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Veterinary Nursing Care > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

A 12 kg dog has been prescribed a drug with the strength of 0.2%. The rate to infuse the dog is 7 mg/kg per day (24 h). The dog is receiving maintenance fluids at a maintenance rate of 100 mL/hr so the drug is to be added to a 1 L bag of fluid. How much (mL) drug will you add to the fluids?

A

17.5mL

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2
Q

A kitten that weighs 8 ounces comes to your clinic. It needs 22mg/kg of an antibiotic TID for 10 days. The antibiotic comes in 10mg tablets.
a. How many tablets does the kitten get per dose?
b. How many tablets will you need to fill the Rx?

A

1/2 tab, 15 tabs

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3
Q

A 35lb dog has been prescribed a drug to be infused at a rate of 0. 4 mg/kg/hr. The drug is available in a strength of 20 mg/mL. How much (mL) of the drug is infused over 12 hours?

A

3.8mL

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4
Q

Name two common clinical signed associated with a patient having a transfusion reaction.

A

Hives, Facial Swelling, Increased Temp, Difficulty Breathing

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5
Q

A 2-year-old Labrador Retriever is being prepped for an exploratory laparotomy. The surgeon asks you to gather all the surgical supplies needed for the procedure. Which of the following retractors would be most helpful for this surgery?

a. Gelpi retractor
b. Balfour retractor
c. Senn retractor
d. Army-Navy retractor

A

b. Balfour retractor

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6
Q

A client complains that when her cat comes inside on a hot day and eats right away, “she immediately pukes it all back up within a minute.” The client tells you that the puking episode happens without any warning. Which most characterizes this action?

a. Diarrhea
b. Mastication
c. Vomiting
d. Regurgitation

A

d. Regurgitation

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7
Q

A client whose dog has cancer calls to report that the dog has “coffee grounds” in his vomit. What does this suggest?

a. Possible spread of the cancer to the colon
b. Blood has been present in the stomach for a fairly long time
c. Presence of bile that has come recently from the duodenum
d. Presence of duodenal or jejunal erosions or ulceration

A

b. Blood has been present in the stomach for a fairly long time

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8
Q

A dog with type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is scheduled for surgery. Which agent is ideal for controlling severe bleeding during the procedure?

a. Fresh frozen plasma
b. Fresh whole blood
c. Cryoprecipitate
d. DDAVP

A

c. Cryoprecipitate

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9
Q

A patient presents with damage to a major vessel, requiring plasma coagulation factors to form a stable clot in a process called _____ hemostasis.

a. Primary
b. Essential
c. Secondary
d. Fibrinolytic

A

c. Secondary

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10
Q

A patient suffers anaphylaxis and sepsis. Which type of shock is this patient most likely to develop?

a. Hypovolemic
b Cardiogenic
c. Distributive
d. Obstructive

A

c. Distributive

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11
Q

A patient that is suffering from smoke inhalation would most likely have which dysfunction of hemoglobin?

a. Methemoglobin
b. Carboxyhemoglobin
c. Sulfhemoglobin
d. Aplastic anemia

A

b. Carboxyhemoglobin

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12
Q

A patient with a deficiency in circulating RBC mass is administered PRBCs. Which is most likely the prominent sign that this patient presents?

a. Hypoxia
b. Hypervolemia
c. Anoxia
d. Normovolemia

A

a. Hypoxia

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13
Q

A patient’s electrolyte and venous blood gas analyses show the presence of hyponatremia. Which does this mean?

a. Decreased potassium in the blood
b. Decreased calcium in the blood
c. Decreased sodium in the blood
d. Decreased nitrogen in the blood

A

c. Decreased sodium in the blood

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14
Q

A right lateral radiograph of a Standard Poodle confirms that this patient is suffering for gastric dilation volvulus. The veterinarian asks you to get a large bore IVC, so she can use it to decompress the stomach. You shave and aseptically prep an area on the left lateral abdomen. The veterinarian passes the IVC through the body wall into the stomach in a procedure known as ___________.

a. Gastrotomy
b. Enterotomy
c. Resection and anastomosis
d. Trocarization

A

d. Trocarization

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15
Q

After seeming to recover from an infection, a dog is brought to the clinic with a client complaint that “he’s bleeding more” and presents at the clinic with a low platelet count, brought on by the infection itself. Which condition does this suggest?

a. von Willebrand’s disease
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Thrombopathia
d. Hemophilia

A

b. Thrombocytopenia

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16
Q

Anemia is often caused by hemorrhage, hypoplasia, or _____ (increased red blood cell destruction).

a. Erythropoiesis
b. Coagulopathy
c. Hemostasis
d. Hemolysis

A

d. Hemolysis

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17
Q

During the above procedure, the surgeon needs to perform an enterotomy. You are asked to grab the _____________ intestinal forceps because they are the gentlest and are unlikely to cause damage to the area around the enterotomy site.

a. Kelly
b. Brown-Adson
c. Doyen
d. DeBakey

A

c. Doyen

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18
Q

For which emergency condition is pericardiocentesis most useful?

a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. Cardiac arrhythmia
d. Ventricular tachycardia

A

b. Cardiac tamponade

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19
Q

If a patient’s survey abdominal radiograph shows a loss of serosal detail, which does this most likely indicate?

a. Fluid in the abdomen
b. Aspiration pneumonia
c. Urinary obstruction
d. Pelvic fracture

A

a. Fluid in the abdomen

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20
Q

In an anticoagulant preservative (APS), which component is the actual anticoagulant?

a. Citrate
b. Dextrose
c. Heparin
d. Adenine

A

a. Citrate

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21
Q

In assessing a patient for possible diagnosis of IMHA, which serum profile result suggests the patient is experiencing hemolysis?

a. Elevated globulin
b. Elevated bilirubin
c. Decreased albumin
d. Decreased bilirubin

A

b. Elevated bilirubin

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22
Q

In conducting a platelet estimation, which is considered a normal number of platelets in an oil immersion field?

a. 1 to 5
b. 4 to 8
c. 8 to 15
d. 15 to 20

A

c. 8 to 15

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23
Q

In using a saline agglutination test, which response to the addition of saline on a slide strongly suggests IMHA in a dog?

a. Rouleaux is seen on the slide.
b. Agglutination is seen on the slide.
c. The addition of saline reveals a lack of spherocytosis.
d. A saline drop reveals the presence of antierythrocyte antibody in patient serum.

A

b. Agglutination is seen on the slide.

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24
Q

Of what is cryoprecipitate composed?

a. Platelets
b. Plasma protein concentrates
c. Erythrocytes
d. Whole blood

A

b. Plasma protein concentrates

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25
Q

PIVKA is used to test for which toxicity?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Anticoagulant
c. Lead
d Ethylene glycol

A

b. Anticoagulant

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26
Q

Shortly before experiencing cardiac arrest, a patient was administered an opioid. Which is best to administer to this patient?

a. Naloxone
b. Epinephrine
c. Flumazenil
d. Atipamezole

A

a. Naloxone

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27
Q

The ventral abdomen of a patient experiencing anorexia shows evidence of ecchymoses. Which might this suggest?

a. Ileus
b. Decreased preload
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Decreased cardiac output

A

c. Thrombocytopenia

28
Q

To control blood loss and maintain flow, the process of _____, or blood clotting, normally limits it within the intravascular space through the clumping of platelets.

a. Hemostasis
b. Coagulation
c. Heinz body
d. Hemolysis

A

b. Coagulation

29
Q

What does a BMBT assess?

a. Estimation of platelet number
b. Only the intrinsic coagulation pathway
c. Presence of anticoagulant toxicity
d. Platelet and vascular contribution to hemostasis

A

d. Platelet and vascular contribution to hemostasis

30
Q

What does the term “hematochezia” signify in a patient’s record?

a. Invisible traces of blood in feces
b. Digested blood in feces
c. Frank blood in feces
d. Old blood in feces

A

c. Frank blood in feces

31
Q

What is the best way to begin rewarming a patient who is hypothermic?

a. Core rewarming
b. Digit rewarming
c. Cranial rewarming
d. Proximal limb rewarming

A

a. Core rewarming

32
Q

What is the first response to blood vessel injury in primary hemostasis?

a. Procoagulant secretion
b. Platelet adhesion
c. Platelet activation
d. Vasoconstriction

A

d. Vasoconstriction

33
Q

What is the mean normal PCV for cats?

a. 7%
b. 19%
c. 37%
d. 55%

A

c. 37%

34
Q

What possible disorder does vomiting white fluid suggest?

a. Gastric vomiting mixed with bile
b. Disorder of gastric or esophageal origin
c. Presence of bile that has come very recently from the duodenum
d. Reflux of fecal-like material from further down the small intestine

A

b. Disorder of gastric or esophageal origin

35
Q

Which agent antagonizes the cardiotoxicity of high serum potassium concentrations?

a. A balanced, isotonic replacement solution
b. Aluminum hydroxide
c. Calcium gluconate
d. IV NaHCO3

A

c. Calcium gluconate

36
Q

Which agent is preferred for treating severe metabolic acidosis in a patient with chronic kidney failure (CKF)?

a. EPO
b. NaHCO3
c. Diltiazem
d. Enalapril

A

b. NaHCO3

37
Q

Which analgesic is most difficult to override if additional analgesia is required?

a. Buprenorphine
b. Oxymorphone
c. Methadone
d. Morphine

A

a. Buprenorphine

38
Q

Which antiemetic is preferable for a patient who has uncontrolled hypotension?

a. Acepromazine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Metoclopramide
d. Prochlorperazine

A

c. Metoclopramide

39
Q

Which best describes micturition?

a. Normal urination
b. Straining to urinate
c. Presence of blood in the urine
d. Passing small amounts of urine frequently

A

a. Normal urination

40
Q

Which canine blood type demonstrates the most severe antigen-antibody reaction?

A

DEA 1

41
Q

Which drug is preferred for the treatment of 2nd degree AV block arrhythmias?

a. Atropine
b. Propranolol
c. Flumazenil
d. Lidocaine

A

a. Atropine

42
Q

Which effect is expected with ROSC in a patient undergoing CPR?

a. Stable, unchanging ETCO2
b. Absence of ETCO2
c. Drop in ETCO2
d. Rise in ETCO2

A

d. Rise in ETCO2

43
Q

Which factor in systolic function is multiplied by stroke volume to determine the volume of blood pumped in 1 minute (i.e., cardiac output)?

a. Preload
b. Afterload
c. Heart rate
d. Contractility

A

c. Heart rate

44
Q

Which involves transfusing blood from a member of one species to a member of a different species?

a. HBOC
b. Autotransfusion
c. Oxyglobinfusion
d. Xenotransfusion

A

d. Xenotransfusion

45
Q

Which is a structural effect of oxidation on RBCs?

a. Heinz bodies
b. Coagulation
c. Hemolysis
d. Hemostasis

A

a. Heinz bodies

46
Q

Which is considered “the currency of cellular energy”?

a. ATP
b. ADP
c. AMP
d. DNA

A

a. ATP

47
Q

Which is the most appropriate response to a hyperkalemic cat with a urinary obstruction?

a. 80mL/kg IV bolus of LRS solution
b. Dextrose with or without regular insulin
c. Saline administered orally to absorb potassium through MM
d. Administer calcium carbonate tablets (Tums) orally

A

b. Dextrose with or without regular insulin

48
Q

Which is the most appropriate use of fresh frozen plasma?

a. To slow or stop coagulation completely
b. For use as a blood volume expander
c. To treat hypoproteinemia
d. To treat coagulation factor deficiencies

A

d. To treat coagulation factor deficiencies

49
Q

Which is the origin of idiopathic thrombocytopenia (ITP)?

a. Autoimmune
b. Infection
c. Vaccine
d. Neoplasia

A

a. Autoimmune

50
Q

Which maintains the delicate balance and interaction of procoagulant and anticoagulant mechanisms?

a. Hemostasis
b. Coagulation
c. Heinz body
d. Hemolysis

A

a. Hemostasis

51
Q

Which mechanism ultimately triggers vomiting?

a. Chemoreceptor trigger zone
b. Peripheral sensory receptors
c. Vestibular system
d. Medullary center

A

d. Medullary center

52
Q

Which most frequently causes cardiogenic shock?

a. Heart failure
b. Caval syndrome
c. Cardiac tamponade
d. Decreased intravascular volume

A

a. Heart failure

53
Q

Which of the following is a Vitamin K linked plasma coagulation factor?

a. Factor II
b. Factor VI
c. Factor XI
d. Factor VIII

A

a. Factor II

54
Q

Which of the following medication is an example of an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor?

a. Furosemide
b. Enalapril
c. Lidocaine
d. Pimobendan

A

b. Enalapril

55
Q

Which of the following term best describes variation in size among a group of erythrocytes?

a. Polychromasia
b. Anisocytosis
c. Poikilocytosis
d. Acanthocytosis

A

b. Anisocytosis

56
Q

Which represents the initial phase of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

a. Hemorrhage
b. Uncontrolled oral bleeding
c. Petechia on mucous membranes
d. Microvascular clots that lead to ischemia

A

d. Microvascular clots that lead to ischemia

57
Q

Which test is particularly specific to a young stray dog with hemorrhagic diarrhea?

a. Fecal screen
b. Fecal flotation
c. Giardia screen
d. Parvovirus test

A

d. Parvovirus test

58
Q

Which transfusion is most likely to be potentially fatal?

a. Type AB cat receiving type A blood
b. Type AB cat receiving type B blood
c. Type B cat receiving type A blood
d. Type A cat receiving type B blood

A

c. Type B cat receiving type A blood

59
Q

Which type of blood or blood component therapy is most recommended in cases of severe hemorrhage?

a. RBCs and hemostatic proteins
b. RBCs and platelets
c. Fresh whole blood
d. RBCs

A

c. Fresh whole blood

60
Q

Which urinary obstruction is thought to be caused by excess mucus secondary to irritation?

a. Urolith
b. Nephrolith
c. Urethral plug
d. Ureterolith

A

c. Urethral plug

61
Q

Why might a patient with AKI be given sucralfate?

a. To counteract cardiotoxicity
b. To correct fluid volume deficits
c. To drive potassium into the cells
d. To promote gastric ulcer healing

A

d. To promote gastric ulcer healing

62
Q

You notice an irregular complex on an ECG of a postoperative splenectomy patient. The complex has no P wave and the QRS has a bizarre and widened appearance. Which of the following is most likely arrhythmia?

a. Ventricular premature contraction (VPC)
b. Atrial fibrillation (A-Fib)
c. Ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib)
d. 2nd degree AV block – Mobitz type 2

A

a. Ventricular premature contraction (VPC)

63
Q

A ferret presents to your hospital in lateral recumbency. A blood glucose test confirms hypoglycemia, and dehydration is making venous access very difficult. The veterinarian directs you to administer subcutaneous fluids. Which of the following fluids can not be given via this method?

a. Plasma-lyte
b. 5% Dextrose in Saline
c. 0.9% sodium chloride
d. LRS

A

b. 5% Dextrose in Saline

64
Q

A dog with which condition should not have blood drawn from the jugular vein?

a. Hyperadrenocortism
b. Renal failure
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Congestive heart failure
e. Hypertension

A

c. Thrombocytopenia

65
Q

Telazol is commonly used in veterinary anesthetic immobilizations. Telazol is a combination of which two drugs?

a. Tiletamine and zolazepam
b. Ketamine and diazepam
c. Acepromazine and butorphanol
d. Ketamine and xylazine

A

a. Tiletamine and zolazepam

66
Q

A puppy presents to your clinic after he collapsed at home. The veterinarian asks you to place an IV catheter and give this puppy a bolus of 50 mL of NaCl and to start him on 28 mL/hr after the bolus is complete. You start to notice that this puppy is still extremely weak, and decide to take a blood glucose, which reads 32 mmol/L (normal 80-100). The doctor asks you start the puppy on a 2.5% dextrose solution. The only dextrose you have in the clinic is a 50% solution. How much dextrose do you need to add to the bag of IVF (936 mL left in the bag) to create a 2.5% solution (in mL)?

a. 27.6
b. 46.8
c. 50
d. 187.2

A

b. 46.8

Veterinary Nursing Care (13 decks)

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