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S&F1 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Structural region on MyoD that is required for activity

A

BHLH (basic helix loop helix)

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2
Q

Binding site in DNA for myogenic factors

A

E-box

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3
Q

Physiological process of converting an electrical stimulus to the muscle into a contraction.

A

Excitation-contraction coupling

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4
Q

Molecular interactions between actin and myosin that lead to muscle contraction

A

Power stroke

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5
Q

Molecular interactions between actin and myosin that lead to muscle contraction

A

Power stroke

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6
Q

Stem cells found in skeletal muscle fibers that promote repair and regeneration

A

Satellite cells

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7
Q

Pump located in the endoplasmic reticulum that transports calcium from the cytoplasm into the SR

A

SERCA

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8
Q

Short duration contraction caused by continuous stimulation

A

Summation contraction

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9
Q

Steady, prolonged contraction caused by continuous stimulation

A

Tetanus contraction

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10
Q

Single muscle contraction caused by one action potential

A

Twitch contraction

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11
Q

Single cell myoblasts fuse to form

A

Multinucleated myotubes

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12
Q

Transcription factors determine if cells become myogenic

A

MyoD
Myogenin
Myf-5
MRF-4/herculin/myf-6

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13
Q

This section of myogenic regulatory structure is responsible for dimerization (active form)

A

Helix loop helix

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14
Q

This region of myogenic factors is important in allowing the dimerized myogenic factors to bind to the DNA

A

Basic region

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15
Q

Myogenic factors, after dimerizing bind to this section on the DNA

A

E-box

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16
Q

Two early myogenic determination factors

A

MyoD and Myf5

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17
Q

Two late myogenic determination factors

A

Myogenin

RF4

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18
Q

Mutations in this lead to increase in muscle mass

A

Myostatin

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19
Q

Acts as a negative regulator of muscle growth.
Inhibits myoblast proliferation
Inhibits progression of myoblasts from G1 to S
TGF-beta family of signaling proteins
MyoD binds to the E-box of this things’ promoter, activating transcription

A

Myostatin

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20
Q

These are recruited to supply myoblasts for repair and regeneration

A

Satellite cells

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21
Q

Heavy chains of myosin consist of:

A

Globular head

Filamentous tail

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22
Q

Acts as an ATPase, releasing energy for contraction.

Binds to actin

A

Globular head of myosin thick filaments

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23
Q

Lies in the groove between the two strands of actin

Has a regulatory function and provides structural rigidity to actin

A

Tropomysin

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24
Q

Serves to bind troponin to tropomyosin

A

Troponin T

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25
Q

Contains two high and two low affinity sites for Ca

A

Troponin C

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26
Q

Inhibits interaction between actin and myosin

A

Troponin I

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27
Q

One molecule of this extends from M line to Z disc.

Acts as a spring to keep myosin filaments centered in sarcomere and maintain resting tension that allows muscle to snap back if overextended

A

Titin

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28
Q

Associated w/ actin

Regulates assembly and alignment of actin filaments

A

Nebulin

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29
Q

Calcium binds to what protein to initiate contraction?

A

Troponin C

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30
Q

Energy from skeletal muscle contraction is derived from _____

A

The cleavage of ATP by the myosin head

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31
Q

Layer of connective tissue that surrounds a muscle fiber

A

Endomysium

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32
Q

Muscle fiber that is a single, long, multinucleated cell w/ flattened nuclei on the periphery

A

Skeletal muscle.

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33
Q

Groups of several muscle fibers

A

Fasicle

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34
Q

Outer covering of the fasicle

A

Perimysium

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35
Q

Basic functional unit of the myofibril

Repeating units of sarcomeres run the length of the muscle

Composed of thick and thin filamentss

Overlapping of filaments creates banding pattern

A

Sarcomere

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36
Q

Thick fliaments

A

Myosin

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37
Q

Thin filaments

A

Actin

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38
Q

Type of muscle with cells joined end to end by intercalated disks to make fibers. Cross striations from sarcomere, rounded nuclei often centrally located

A

Cardiac muscle

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39
Q

Eosinophilic cytoplasm, minimal endomysium. Speckled hot dog central nucleus, fiber is a single cell w/ a single nucleus

A

Smooth muscle

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40
Q

Type of muscle that does not contain sarcomeres

A

Smooth muscle

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41
Q

Region of sarcomere with only actin

A

I band

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42
Q

Represents the full length of the thick filaments (myosin)

A

A band

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43
Q

This initiates chromatin remodeling in regulatory regions of muscle-specific genes

A

MyoD

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44
Q

Loss of myostatin function causes what?

A

Muscle hypertrophy

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45
Q

What activated process of satellite cell repair?

A

Immune response to injury

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46
Q

T-tubule Voltage gated calcium channel that mediates long lasting calcium currents

A

DHP (dihydropyridine)

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47
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium through this

A

Ryanodine receptor 1 (RyR1)

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48
Q

Conformational change in DHP causes this channel to open

A

RyR1

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49
Q

When no ATP is available to let actin be released from myosin

A

Rigor mortis

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50
Q

Cyclic myosin-actin interactions will continue as long as _____

A

There are calcium ions in the sarcoplasms

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51
Q

Stabilizes resting membrane potential preventing false action potentials

Important in repolarizing the membrane after contraction

A

Chloride channel (CIC-1)

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52
Q

A glycoprotein that binds calcium ions and acts to reduce SR concentration of free calcium

A

Calsequestrin

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53
Q

Order of sources used to generate ATP in skeletal muscle?

A
  1. Phosphocreatine + ADP –(creatine phosphokinase)–> ATP + creatine
  2. Glycolysis
  3. Oxidative phosphorylation
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54
Q

Which of the 3 means of skeletal muscle to obtain ATP is the most abundant?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

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55
Q

Force generated by formation of actin-myosin crossbridge

A

Active tension

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56
Q

Dramatic muscle atrophy seen in patients w/ chronic illness

A

Cachexia

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57
Q

Length stays constant but tension changes

A

Isometric contraciton

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58
Q

Tension stays constant but the length changes

A

Isotonic contraction

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59
Q

Single motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates

A

Motor unit

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60
Q

Dz of skeletal muscle not caused by nerve disorders

A

Myopathy

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61
Q

Inflammation of skeletal muscles

A

Myositis

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62
Q

Force generated by stretching of skeletal muscle

A

Passive tension

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63
Q

Rapid destruction of skeletal muscle

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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64
Q

Age related reduction in skeletal muscle mass and strength

A

Sarcopenia

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65
Q

Force generated by both cross bridge formation and satretching muscle

A

Total tension

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66
Q

Type of isotonic contraction; muscle decreases in length against opposing load (such as lifting weight up)

A

Concentric contraction

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67
Q

Type of isotonic contraction; muscle increases in length as it resists a load, such as pushing something down

A

Eccentric contraction

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68
Q

Length of muscle where maximum force is generated

A

Optimal length

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69
Q

Slow twitch fibers

A

Type I

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70
Q

Type of fibers with slow myosin ATPase, high in mitochondria, dependent on cellular respiration for ATP, rich in myoglobin, resistant to fatigue, activated by small motor neurons

A

Type I fibers (slow twitch)

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71
Q

Type of fiber w/ fast myosin ATPase

A

Fast twitch fibers (type II)

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72
Q 
Type of fast twitch
Loaded w/ mitochondria
Cellular respiration and glycolysis for ATP.
High myoglobin
Moderately fatigue resistant
Large motor neurons
A

Type IIa fibers

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73
Q 
Type of fast twitch
Few mitochondria
High glycogen
Glycolysis for ATP production
Low myoglobin
Easily fatigued
A

Type IIb fibers

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74
Q

Group of muscle fibers innervated by same motor neuron

A

Motor unit

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75
Q

Defects in dystrophin gene which leads to instability of sarcolemma and then to damage of the muscle during contractions

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Becker’s muscular dystrophy

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76
Q

Breakdown of muscle fibers leading to release of contents (especially myoglobin).
Some of these fibers toxic to kidney
Most are caused by crush injury, overexertion, ETOH abuse, certain drugs (statins), and toxic substances

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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77
Q

Defect in RYR1 channel which causes it to open more easily and close slower. Activated by some anesthetics and muscle relaxers
Leads to uncontrolled release of calcium.
Muscles contract abnormally leading to rigidity and heat prodction

A

Malignant hyperthermia

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78
Q

Conversion of a physical signal (energy) into a neural signal

A

Transduction

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79
Q

Representation of qualitative and quantitative aspects of the stimulus

A

Encoding

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80
Q

Conscious awareness of stimulus

A

Perception

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81
Q

The quality of the stimulus, determined by the nature of the energy

A

Modality

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82
Q

5 sensory modalities

A

Touch, taste, smell, hearing, vision

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83
Q

The unique form of energy that activates a specific receptor at low energy level. (Light for photreceptors)

A

Adequate stimuluas

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84
Q

The lowest stimulus that can reliably (at least 50% of the time) be detected

A

Sensory threshold

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85
Q

A decrease in sensitivity raises the threshold and shifts the intensity-response curve to the ___

A

Right

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86
Q

Receptors that provide information about static properties of a stimulation

A

Slowly adapting receptors

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87
Q

Receptors that provide information about dynamic aspects of a stimulus

A

Rapidly adapting receptors

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88
Q

The specific spatial location w/in the sensory organ where stimulus energy is effective (for tactile, this is like a topographical map of the skin)

A

Receptive field.

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89
Q

Cold receptors are stimulated by temperature in this range ___

A

12-35C

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90
Q

Warm receptors are stimulated in this range

A

30-47C

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91
Q

Activated by extremes of heat or cold (less than 12C or more than 47C)

A

Thermal pain receptors

92
Q

Two types of mechanisms of adaptation

A

Sensory mechanism

Membrane mechanism

93
Q

Free nerve endings, merkel endings, hair follicle receptors

A

Nonencapsulated receptors

94
Q

Formed by fine branches of sensory axons. These nerve endings lose any myelination before termination. Found throughout the body, no specialized structures. Can be mechanical, thermal, pain, or itch receptors

A

Free nerve endings.

95
Q

Formed by myelinated axons of sensory receptor neurons that branch into flattened, disk shaped endings

Contain stretch-gate ion channels and function as mechanoreceptors.

A

Merkel receptors

96
Q

Mechanoreceptors formed by the endings of sensory axons (thin myelinated) that wrap around the hair. Bending of the hair stretches the axon membrane, opening stretch gated channels

A

Hair follicle receptors

97
Q

Class of receptors that includes Meissner corpuscles, pacinian corpuscles, and Ruffini endings.
All are mechanoreceptors w/ stretch gated channels

A

Encapsulated receptors

98
Q

Contain a layered stack of Schwann cells w/in a capsule. They are oriented perpendicularly to the long axis of the capsule. One or more axon endings wind between the schwann cell layer.

Located just under the epidermis in hairless skin

A

Meissner corpuscles

99
Q

Subcutaneous

Contains concentric layers of epithelial cells w/ fluid filled spaces between. A single axon ending lies in the center

A

Pacinian corpuscles

100
Q

Located in the dermis and subQ and CT

Capsule contains a core of longitudinally oriented collagen strands w/ interspersed sensory endings.

Respond to drag or shearing forces

A

Ruffini endings

101
Q

Most sensitive to fast vibrations

A

Pacinian corpuscle

102
Q

Responds to lower frequencies of vibrations

A

Meissner corpuscles

103
Q

What type of adapting receptors are pacinian corpuscles, meissner corpuscles and hair follicle receptors

A

Fast adapting receptros

104
Q

What type of adaptation do merkel and ruffini receptors do?

A

Slow adaptation

105
Q

Respond to skin indentation

A

Merkel receptors

106
Q

Respond to the stretching of the skin that is aligned w/ the capsule of the receptor

A

Ruffini receptors

107
Q

Conscious awareness of body position and movement. Dependent on signal from muscle sensory receptors

A

Kinesthesia

108
Q

Detection of position and movement of body itself

A

Proprioception

109
Q

Detection of the outside world

A

Exteroception

110
Q

Specialized muscle cells that have both sensory and motor innervation.

Sensory neurons are sensitive to muscle stretch

A

Muscle spindles

111
Q

Located in muscle tendons or CT attachments. Sensitive to tension in tendon

A

Golgi tendon organs

112
Q

Specific motor neuron for muscle spindles

A

Gamma motor neurons

113
Q

Three things that muscle spindles signal

A

Muscle length
Movement
Velocity

114
Q

Motor neurons that fire action potentials allowing skeletal muscle contraction

A

Alpha motor neurons

115
Q

Muscle tension at rest

Due to activities in alpha motor neurons at rest

A

Muscle tonus

116
Q

Where is highest density of muscle spindles?

A

Muscles used in fine control.

117
Q

Muscle cells inside spindle

A

Intrafusal cells

118
Q

All regular muscle cells that are outside the muscle spindle

A

Extrafusal

119
Q

Neurons that innervate only spindle muscle cells.

A

Gamma motor neurons

120
Q

Innervate fast contracting muscle cells

A

Gamma dynamic motor neurons

121
Q

Innervate slow contracting muscle cells

A

Gamma static motor neurons

122
Q

Is able to encode how fast a muscle stretch is

A

Group Ia sensory neurons

123
Q

Encodes the force developed by a muscle contraction

A

Golgi Tendon organ

124
Q

Larger action potential generated by many individual action potential’s firing at once

A

Compound action potential

125
Q

If axon diameter increases, current threshold _____

A

Decreases

126
Q

Current threshold varies ____ with axon diameter

A

Inversely

127
Q

The amount of stimulus current required to excite an action potential in a single axon

A

Current threshold

128
Q

Compound action potentials evoked in low current thresholds reflect function in ____

A

Large diameter (myelinated) axons

129
Q

Type of action potential recorded if the reference electrode is located far away from the extracellular recording site along the nerve

A

Monophasic

130
Q

Type of action potential recorded if the indifferent electrode is located nearby, along the same nerve

A

Diphasic

131
Q

What are the chemical senses

A

Smell and taste

132
Q

Site of olfactory transduction?

A

Odorant receptor proteins on the cilia of the olfactory receptor neurons

133
Q

Allows humans to detect many more odors than we have receptor proteins for

A

Population coding

134
Q

Each receptor neuron can be activated by several different odorants w/ varying sensitivities, with the pattern of responses across the entire population of receptors being responsible for the perceived odor.

A

Population coding

135
Q

Modified epithelial cells with distinct apical and basolateral membranes that are clustered into papillae

A

Taste receptor cells (taste buds are what actually cluster into the papillae)

136
Q

5 types of basic tastes that humans can recognize

A 
Sweet
Sour
Bitter
Salt
Umami
137
Q

Bitter, sweet, and umami tastes use what for neurotransmission

A

G proteins

138
Q

Type of gustatory receptor that uses TRP channels to allow the influx of H+ ions

A

Sour

139
Q

Two ways that the sweet taste transductor gets Ca to release the transmitter?

A

Activation of Ca permeable TRP channel

Release of Ca from the IC organelles.

140
Q

Type of receptor that is used in the metabotropic response of bitter taste transduction

A

Gustducin

141
Q

Types of gustatory responses that are metabotropic

A

Umami
Bitter
Sweet

142
Q

Things that supplement taste in food identification

A

Temperature, texture, and odor

143
Q

About how many olfactory receptors / receptor genes are there in humans?

A

500

144
Q

About how many odors can humans detect?

A

Over 20000

145
Q

Where are satellite cells located?

A

On surface of muscle fiber, beneath basal lamina

146
Q

Mediates the events between muscle excitation and contraction

A

Calcium

147
Q

In a powerstroke, what direction does actin move in relation to a sarcomere

A

Towards the center

148
Q

Type of muscle w/ multiple flattened nuclei on the periphery

A

Skeletal

149
Q

Type of muscle with round, centrally located nucleus. (Sometimes has 2 nuclei)

A

Cardiac

150
Q

Type of muscle with speckled hotdog looking nucleus that is centrally located

A

Smooth

151
Q

Contains the entire thick filament and part of the thin filament

A

A band

152
Q

Only contains the thin filament and the Z band. Does not contain the entire thin filament

A

I band

153
Q

Only contains Thick filament (not the entire thick filament)

A

H band

154
Q

Yellow pigment granules in the soma

A

Liposfuscin

155
Q

Cell that can myelinate multiple axons

A

Oligodendrocytes

156
Q

Cell that responds to tissue injury and immune responses in the brain.

Phagocytic

Smallest glial cell w/ irregular shape dark nucleus

A

Microglia

157
Q

Gray matter is outside of the ___

A

Brain

158
Q

Gray matter is on the inside of the ___

A

Spinal cord

159
Q

White matter is on the inside of the ___

A

Brain

160
Q

White matter is on the outside of the ___

A

Spinal cord

161
Q

Type of matter that is primarily neurons, unmyelinated axons, and neuroglia.

Densely packed region of cell processes called the neuropil

A

Gray matter

162
Q

Primarily myelinated axons, oligodendrocytes, and blood vessels

NO neuronal cell bodies

A

White matter

163
Q

Connective tissue coverings of the brain and spinal cord

A

Meninges

164
Q

How many layers of cells are there in the gray matter of the cerebrum

A

6 layers

165
Q

A specialized cell transmitting nerve impulses

A

Neuron

166
Q

3 layers of the cerebellum

A

Molecular
Purkinje
Granular

167
Q

Distinguishable large dendritic tree

Layer of cerebellum

Large cell bodies in a single layer

Middle layer of cerebellum

A

Purkinje Cells

168
Q

Found in the hypodermis

Senses pressure, vibration, touch

A

Pacinian corpuscle

169
Q

Found in the dermal papilla of thick skin

Senses touch

A

Meissner corpuscles

170
Q

A dense layer of CT that surrounds multiple fasicles of peripheral nerves

A

Epineurium

171
Q

Bundles of axons (fascicles) are surrounded by a thinner layer of connective tissue called the _____

A

Perineurium

172
Q

Muscle tension can be increased in what two ways?

A

Recruitment (increased # motor units contracting)

Summation (increased freq of single motor unit contracting)

173
Q

Defects in dystrophin leading to instability in sarcolemma?

A

DMD

Becker’s muscular dystrophy

174
Q

Signal joint position and movement by monitory muscle length

A

Muscle spindles

175
Q

Specialized skeletal muscle cells w/ both motor and sensory innervation. Sensitive to stretch & signal changes in muscle length. Some also indicate velocity.
Adjusted by gamma motor neurons that innervate it

A

Muscle spindles

176
Q

Peripheral neuropathies, loos of axons in peripheral nerves. Loss of propioception, no sense of body position, Use vision (exteroception) to compensate for proprioceptive loss

A

Guillain - Barre Syndrome

177
Q

Located in muscle tendons or connective tissue attachments; sensitive to tension in tendon. Signal force produced by muscle.

A

Golgi tendon organs

178
Q

Activation of alpha motor neurons

Shortens in length and generation of force

A

Muscle contraction

179
Q

Contraction against moderate load, changes length, tension on tendon and force are relatively constant. Movement and position detected by muscle spindles. Force detected by golgi tendon organs

A

Isotonic contraction

180
Q

Contraction against a large load. Muscle length remains constant and larger forces are generated. No movement, no change in muscle spindles. Large increased force detected by golgi tendon organs

A

Isometric contraction

181
Q

Amount of tension in a muscle at rest

A

Muscle tonus

182
Q

what does passive stretch test?

A

Tests the muscle tonus

By having pt relax and then slowly stretch the muscle by mving limb at joints.

Compare this tonus to normal muscle strength

183
Q

Muscle spindles are found most densely in muscles that are used for

A

Fine control

184
Q

Muscle cells inside the spindle

A

Intrafusal cells

185
Q

Part of the muscle spindle that are able to contract

A

Polar regions (contain contractile filaments)

186
Q

Part of muscle spindle that is unable to contract

A

Equatorial region. (Contains sensory nerve endings)

187
Q

Muscle spindles are innervate by?

A

Gamma motor neurons

188
Q

Neurons that innervate only spindle muscle cells.

A

Gamma motor neurons

189
Q

Innervate fast contracting muscle cells

A

Gamma dynamic neurons (Ia)

190
Q

Innervate slow contracting muscle cells

A

Gamma static neurons (II)

191
Q

Spindle sensory neurons have what type of ion channels?

A

Stretch-sensitive

192
Q

Secondary sensory neurons ony encode _____ of the change in length

A

Magnitude

193
Q

(Ia) discharge intensely when stretch is occurring, encode velocity of the stretch, and encode the magnitude of the change in length.

A

Primary sensory neurons

194
Q

Small rapid change in length produces ____ from _____.

A

Large discharge from Group Ia

195
Q

Used to adjust spindle length to muscle length

A

Gamma motor neurons

196
Q

Clinical significance of tonus test?

A

Tonus is increased in upper motor neuron disorders

197
Q

How are muscle spindles oriented in comparison to regular muscle cells?

A

Parallel

198
Q

Respond best to fast vibrations or changes in pressure. Respond robustly to the change in pressure when an object is initially grasped in hand.
“Event detectors”

A

Pacinian corpuscles

199
Q

Signal the weight, form, and surface features of objects contacting skin. Sustained response allows singaling of steady pressure exerted by the edges of objects held in hand

A

Merkel cells

200
Q

Most abundant receptor type in hand
Rapid adaptation - no info about static pressure
Readily detect textures and edges as the hand is moved over surfaces
Helps to provide sensory info w/ high spatial and temporal resolution.

A

Meissner corpuscles

201
Q

Two cell types involved with reading braille

A

Meissner and merkel

202
Q

Responds to stretch of the skin. Signaling posture and movements of the body including the hand and mouth

A

Ruffini

203
Q

Cells that line the lumen of the spinal canal

A

Ependymal cells

204
Q

Cells that respond to tissue injury and participate in immune responses. Phagocytic in nature. In the brain

A

Microglia

205
Q

Dispersion of Nissl substance to periphery

A

Chromatolysis

206
Q

Outer surface of the cerebrum and cerebellum
Central region of spinal cord
Consists of neurons , unmyelinated axons, and neuroglia
Densely packed region of cell processes called the neuropil

A

Gray matter

207
Q

Primarily myelinated axons, oligodendrocytes and blood vessels.
No neuronal cell bodies.
Outside of spinal cord
Inside of brain

A

White matter

208
Q

Consists of dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

A

Meninges

209
Q

Network of collagen and elastic fibers filled w/ cerebrospinal fluid that acts as a shock absorber

A

Sub-arachnoid spaace

210
Q

Dense connective tissue in meninges

A

Dura mater

211
Q

Inner layer of loose CT that carries blood vessels (in meninges)

A

Pia mater

212
Q

How many layers are there of gray matter in the cerebral cortex

A

6

213
Q

Purkinje cells are middle layer of

A

Cerebellum

214
Q

Pyramidal cells are found in the

A

Cortex

215
Q

Key feature of cerebellum tissue

A

Purkinje cells

216
Q

Plexus’s that control motility and secretion in the intestinal tract

A

Meisners’s and auerbach’s plexus.

217
Q

Fluid from this gland dissolves odor molecules so they can bind to receptors on the non-motile cilia of bipolar neurons

A

Bowman’s gland

218
Q

Anchor point for thick filaments

A

M Line

219
Q

Location of T tubule in skeletal muscle

A

A-I junction

220
Q

T tubule is at the Z line in

A

Cardiac sarcomere (makes diad)

221
Q

Majority of calcium for cardiac muscle comes from?

A

Extracellular

222
Q

Inner layer of smooth muscle around intestine runs

A

Circularly

223
Q

Outer layer of smooth muscle around intestines runs

A

Longitudinally

224
Q

Binds intermediate filaments and actin to the membrane in smooth muscle

A

Dense bodies

225
Q

Actin connects to intermediate filament cytoskeleton and _____ in smooth muscle

A

Dense bodies

226
Q

Are there t tubules in smooth muscles?

A

No

S&F1 (9 decks)

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