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exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

what is cellular growth

A

individual cell is getting larger in preparation for replication

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2
Q

how to prokaryotes divide

A

binary division

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3
Q

how to eukaryotes divide

A

mitosis

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4
Q

in chemotaxis, how will a bacteria respond to no attractant or repellent

A

random run and tumble movement

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5
Q

in chemotaxis how will a bacteria respond to an attractant or repellent

A

directed movement

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6
Q

what type of gradient do bacteria sense

A

sense temporal NOT spatial

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7
Q

what happens to a bacterial cell if MCP binds a repellent

A

a signal will be sent to the cell to increase the amount of tumbling

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8
Q

if a repellent is present what happens to the rate of CheA autophosphorylation

A

if repellent, increases

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9
Q

if a repellent is present what happens to CheY

A

will be made faster

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10
Q

if a repellent is present what happens to CheY-P

A

will increase

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11
Q

if a repellent is present what happens to CheB

A

will increase

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12
Q

what is an adaptation circuit

A

gradient increases or decreases with time and tries constantly to bring gradient back to default

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13
Q

doing what changes the way MCP acts towards repellents or attractants

A

adding or removing methyl groups

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14
Q

what is the function of CheB-P

A

its a demethylase that removes methyl groups from MCP’s

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15
Q

what is the function of Che-R

A

its a methylase that adds methyl groups to MCP

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16
Q

what compound of MCP increases tumbling

A

CheY-P

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17
Q

what compound of MCP decreases methylation

A

CheB-P

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18
Q

what happens to methylation when there is a repellent present

A

methylation is decreased leading to decreased sensitivity of presence of repellent

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19
Q

what is the main function of MCP

A

determining if something is a repellent or an attractant

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20
Q

what is the function of CheZ

A

removes P from CheY-P

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21
Q

what is the function of CheW

A

helps CheA attach to MCP

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22
Q

what is CheA

A

accessory protein able to autophosphorylate (pull P off ATP and use P)

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23
Q

what compound interacts with Fli proteins in flagella to determine flagellar movement

A

CheY-P

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24
Q

what does MCP stand for

A

methyl accepting chemotaxis protein

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25
Q

how many methyl groups can generally be added to MCP

A

around 6

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26
Q

how can you modify an MCP transducer

A

by adding or removing methyl groups

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27
Q

what compounds are involved in the adaptation (transducer) circuit

A

CheR, CheA, CheW, CheB

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28
Q

what compounds are involved in the response circuit

A

CheA, CheW, CheY, CheZ

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29
Q

what is the purpose of having a transducer and a response circuit

A

they sense change in concentration over time and react to the change over time

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30
Q

with an attractant how does CheA respond

A

autophosphorylation decreases

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31
Q

with an attractant how does CheY-P respond

A

increases, increases tumbling

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32
Q

with an attractant how does CheB-P respond

A

increases, decreasing methylation

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33
Q

with an attractant increased methylation occurs leading to _____ sensitivity of MCP

A

decreased sensitivity

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34
Q

if the cell moves towards the stimulus ____ sensitivity

A

decreased

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35
Q

if the cell moves away from the stimulus ___ sensitivity

A

increased

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36
Q

what is the function of septum formation in a cell

A

its the physical division of the cell

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37
Q

what must occur first before the cell can properly divide

A

it must replicate its DNA

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38
Q

what are fimbrae

A

shorter and more numerous than flagella or pili and are thought to be involved in attachment to surfaces/other cells

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39
Q

what are pili

A

one to a few per cell, hollow tube made of pilin involved in attachment and/or conjugation

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40
Q

how did griffith show the prevention of phagocytosis

A

inject pneumonia to mice with capsule they die, inject the same thing but without a capsule into mice and they live

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41
Q

what are the types of glycocalyx

A

capsules and slime layers

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42
Q

how can you tell the difference between a capsule and a slime layer

A

by the degree of organization and the tightness of attachment to the cell

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43
Q

is a glycocalyx hydophilic or hydrophobic

A

hydrophilic

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44
Q

what makes up a glycocalyx

A

polysaccharides and/or polypeptides

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45
Q

what is the function of a glycocalyx

A

attaches cells to surfaces, prevents phagocytosis, prevents desiccation

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46
Q

what does glycocalyx literally mean

A

sugar crown, glycocalyx surrounds the cell in a sugar coating

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47
Q

what types of bacteria can produce endospores

A

a very restricted number of gram positive bacteria (ex. bacillus)

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48
Q

what is an endospore

A

for survival, NOT for reproduction. essentially and extra outer coat to protect

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49
Q

what do endospores contain

A

dipicolinic acid and calcium ion accumulation (these help in resistance)

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50
Q

explain the process of sporulation

A

vegetative cell DNA becomes more dense and lines up, plasma membrane surrounds replicated DNA, spore septum surrounds the isoated portion making a forespore, peptidoglycan forms between membranes, spore coat forms, endospore is released from cell

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51
Q

what is the function of the last steps of sporulation

A

they make the spore resistant

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52
Q

what is the function of calcium dipicolinate in an endospore

A

helps to old strands of DNA together and protects against heat denaturization
dehydrates the spore helps with chemical resistance since all the water is used up, prevents formation of things like H2O2

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53
Q

what are the two possible meanings of growth

A

cell growth or population growth

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54
Q

what are the basic requirements for any type of cell division

A

replication of DNA, partitioning of DNA, septum formation

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55
Q

describe in brief the process of binary fission

A

DNA replication, cell elongation, septum formation, formation of distinct walls, cell separation

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56
Q

whats different about the cytoskeleton of eukaryotes versus prokaryotes

A

prok do not have a cytoskeleton

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57
Q

what is the function of a divisome in prok

A

body involved in division of cell membrane and cytoplasm

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58
Q

what is the most common type of prokaryotic motility

A

flagella

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59
Q

what type of prokaryotes typically use an endoflagella

A

spirochetes

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60
Q

what are the types of taxis

A

chemotaxis, phototaxis, aerotaxis, osmotaxis

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61
Q

what kind of motility is not done within fluid environment

A

gliding motility

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62
Q

what is motility

A

how you move in your environment as a survival advantage

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63
Q

what is taxis

A

directed movement in either positive or negative

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64
Q

what is conesis

A

undirected movement

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65
Q

what is positive taxis

A

movement towards a stimulus

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66
Q

what is negative taxis

A

movement away from a stimulus

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67
Q

how can you detect flagellin

A

with H-antigen

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68
Q

what is a eukaryotic flaella

A

extension of cell membrane around the flagella (made of microtubules) (9+2)

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69
Q

what is a prokaryotic flagella

A

filament made of flagellin aggregated together into a flagella, not an extension of the cell, cell membrane does not surround (more like a plug)

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70
Q

what is the function of MOT proteins

A

harness energy from the PMF and channels ions (gives energy to rings to move)

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71
Q

what is the function of FLI proteins

A

located between C and MS rings and act as a switch to initiate or deactivate PMF (for movement of the rings)

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72
Q

what direction is CW

A

reverse

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73
Q

what direction is CCW

A

forward

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74
Q

what is the C ring

A

cytoplasm

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75
Q

what is the MS ring

A

membrane space

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76
Q

what is the P ring

A

peptidoglycan

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77
Q

what is the L ring

A

LPS ring (only in G-)

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78
Q

where does the turning force for a flagella come from

A

the C and MS rings

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79
Q

how many flagella for monotrichus

A

1 polar or 1 lateral

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80
Q

how many flagella for amphitrichus

A

1 flagella at each end of the cell

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81
Q

how many flagella for lophotrichus

A

tuft of flagella either on one end or on both ends

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82
Q

how many flagella for peritrichus

A

ring of flagella surrounding entire cell

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83
Q

what is a basal body

A

prokaryotic molecular protein based motor

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84
Q

what are stators in prok motility

A

stators are the same at MOT proteins

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85
Q

what is it called when there is random run and tumble with no direction

A

conesis

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86
Q

what changes the direction of bacteria while they tumble or while they stop running

A

brownian motion will reorient them

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87
Q

what type of motility do type 4 pili have

A

twitching motility

88
Q

what protein makes up fimbrae

A

fimbrin

89
Q

what protein makes up pili

A

pilin

90
Q

what are characteristics of fimbrae

A

short, sticky, thin, numerous

91
Q

what are characteristics of pili

A

1 or 2, longer, thicker, help with complete conjugation (exchange plasmal DNA)

92
Q

what is the function of cytoplasmic inclusions

A

used for energy storage

93
Q

what is the function of PHA in cytoplasmic inclusion

A

energy storage

94
Q

what does PHA stand for

A

polyhydroxylalkanoate

95
Q

what is sulfur used for in cytoplasmic inclusion

A

its common, specialized and is anoxygenic

96
Q

what is glygogen used for in cytoplasmic inclusion

A

access carbon and nitrogen, cant pass membrane due to size, solute conc for osmosis

97
Q

what is polyphosphate used for in cytoplasmic inclusion

A

granules

98
Q

what is a divisome

A

its the body responsible for division of prok cells

99
Q

where is the divisome located

A

cell membrane and cytoplasm

100
Q

what is FTSz in prok homologous to in euk

A

tubulin (cytoskeletal elements)

101
Q

what does homologous mean

A

common evolutionary function

102
Q

what does analogous mean

A

similar function

103
Q

what are microtubules of euk

A

chains of tubulin

104
Q

what does FTSz do in prok

A

forms a ring on inner cytoplasm at the center of the cell (part of divisome)

105
Q

what is the function of zipA

A

anchors FtsZ (kind of like its glue), and recruits other divisome proteins to the site

106
Q

what is FtsA homologous to in euk

A

actin

107
Q

what is FtsI analogous to in euk

A

penicillin bringing protein

108
Q

what does fts stand for

A

filamentous temperature sensitive

109
Q

what is the function of FtsK

A

DNA binding protein that helps to partition DNA

110
Q

what shrinks the FtsZ ring

A

depolymerization (ring shrinks and pulls membrane along with it but not the cell wall)

111
Q

what pinches the cell wall so the cell can split

A

FtsI (makes new cell wall material)

112
Q

how does a cell know where to partition

A

by the min proteins (min C and min D oscillate moving pole to pole and this defines the center of the cell)

113
Q

what is the function of minE

A

removes the inhibition set by minCD and allows septum formation

114
Q

what must daughter cells do before they can divide themselves

A

they must grow to the size of the mother cell before they can divide

115
Q

what is the function of MreB

A

cycles the cell and hits in specific places, where it hits FtsI is able to generate new cell wall (lengthens the cell)

116
Q

why are cocci spherical not elongated

A

they have no MreB

117
Q

what causes spirillum

A

cresentin (acts the same way as MreB but it causes spiral not elongation)

118
Q

what does it mean that prok have a high biotic potential

A

they can increase their population size rapidly

119
Q

what is unrestricted growth and how is it made possible

A

bacteria can grow as fast as they want and its possible if the best possible conditions are made available to the bacteria. only under perfect conditions

120
Q

rate of population growth is proportional to _____

A

initial population

121
Q

what kind of growth is binary fission

A

exponential

122
Q

what is n

A

number of generations

123
Q

what is t

A

time over which growth occurs

124
Q

what is g

A

generation time

125
Q

what is k

A

specific growth rate constant

126
Q

what is N

A

population size

127
Q

how do you calculate n

A

log(N/N0)=n*log2

128
Q

how do you calculate N

A

N=N0*2^n

129
Q

how do you calcuate g

A

g=t/n

130
Q

whats another term for generation

A

division cycle

131
Q

how do you calcuate change in population over time

A

(delta N/N)=kdeltat

132
Q

how do you determine k

A

must be determined under set conditions

133
Q

what are the different stages/phases of bacterial growth

A

lag, exponantial (log), stationary, death

134
Q

if you grow an oragnism on a different media what also must you do

A

generate a new growth curve

135
Q

when getting a growth curve what do you record growth as

A

CFU/mL

136
Q

what does CFU stand for

A

colony forming units

137
Q

what is lag

A

period of physiological adaptation

138
Q

what is exponential (log)

A

unrestricted growth (growing as fast as it can with the given conditions)

139
Q

what is stationary growth

A

where the bacteria will cap out because the growth becomes restricted

140
Q

what is death phase

A

cannibalism of cannibals, extension of waste products, death will dominate

141
Q

why are theoretical equations so important for bacteria

A

bacteria are so simple that they follow theoretical equations well (theo mimics real life)

142
Q

what is balanced growth

A

during unrestricted growth if all chemical constituants increase by the same proportion over the same time interval (all chemical increasing at same rate)

143
Q

what is optical density

A

absorbance

144
Q

what is an example of why balanced growth is helpful

A

measure DNA of one cell then measure all DNA present to determine the number of cells

145
Q

what is a direct method of measuring population growth

A

counting the number of cells directly or CFU’s directly

146
Q

what is an indirect method for determining population growth

A

(assuming balanced growth)

turbidity, measure cell dry weight, measure cell constituants (ex measure all DNA)

147
Q

what are factors that affect microbial growth

A

chemical and physical

148
Q

what are chemical microbial growth factors

A

chemicals needed to be fed (nutrition)

149
Q

what are physical microbial growth factors

A

pH, salt concentration, heat

150
Q

what is shelfords law of tolerance

A

in order to survive and reproduce in environment everything it needs must be in a specific range of existance

151
Q

what does it mean that a cell needs macronutrients and micronutrients

A

macro and micro refer to amount needed not size of the molecule

152
Q

what macronutrients are needed

A

CHNOPS (g/L)

153
Q

how much of a cell does CHNOPS make up

A

about 95% dry weight

154
Q

what are growth factors for a cell

A

usually things like vitamins and other small organic molecules

155
Q

what are the 4 major organic molecule families

A

carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, lipids

156
Q

what elements make up carbohydrates

A

c, o, h

157
Q

what elements make up proteins

A

c, h, o, n

158
Q

what elements make up nucleic acids

A

c, h, o, p, n

159
Q

what elements make up lipids

A

c, h, o

160
Q

what type of organic molecules are usually used for carbon skeletons

A

sugar or proteins

161
Q

where can an organism get carbon from

A

either from organic molecules or from carbon dioxide

162
Q

when are organisms that use organic carbon

A

heterotrophs

163
Q

what are organisms that use inorganic carbon

A

autotrophs

164
Q

where do heterotrophs (organic) get nitrogen

A

proteins

165
Q

where do inorganic (autotroph) get nitrogen

A

ammonia, ammonium, nitrate

166
Q

how does a heterotroph get P

A

uses inorganic since organic forms are toxic (NaP, phosphate)

167
Q

where do autotrophs get P

A

NaP, Phosphate

168
Q

how do heterotrophs get S

A

amino acids

169
Q

how do autotrophs get S

A

sulfate salts

170
Q

how do organisms get minor macronutrients

A

try to use as salts with other major macros ex. potassium phosphate

171
Q

what are the micronutrients

A

mostly transition metals (zinc, copper, iron, boron)

172
Q

what is the main function of micronutrients

A

catalytic capabilities to make enzymes properly active (catalyst so substrates can bind)

173
Q

what is a cofactor

A

organic

174
Q

what is a coenzyme

A

inorganic

175
Q

what are examples of growth factors

A

some amino acids (NAD, FAD)

176
Q

why would something need growth factors

A

if micro and macro cant meet needs then can be met with growth factors

177
Q

what is the purpose of growth media

A

to provide nutrients so organisms can grow

178
Q

what are the two types of media

A

complex media and defined media

179
Q

what is a complex media

A

contains complex ingredients (ex. enzyme digests of proteins or blood)

180
Q

when would you use a complex media over a defined media

A

when you want generalized growth

181
Q

what is defined media

A

contains specific ingredients in known amounts (chemically defined recipe)

182
Q

when would you use a defined media over a complex media

A

usually used in research since there is no nutrient variance

183
Q

what kinds of organisms need defined media

A

fastidious molecular organisms (picky ones who need very specific nutrients)

184
Q

what does optimum temperature mean

A

the temperature at which the growth rate of an organism is at its highest (reproduce fastest)

185
Q

what are biochemical reactions driven by in MO

A

enzymes

186
Q

what is membrane gelling and when does it occur

A

(think of olive oil) when membrane gets too cold it becomes solid, but at optimal temperature it is fluid and things can properly pass through the membrane

187
Q

in order from lowest temp to highest temp what are the types of philes

A

psychrophile, mesophile, thermophile, hyperthermophile

188
Q

what is the difference between facultative and obligate

A

facultative can tolerate , obligate requires

189
Q

what are the pH philes

A

acidophiles, neutrophiles, alkalinophiles

190
Q

what is an enterotoxin

A

an exotoxin produced by proteins of the cell and is released by the cell while they cell is still living

191
Q

regarding halophiles, what are most microorganisms

A

non-halophiles meaning they dont like a lot of solute (salt)

192
Q

what is an osmophile

A

solute (based on osmotic effects)

193
Q

what is a xerophile

A

can they tolerate dry conditions

194
Q

all halophiles are osmophiles but what makes this distinction

A

halophiles have to do with sodium osmoregulation while osmophiles in general deal with solute osmoregulation

195
Q

which philes are of most medical importance of humans

A

nonhalophiles, neutrophiles, mesophiles

196
Q

what are compatible solutes

A

an increase in the concentration of compatible solutes in a cell does not make things toxic for the cell (adjusts cell water activity)

197
Q

what are some examples of compatible solutes

A

betanes, mannitol, glycerol

198
Q

what are the classification types for oxygen tolerance

A

obligate aerobes, microaerophiles, facultative anaerobes, aerotolerant anaerobes, obligate anaerobes

199
Q

what is the purpose of using a roll tube

A

keep the agar within slightly warmer than solidification temp so you can test oxygen requirements

200
Q

what is obligate aerobes

A

only grows where these oxygen (required)

201
Q

what is microaerophiles

A

can tolerate some oxygen but prefers not

202
Q

what is facultative anaerobe

A

prefers oxygen but can tolerate no oxygen

203
Q

what is aerotolerant anaerobe

A

doesnt give a fuck about oxygen

204
Q

what is obligate anaerobe

A

cannot tolerate oxygen

205
Q

how is there a difference between needing oxygen and not being able to have oxygen

A

oxygen is toxic and those who have ways to deal with it require it, if an organism doesnt have ways to deal with it then it cannot survive in its presence

206
Q

what essentially is metabolism

A

electron transfers between molecules

207
Q

how many electrons are requires to reduce O2 to H2O

A

4 electrons

208
Q

what happens when only one electron added to O2

A

superoxide anion

a free radical and negatively charged O2 (anion)

209
Q

what happens when 2 electrons added to O2

A

peroxide anion

negatively charged O2 (anion)

210
Q

what happens when 3 electrons added to O2

A

hydroxyl free radical

no longer an anion but a free radical is present (most toxic)

211
Q

how do organisms deal with toxic O2 derivatives

A

by producing enzymes

212
Q

what are the main enzymes we deal with that help with toxic forms of oxygen

A

catalase (CAT) and superoxide dismutalase (SOD)

213
Q

what enzymes do strict aerobes have

A

CAT and SOD

214
Q

what enzymes do strict anaerobes have

A

none

215
Q

what enzymes do facultative anaerobes have

A

CAT and SOD

216
Q

what enzymes do aerotolerant anaerobes have

A

either CAT or SOD

217
Q

what enzymes do microaerophiles have

A

a partially active SOD

Microbiology (6 decks)

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