter is released in the synapse of the NMJ

A

acetylcholine

Ach

131
Q

explain the depolarization in the synpse

A

Ach binds to receptors this opens channels
sodium/potassium pump
changes the charge of the inner sarcolemma
this charge spreads

132
Q

Once the action potential is released in the sarcolemma how does it reach the inner muscles?

A

via the t-tubeles

133
Q

What is the exact Calcium ion that binds to troponin

A

Ca2+

134
Q

What is the motor unit?

A

A somatic motor neuron PLUS all of the fibers that it stimulates

135
Q

What is the neurotransmitter released by the somatic motor neuron?

A

Acetylcholine

136
Q

What enzyme prevents Acetylcholine from leaving the synapse?

A

Acetylcholinestrase

137
Q

What are the 8 steps of contraction? Neuron to fiber

ADPRSCTM

A
  1. Ach is released from motor neuron
  2. Depolarization occurs if threshold is reached.
    • Na+ in K+ out
  3. Propigation of Action potential travels across scarcolemma and into T-tube
  4. AP reaches voltage sensor and signals SR
  5. SR releases Ca2+
  6. Ca2+ binds to troponin
  7. Shape of tropomyosin changes and exposes binding sites
  8. Myosin binds to actin and contracts muscle
138
Q

At resting action potental, what is the charge inside and outside of the sarcomlemma?

A

outside is positive

inside is negative

139
Q

What are the 4 steps in the sequence of depolarization?

A
  1. resting potental Na+ outside K+ inside
  2. Depol. Na+ moves in potassium out and shifts innside charge of scarolemma, the flips the charges inside and out
  3. Propagation. A ripple of the Na+ flipping only occurs if treshold is met
  4. repolarization occurs and must occur befor contraction can occur again
140
Q

What is an isometric contraction?

A

When the muscle develops tension but does not shorten

posture

141
Q

What is an isotonic contraction?

A

Muscles shortens and movment occurs
non-weight bearing
(raises arms)

142
Q

What is a concentric isotonic contraction?

A

a contraction the occurs when muscles shorten and pull on another structure
(lifting a heavy object)

143
Q

What is an eccentric isotonic contraction?

A

lengthing of a muscle during a contraction

(putting down a heavy object

144
Q

What is a graded muscle response?

A

Variations in the degree of muscle contraction strength and speed

145
Q

Strength can be changed by varying the _____ of the stimulus

A

strength

146
Q

Speed of contraction can be changed by varying the _____ of the stimulus

A

frequency

147
Q

What is a twitch in terms of relative tension chart?

A

a single bump with a single stimuli

148
Q

What is a wave summation in terms of relative tension chart?

A

one stimuli causes a bimp and a second soon after causes a bigger bump

149
Q

What is an unfused (incomplete) tetanus in terms of relative tension chart?

A

a succession of spaced stimuli that increase in relative tesion

150
Q

What is a fused tetanus?

A

rapid stimuli of an artificial means that causes sustaned tension

151
Q

What is the threshold stimulus?

A

the first observable muscle contraction

152
Q

Muscles contract more vigorously as stimulus _____ is increased

A

strength

153
Q

What is muscle recruitment?

A

when more and more motor units are recruited in response to a stimuli

154
Q

What is muscle tone?

A

constant, slightly contracted state of all muscles

this keeps muscles firm healthy and ready to respond

155
Q

How do spinal reflexes account for muscle tone

2 ways

A

No movement

it staggers motor units

156
Q

What is creatine phosphate?

A

it is a quick energy supply that is consumed after free atp in used up

157
Q

What happens to theexcess ATP created by muscles while they are at rest?

A

the become creatine Phosphate

158
Q

How soon after activity is free ATP used up?

A

about 6 seconds

159
Q

How soon after activity is ATP created from Creatine Phosphate

A

10 seconds

160
Q

What happens after your body uses up its Creatine phosphate stores?

A

anerobic metabolism

161
Q

What is muscle fatigue?

A

the physiological inability for a muscle to contract

162
Q

When does muscle fatigue occur?

3 main reasons

A

when ATP production fails
when ATP runs out
When ionic imbalances are present.
(k+ trapped in t tubes)

163
Q

What is psychological fatigue?

A

when the pain from lactic acid causes your brain to tell you to stop

164
Q

What is Oxygen debt?

A

the extra amoubnt of OXY required for restorative processes after vigorous exercise

165
Q

What does your body do to lactic acid when it accumulates?

A

it converts it into pyruvate

via the liver converting it into glucose first

166
Q

How are muscle fibers categorized?

A

based on the rate of ATP hydrolysis, methods of ATP production and rate of oxidation

167
Q

How many types of muscle fibers are there?

A

2

168
Q

Can a motor unit contol two seperate types of muscle fibers?

A

no

169
Q

Can the ratio of the two types of muscle fiber be changed within the body?

A

yes, via endurance or strength training

170
Q

Type one fibers are also called _____ Twitch

A

slow

171
Q

What are the properties of slow twitch fibers?

A
smallest types
very resistant to fatigue
store tons of ATP
high levels of Myoglobin
*runner*
172
Q

What is myoglobin?

A

similar to hemoglobin, store oxygen in muscles to be used for metabolism

173
Q

What are the properties of fast twitch fibers?

A
faster to contract
anerobic 
large fibers
strong
*body building*
174
Q

What is delayed onset muscle soreness?

A

soreness as a result of micro-tears in the muscle fiber not lactic acid

it is an inflammatory reaction that causes swelling thar presses on nerve endings

175
Q

how long after working our does DOMS occur?

A

peaks at 48 hours

176
Q

What are anabolic setroids

A

suppliments similar to natural androgen that induce muscle growth

177
Q

what are the side effects of anabolic steroids?

A

kidney damage, heart damage, agression, masculinazation of women
baldness in men

178
Q

What are some benifits of aerobic exercise?

A

increased muscle capilaries
increased mitochondria density
increaded myoglobin

179
Q

What are some benefits of anerobic exercise?

A

Muscle fiber hypertrophy

increased myofilaments, connective tissue, and glycogen stores

180
Q

Does sommth muscle have a scaromere?

A

no the myofilaments are attached to dense bodies in scarcoplasm

181
Q

How is smooth muscle contraction regulated?

A

via hormones and autonomic nervous system

182
Q

does smooth muscle use sliding filiments?

A

yes

183
Q

How do smooth muscles contract?

A

they twist to contract

184
Q

How do visceral smooth muscles connect to one another?

A

tight junctions

185
Q

what are some ways to keep muscle healthy?

A
work out
posture
hydration
healthy diet
no steroids
186
Q

what is sarcopenia?

A

the loss of muscle mass

187
Q

What are the three basic functions of nervus tissue?

A

sensory
integration
motor

188
Q

What is the sensory function of nervous tissue

A

Detects stimuli and converts them into nervous impulses and sends them to the brain

189
Q

What is the integration function of nervous tissue

A

grey matter

collects impulses and integrates them into responses

190
Q

What is the motor function of nervous tissue?

A

it generates signals that travel to the brain

191
Q

Can neurons have more than one function?

A

no, only one

192
Q

What are the two main cell types in nervous tissue?

A

Neurons and Neuroglia

193
Q

What are neurons?

A

the cells responsible for sending and receving impulses

194
Q

what are neuroglia?

A

(nerve glue)

they provide structural support, nourishment and protection

195
Q

What are the three main parts of an electrically excitable neuron?

A

Dendrites
the cell body
and the axon

196
Q

axons join the cell body at the _____

A

axon hillock

197
Q

What are the two types of post synaptic potential?

A

EPSP- Excitatory postsynaptic potential

IPSP-Inhibitory postsynaptic potential

198
Q

What is a Excitatory postsynaptic potential

A

a graded potential that can initiate an AP in an axon

Green lights

199
Q

Action potential occurs when the Graded potential reaches the ___

A

Axon hillock

200
Q

What is the function of the Inhibitory Post-synaptic potential

A

It inhibits the action potential
it can induce hyper polarization driving a neuron further from the threshold for AP
Stop light

201
Q

What is a neural summation?

A

An order of neural impulses that lead to an AP

202
Q

What are the two types of Summation?

A

Temporal and Spatial

203
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

when the post synaptic neuron is stimulated by a large number of terminals at the same time
all the puppies

204
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

presynaptic neurons transmit in rapid fire order and produce a AP

205
Q

How are neural cells classified?

A

By function and shape

206
Q

What are the three main neuron types and their functions?

A
Motor Neurons(efferent)-motor function away from brain
Sensory neurons(afferent)-sensory fnction to the brain
Inter-neurons(grey-matter) in between motor and sensory, they are the integrating
207
Q

What is the reflex arc

describe it

A

the nerve impulse pathway of a reflex

208
Q

What are the three main neuron shapes and types of neurons that are examples of those shapes.

A

Multipolar- many dendrites and one axon(neurons in the brain and motor neurons)
Bipolar-one main dendrite and one axon (sensory neurons)
Pseudo-unipolar-axon and dendrite fuse into single process(sensory stretch receptors and internal organs)

209
Q

What is summation?

A

The sum of all excitatory post synaptic potentials

210
Q

What are astrocytes.

A

The most abundant, versatile, highly branched.
Support cells
Momma bird
Found in the CNA

211
Q

What are microglia?

A

Phagocytic cells that monitor neurons

212
Q

What are Ependymal cells

A

Squabmaus to columnar cells that line the central cavities of th brain and produce CSF

213
Q

What are oligodendrocytes

A

Cells that wrap around CNS fibers and form myelin sheath

214
Q

What are satellite cells

A

Support and surround cell bodies in the PNS

215
Q

What is Myelination?

A

The coating of myelin sheath that occurs in most mammals

216
Q

Electrical current in the body comes from the flow of?

A

ions

217
Q

Passive ion channels are _____ open

A

always

218
Q

What are the two types of potential signals that occur in neurons?

A

Graded potential

action potential

219
Q

What are the events that cause an action potential?

A

Depolorization
repolarization
hyperpolarization

220
Q

What is depolarization?

A

When Na+ channels open and Na+ rushes into the cell

221
Q

What is re-polarization?

A

When K+ channels open via electro gated channels and allow K+ to flow out of the cell.

222
Q

What is hyperpolarization?

A

When the inside of the cell becomes more negative than the resting potential because the K+ channels are slow to close

223
Q

How does the resting potential return to equilibrium?

A

via sodium potassium pumps working to return the charges back to normal

224
Q

What is the average charge of resting membrane potential

A

-40 to -90 mv

225
Q

What is the average charge of the threshold level of depolarization?

A

-55 to 50mV

226
Q

What occurs during depolarization?

A
Na+ permeability increases
Na+ enters cell
membrane potential reverses
Na+ gates open K+ gates are closed
Threshold is reached
227
Q

What occurs during repolarization?

A

Na+ gates close
Voltage sensitive K+ gates open
K+ exits the cell and negative charge in cell is returned

228
Q

What occurs during hyperpolarization?

A

K+ gates remain open causing an excess of K+ leaving the cell
Causes the neuron to become insensitive for a period
Na+ channels reset
Na+, K+ pump resets the system

229
Q

What are the two refractory periods?

A

Absolute and Relative

230
Q

During which refractory period can the membrane depolarize?

A

Relative

231
Q

When does the Absolute refractory period occur/end?

A

While AP is being generated and during depolarization

ends during mid-repolarization

232
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

When AP jumps from node to node in a myelinated axon

233
Q

What types of neurons use saltatory conduction?

A

PNS

234
Q

What is the difference between gray and white matter?

A

White matter consists of myelinated neurons