Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Histamine-2 Antagonist MOA

A

GI Secretions
Selectively block H2 receptor sites to reduce gastric acid secretion and pepsin production and block the release of HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Histamine-2 Antagonist Indications

A

GI Secretions
Rx ulcers
Prevent ulcers related to stress or long-term NSAID use
Rx GERD
Rx pathological hypersecretory conditions
Relief sx of heartburn, acid indigestion, sour stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Histamine-2 Antagonist Drugs

A

GI Secretions
Cimetidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cimetidine, Famotidine, Nizatidine

A

GI Secretions Histamine-2 Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Antiacid Drugs Name

A

GI Secretions
Sodium bicarbonate, Calcium carbonate, Magnesium salts, Aluminum salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antiacid MOA

A

GI Secretions
Neutralize stomach acid by direct chemical reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Histamine-2 Antagonist

A

GI Secretions
Cimetidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine

Selectively block H2 receptor sites to reduce gastric acid secretion and pepsin production and block the release of HCl

Rx ulcers
Prevent ulcers related to stress or long-term NSAID use
Rx GERD
Rx pathological hypersecretory conditions
Relief sx of heartburn, acid indigestion, sour stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Antiacid Indications

A

GI Secretions
Hyperacidity causing upset stomach
Condition that cause excess acid like peptic ulcers, gastritis, histal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sodium bicarbonate, Calcium carbonate, Magnesium salts, Aluminum salts

A

GI Secretions
Antiacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Antiacid

A

GI Secretions
Sodium bicarbonate, Calcium carbonate, Magnesium salts, Aluminum salts

Neutralize stomach acid by direct chemical reaction

Hyperacidity causing upset stomach
Condition that cause excess acid like peptic ulcers, gastritis, histal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitors

A

GI Secretions
Omeprazole
Esomeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole
Rabeprazole

Suppress secretion HCl into lumen of stomach by acting at specific secretory surface receptors to prevent the final step of acid production

Rx and prevent ulcers
Rx GERD
Rx pathological hypersecretory conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Omeprazole
Esomeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole
Rabeprazole

A

GI Secretions
Proton Pump Inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitor Drugs

A

GI Secretions
Omeprazole
Esomeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole
Rabeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitor MOA

A

GI Secretions
Suppress secretion HCl into lumen of stomach by acting at specific secretory surface receptors to prevent the final step of acid production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitor Indications

A

GI Secretions
Rx and prevent ulcers
Rx GERD
Rx pathological hypersecretory conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

GI Protectant

A

GI Secretions
Sucralfate

Coat the injured area of the stomach to prevent further injury and promote ulcer healing

Promote ulcer healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sucralfate

A

GI Secretions
GI Protectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

GI Protectant Drug

A

GI Secretions
Sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

GI Protectant MOA

A

GI Secretions
Coat the injured area of the stomach to prevent further injury and promote ulcer healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

GI Protectant Indication

A

GI Secretions
Promote ulcer healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Prostaglandin

A

GI Secretions
Misoprostol

Protects the stomach by inhibiting gastric acid secretion and increase bicarbonate and mucous production in the stomach

Prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers
Typically used to treat patients at high risk of developing ulcers

Miscarriage risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Misoprostol

A

GI Secretions
Prostaglandin
Miscarriage risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prostaglandin Drug

A

GI Secretions
Misoprostol
miscarriage risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Prostaglandin MOA

A

GI Secretions
Protects the stomach by inhibiting gastric acid secretion and increase bicarbonate and mucous production in the stomach

Miscarriage risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Prostaglandin Indication

A

GI Secretions
Prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers
Typically used to treat patients at high risk of developing ulcers

Miscarriage risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Digestive Enzymes: SS

A

GI Secretions

Saliva Substitutes

Contains electrolytes and carboxyl methylcellulose to act as a thickening agent to make it easier to swallow and start the digestive process

Dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Digestive Enzymes: PE

A

GI Secretions

Pancreatic Enzymes

Replacement enzyme to help with digestion and absorption of fats, protein, and carbs

Cystic Fibrosis, Pancreatic Insufficiency, Malabsorption Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Digestive Enzyme Drugs

A

GI Secretions

Saliva Substitutes
Pancreatic Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Digestive Enzyme PE MOA

A

GI Secretions

Pancreatic Enzymes

Replacement enzyme to help with digestion and absorption of fats, protein, and carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Digestive Enzyme PE Indications

A

GI Secretions

Pancreatic Enzymes

Replacement enzyme to help with digestion and absorption of fats, protein, and carbs

Cystic Fibrosis, Pancreatic Insufficiency, Malabsorption Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Digestive Enzymes SS MOA

A

GI Secretions

Saliva Substitutes

Contains electrolytes and carboxyl methylcellulose to act as a thickening agent to make it easier to swallow and start the digestive process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Digestive Enzymes SS Indication

A

GI Secretions
Dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Saliva Substitutes and Pancreatic Enzymes

A

GI Secretions
Digestive Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Chemical Stimulants

A

GI Motility

Bisacodyl, Castor Oil, Senna

Directly stimulate nerve plexus in the intestinal wall to increase movement

Constipation

Castor oil blocks the absorption of fats and fat soluble vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bisacodyl, Castor Oil, Senna Class

A

GI Motility
Chemical Stimulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Chemical Stimulants MOA

A

GI Motility

Directly stimulate nerve plexus in the intestinal wall to increase movement

Castor oil blocks the absorption of fats and fat soluble vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chemical Stimulants Indications

A

GI Motility

Constipation

Castor oil blocks the absorption of fats and fat soluble vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Bulk Forming Laxative

A

GI Motility

Methylcellulose, Polycarbophil, Psyllium

Increase motility by increase the size of the fecal material which increases fluid in GI tract which stretches the GI tract more causing increase in local GI activity

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Methylcellulose, Polycarbophil, Psyllium

A

GI Motility
Bulk Forming Laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bulk Forming Laxative MOA

A

GI Motility

Increase motility by increase the size of the fecal material which increases fluid in GI tract which stretches the GI tract more causing increase in local GI activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Bulk Forming Laxative Indication

A

GI Motility

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Osmotic Laxatives

A

GI Motility

Magnesium sulfate, Magnesium citrate, Magnesium hydroxide: caution with renal insufficiency
Lactulose: caution with diabetes
Polyethylene glycol: caution with seizures
Sodium picosulfate with magnesium oxide

Draw more water into the GI tract and stimulate increase in GI motility

Constipation
Bowel cleanse before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Magnesium sulfate, Magnesium citrate, Magnesium hydroxide
Lactulose
Polyethylene glycol
Sodium picosulfate with magnesium oxide
Class

A

GI Motility
Osmotic Laxatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Osmotic Laxative Drugs

A

GI Motility

Magnesium sulfate, Magnesium citrate, Magnesium hydroxide: caution with renal insufficiency
Lactulose: caution with diabetes
Polyethylene glycol: caution with seizures
Sodium picosulfate with magnesium oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Osmotic Laxative MOA

A

GI Motility

Draw more water into the GI tract and stimulate increase in GI motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Osmotic Laxative Indication

A

GI Motility

Constipation
Bowel cleanse before surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Lubricants: Docusate

A

GI Motility

Stool softener

When straining to have BM is contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Lubricants Drugs

A

GI Motility

Docusate
Glycerin
Mineral Oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Docusate
Glycerin
Mineral Oil
Class

A

GI Motility

Lubricants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Lubricants: Glycerin

A

GI Motility

Hyperosmolarity laxative used to gently evacuate rectum without systemic higher in GI tract

When straining to have BM is contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Lubricants: Mineral Oil

A

GI Motility

Forms slippery coat on contents of intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Opioid Antagonist

A

GI Motility

Methylnaltrexone
Naldemedine
Naloxegol

Binds to peripheral opioid receptor to block opioid effects on GI tract

Relieve opioid induced constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Opioid Antagonist Drugs

A

GI Motility

Methylnaltrexone
Naldemedine
Naloxegol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Methylnaltrexone
Naldemedine
Naloxego

Class

A

GI Motility

Opioid Antagonist Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Opioid Antagonist Drugs MOA

A

Binds to peripheral opioid receptor to block opioid effects on GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Opioid Antagonist Drugs Indication

A

Binds to peripheral opioid receptor to block opioid effects on GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Gastrointestinal Stimulants

A

GI Motility

Metoclopramide

Stimulate parasympathetic activity within GI tract. Increase GI secretions and motility

Rapid movement GI content is desirable. Diabetic Gastroparesis

Also Antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Metoclopramide Drug Class

A

GI Motility - Gastrointestinal Stimulants

Antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Gastrointestinal Stimulants Drugs

A

GI Motility

Metoclopramide

Also Antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Gastrointestinal Stimulants MOA

A

GI Motility

Stimulate parasympathetic activity within GI tract. Increase GI secretions and motility

Also Antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Gastrointestinal Stimulants Indication

A

Rapid movement GI content is desirable. Diabetic Gastroparesis

Also Antiemetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Antidiarrheal

A

GI Motility

Bismuth Subsalicylate
Loperamide

Slow motility of GI tract through direct action of lining of GI tract

Acute or chronic diarrhea
Reduction of volume of discharge from ileostomies
Prevention and rx traveler’s diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Antidiarrheal Drugs

A

GI Motility

Bismuth Subsalicylate
Loperamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Bismuth Subsalicylate
Loperamide Class

A

GI Motility
Antidiarrheal Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Antidiarrheal Drugs MOA

A

GI Motility

Slow motility of GI tract through direct action of lining of GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Antidiarrheal Drugs Indication

A

GI Motility

Acute or chronic diarrhea
Reduction of volume of discharge from ileostomies
Prevention and rx traveler’s diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Phenothiazine

A

Antiemetic

Prochlorperazine
Perphenazine
Chlorpromazine

Depresses various areas CNS; decrease responsiveness of CTZ in medulla

N/V and antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Phenothiazine Drugs

A

Antiemetic

Prochlorperazine
Perphenazine
Chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Prochlorperazine
Perphenazine
Chlorpromazine
Class

A

Antiemetic
Phenothiazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Phenothiazine MOA

A

Antiemetic

Depresses various areas CNS; decrease responsiveness of CTZ in medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Phenothiazine Indication

A

Antiemetic

N/V and antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Nonphenothiazines

A

Antiemetic

Metoclopramide

Reduce responsiveness nerve cells in CTZ

N/V and GI stimulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Nonphenothiazines Drug

A

Antiemetic

Metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Nonphenothiazines MOA

A

Antiemetic

Reduce responsiveness nerve cells in CTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Nonphenothiazines Indication

A

Antiemetic

N/V and GI stimulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

5-HT3 Receptor Blocker

A

Antiemetic

Granisetron
Ondansetron
Palonosetron

Blocks specific receptor sites associated N/V peripherally and in CTZ

N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

5-HT3 Receptor Blocker Drugs

A

Antiemetic

Granisetron
Ondansetron
Palonosetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

5-HT3 Receptor Blocker MOA

A

Antiemetic

Blocks specific receptor sites associated N/V peripherally and in CTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

5-HT3 Receptor Blocker Indications

A

Antiemetic

N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Granisetron
Ondansetron
Palonosetron
Class

A

Antiemetic
5-HT3 Receptor Blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Substance P/ Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonist

A

Antiemetic

Aprepitant
Rolapitant
Fosaprepitant

Act directly in CNS to block receptors associated N/V

N/V due to chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Substance P/ Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonist Drug

A

Antiemetic

Aprepitant
Rolapitant
Fosaprepitant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Substance P/ Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonist MOA

A

Antiemetic

Act directly in CNS to block receptors associated N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Substance P/ Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonist Indication

A

Antiemetic

N/V due to chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Aprepitant
Rolapitant
Fosaprepitant
Class

A

Antiemetic
Substance P/ Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Miscellaneous Antiemetic

A

Cannabinoids: Dronabinol, Nabilone
N/V in chemotherapy; stimulate appetite in AIDS pt

Antihistamine: Hydroxyzine Meclizine
N/V and motion sickness

Anticholinergic: Scopolamine
N/V due to motion sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Salicylates

A

Anti-inflammatory

Aspirin: rx inflammatory conditions
Mesalamine: rx inflammation of large intestine

Inhibit synthesis of prostaglandins

Rx mild to moderate pain and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Salicylates Drugs

A

Anti-inflammatory

Aspirin: rx inflammatory conditions
Mesalamine: rx inflammation of large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Salicylates MOA

A

Anti-inflammatory

Inhibit synthesis of prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Salicylates Indications

A

Anti-inflammatory

Rx mild to moderate pain and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Aspirin
Mesalamine
Class

A

Anti-inflammatory
Salicylates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAID)

A

Anti-inflammatory

Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Indomethacin
Ketolorac
Meloxicam
Celecoxib

Block COX 1 and COX 2

Anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAID) Drugs

A

Anti-inflammatory

Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Indomethacin
Ketolorac
Meloxicam
Celecoxib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAID) MOA

A

Anti-inflammatory

Block COX 1 and COX 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAID) Indications

A

Anti-inflammatory

Anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Ibuprofen
Naproxen
Indomethacin
Ketolorac
Meloxicam
Celecoxib
Class

A

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAID) Drug to Drug Interactions

A

Decrease loop diuretic
Decrease beta blockers
lithium toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Acetaminophen

A

Anti-inflammatory

Act directly on thermoregulatory cells of hypothalamus to decrease fever

Rx pain and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Acetaminophen Antidote

A

Acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Acetaminophen MOA

A

Anti-inflammatory

Act directly on thermoregulatory cells of hypothalamus to decrease fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Acetaminophen Indication

A

Anti-inflammatory
Rx pain and fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Antigout

A

Colchicine: decrease inflammation by blocking neutrophils

Allopurinol by inhibiting xanthine oxidase; enzyme convert xanthine to uric acid

Rx gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Antigout drugs

A

Colchicine
Allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Colchicine
Allopurinol
Class

A

Antigout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Gold Compounds

A

Anti-arthritis

Auranofin

Absorbed by macrophages which inhibits phagocytosis and tissue destruction is decreased

Prevent and suppress arthritis in selected pt with RA

Last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Gold Compounds Drug

A

Anti-arthritis

Auranofin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Gold Compounds Indication

A

Anti-arthritis

Prevent and suppress arthritis in selected pt with RA

Last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Gold Compounds MOA

A

Anti-arthritis

Absorbed by macrophages which inhibits phagocytosis and tissue destruction is decreased

Last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Auranofin Class

A

Anti-arthritis

Gold Compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor Blockers

A

DMARDS

Adalimumab
Etanercept
Infliximab

Acts to decrease local effects TNF which normally release cytokine and stimulate proinflammatory activities

Rheumatoid arthritis
Polyarticular juvenile arthritis
Plaque psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis

Often first class used progressing arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor Blockers BBW

A

serious to fatal infection and develop lymphomas and other cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor Blockers MOA

A

DMARDS

Acts to decrease local effects TNF which normally release cytokine and stimulate proinflammatory activities

Often first class used progressing arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor Blockers Indications

A

DMARDS

Rheumatoid arthritis
Polyarticular juvenile arthritis
Plaque psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis

Often first class used progressing arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor Blockers Drugs

A

DMARDS

Adalimumab
Etanercept
Infliximab

Often first class used progressing arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Adalimumab
Etanercept
Infliximab
Class

A

DMARDS

Tumor Necrosis Factor Blockers Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Mineralocorticoids

A

Adrenocortical Agent

Cortisone
Fludrocortisone
Hydrocortisone
Prednisone
Prednisolone

Hold sodium and water in body and causes excretion of potassium by acting on renal tubule

Replacement therapy in primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency
Rx salt wasting adrenogenital syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Cushing Syndrome

A

Adrenal Excess

Results from adrenal hyperplasia or tumor, ACTH secreting tumor

moon-like face, central obesity, HTN, protein breakdown, osteoporosis, hirsutism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Addison’s Disease

A

Do not produce enough ACTH or adrenal glands are not responding to ACTH

Confusion, hypotension, CV collapse, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Mineralocorticoids MOA

A

Adrenocortical Agent

Hold sodium and water in body and causes excretion of potassium by acting on renal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Mineralocorticoids Indications

A

Adrenocortical Agent

Replacement therapy in primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency
Rx salt wasting adrenogenital syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Mineralocorticoids Drugs

A

Adrenocortical Agent

Cortisone
Fludrocortisone
Hydrocortisone
Prednisone
Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Cortisone
Fludrocortisone
Hydrocortisone
Prednisone
Prednisolone
Class

A

Adrenocortical Agent
Mineralocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Adrenocortical Agent

Betamethasone
Budesonide
Cortisone
Dexamethasone
Hydrocortisone
Methylprednisolone
Prednisolone
Prednisone

Enter target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptor to initiate anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects

Short term rx inflammatory disorder
Relieve discomfort
Used in conjunction with other immunosuppressant drugs to inhibit transplant rejection
Rx some cancer, other disorders, and some infections

No live virus vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Glucocorticoids MOA

A

Adrenocortical Agent

Enter target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptor to initiate anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects

No live virus vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Glucocorticoids Indication

A

Adrenocortical Agent

Short term rx inflammatory disorder
Relieve discomfort
Used in conjunction with other immunosuppressant drugs to inhibit transplant rejection
Rx some cancer, other disorders, and some infections

No live virus vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Glucocorticoids Drugs

A

Adrenocortical Agent

Betamethasone
Budesonide
Cortisone
Dexamethasone
Hydrocortisone
Methylprednisolone
Prednisolone
Prednisone

No live virus vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Betamethasone
Budesonide
Cortisone
Dexamethasone
Hydrocortisone
Methylprednisolone
Prednisolone
Prednisone
Class

A

Adrenocortical Agent
Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Drugs Glucocorticoids and Mineralocorticoids

A

Cortisone
Hydrocortisone
Prednisolone
Prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Immune Stimulant: Interferons

A

Immune Modulator

Alfa-2b

Prevent virus particles replicating inside cells and stimulate receptor of non-invaded cells to produce antiviral protein to inhibit tumor growth and replication

Various cancers, hepatitis B/C, multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Alpa-2b Class

A

Immune Modulator
Immune Stimulant: Interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Immune Stimulant: Interferons MOA

A

Immune Modulator

Alfa-2b

Naturally released human cells in response to viral invasion

Prevent virus particles replicating inside cells and stimulate receptor of non-invaded cells to produce antiviral protein to inhibit tumor growth and replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Immune Stimulant: Interferons Indication

A

Immune Modulator

Alfa-2b

Various cancers, hepatitis B/C, multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Immune Stimulant: Interleukins

A

Immune Modulator

Aldesleukin: human produced recombinant DNA using E. Coli

Oprelvekin: thrombopoietic growth factor that stimulate stem cells into mature platelets

Chemical produced by T cells to communicate between leukocytes to increase the number of natural killer cells and lymphocytes. Increase circulating platelets and activate cell immunity to inhibit tumor growth

Aldesleukin: specific renal carcinomas

Oprelvekin: prevention of severe thrombocytopenia after myelosuppressive chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Immune Stimulant: Interleukins MOA

A

Immune Modulator

Aldesleukin: human produced recombinant DNA using E. Coli

Oprelvekin: thrombopoietic growth factor that stimulate stem cells into mature platelets

Chemical produced by T cells to communicate between leukocytes to increase the number of natural killer cells and lymphocytes. Increase circulating platelets and activate cell immunity to inhibit tumor growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Immune Stimulant: Interleukins Indication

A

Immune Modulator

Aldesleukin: specific renal carcinomas

Oprelvekin: prevention of severe thrombocytopenia after myelosuppressive chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Immune Stimulant: Interleukins Drugs

A

Immune Modulator

Aldesleukin: human produced recombinant DNA using E. Coli

Oprelvekin: thrombopoietic growth factor that stimulate stem cells into mature platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Aldesleukin
Oprelvekin
Class

A

Immune Stimulant: Interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Immune Stimulant: Colony Stimulating Factors

A

Immune modulator

Filgrastim
Pegfilgrastim

Stimulate the bone marrow to produce more WBCs like neutrophils

Reduce the incidence of infections in bone marrow suppression.
Decrease neutropenia associated bone marrow transplant and chemotherapy
Help rx various blood-related cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Immune Stimulant: Colony Stimulating Factors MOA

A

Immune modulator

Stimulate the bone marrow to produce more WBCs like neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Immune Stimulant: Colony Stimulating Factors Indication

A

Immune modulator

Reduce the incidence of infections in bone marrow suppression.
Decrease neutropenia associated bone marrow transplant and chemotherapy
Help rx various blood-related cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Immune Stimulant: Colony Stimulating Factors Drugs

A

Immune modulator

Filgrastim
Pegfilgrastim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Filgrastim
Pegfilgrastim
Class

A

Immune modulator

Immune Stimulant: Colony Stimulating Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Immunosuppressants: Immune Modulator

A

Immune Modulator

Apremilast

Inhibits secretion of proinflammatory cytokines and increase secretion of anti-inflammatory cytokines from monocytes

Psoriatic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Immunosuppressants: Immune Modulator MOA

A

Immune Modulator

Inhibits secretion of proinflammatory cytokines and increase secretion of anti-inflammatory cytokines from monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Immunosuppressants: Immune Modulator Indication

A

Immune Modulator

Psoriatic arthritis

146
Q

Immunosuppressants: Immune Modulator Drug

A

Immune Modulator

Apremilast

147
Q

Apremilast Class

A

Immunosuppressants: Immune Modulator

148
Q

Immunosuppressant: T and B Cell Suppressors

A

Immune Modulator

Cyclosporine: suppression of rejection transplant, RA, psoriasis

Mycophenolate: prevention of rejection of renal and heart transplants in adults

Tacrolimus: prevent rejection of heart and liver transplants

Block antibody production from B cells and inhibit suppressor/helper T cells

149
Q

Immunosuppressant: T and B Cell Suppressors MOA

A

Immune Modulator

Block antibody production from B cells and inhibit suppressor/helper T cells

150
Q

Immunosuppressant: T and B Cell Suppressors Indications

A

Immune Modulator

Cyclosporine: suppression of rejection transplant, RA, psoriasis

Mycophenolate: prevention of rejection of renal and heart transplants in adults

Tacrolimus: prevent rejection of heart and liver transplants

151
Q

Immunosuppressant: T and B Cell Suppressors Drugs

A

Immune Modulator

Cyclosporine: suppression of rejection transplant, RA, psoriasis

Mycophenolate: prevention of rejection of renal and heart transplants in adults

Tacrolimus: prevent rejection of heart and liver transplants

152
Q

Cyclosporine
Mycophenolate
Tacrolimus
Class

A

Immunosuppressant: T and B Cell Suppressors

153
Q

Immunosuppressant: Interleukin Receptor Antagonist

A

Immune Modulator

Anakinra

Block activity of interleukin that are released in inflammatory or immune response

RA

Absolute: allergy to E coli

154
Q

Immunosuppressant: Interleukin Receptor Antagonist MOA

A

Immune Modulator

Block activity of interleukin that are released in inflammatory or immune response

Absolute: allergy to E coli

155
Q

Immunosuppressant: Interleukin Receptor Antagonist Indication

A

Immune Modulator

RA

Absolute: allergy to E coli

156
Q

Immunosuppressant: Interleukin Receptor Antagonist Drug

A

Immune Modulator

Anakinra

Absolute: allergy to E coli

157
Q

Anakinra Class

A

Immunosuppressant: Interleukin Receptor Antagonist

158
Q

Immunosuppressant: Monoclonal Antibodies

A

Immune Modulator

Adalimumab
Certolizumab
Golimumab
Infliximab

Antibody attach to specific receptor and develop respond very specific

159
Q

Adalimumab
Certolizumab
Golimumab
Infliximab
Class

A

Immunosuppressant: Monoclonal Antibodies

160
Q

Immunosuppressant: Monoclonal Antibodies Drugs

A

Adalimumab
Certolizumab
Golimumab
Infliximab

161
Q

Antitussives

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Benzonatate: local anesthetic on respiratory tract
Codeine and Hydrocodone
Dextromethorphan

Act directly on medullary cough center of brain to depress cough reflex

Control nonproductive cough

162
Q

Antitussives MOA

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Act directly on medullary cough center of brain to depress cough reflex

163
Q

Antitussives Indications

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Control nonproductive cough

164
Q

Antitussives Drugs

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Benzonatate: local anesthetic on respiratory tract
Codeine and Hydrocodone
Dextromethorphan

165
Q

Benzonatate
Codeine and Hydrocodone
Dextromethorphan

A

URT
Antitussives

166
Q

Topical Nasal Decongestants

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Oxymetazoline
Tetrahydrozoline
Xylometazoline
Phenylephrine

Sympathomimetic causing local vasoconstriction to decrease edema and inflammation

Relieve discomfort of nasal congestive
Dilate the nares for medical exam or relieve middle ear pressure

Do not take longer than one week

167
Q

Topical Nasal Decongestants MOA

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Sympathomimetic causing local vasoconstriction to decrease edema and inflammation

Do not take longer than one week

168
Q

Topical Nasal Decongestants Indications

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Relieve discomfort of nasal congestive
Dilate the nares for medical exam or relieve middle ear pressure

Do not take longer than one week

169
Q

Topical Nasal Decongestants Drugs

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Oxymetazoline
Tetrahydrozoline
Xylometazoline
Phenylephrine

Do not take longer than one week

170
Q

Oxymetazoline
Tetrahydrozoline
Xylometazoline
Phenylephrine

A

URT
Topical Nasal Decongestants

Do not take longer than one week

171
Q

Oral Decongestants

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Pseudoephedrine
Phenylephrine

Shrink nasal mucous membrane by stimulating alpha adrenergic receptor in nasal mucous membrane which promote drainage of sinuses and improve air flow

Decrease nasal congestion
Relieve pressure in middle ear

Do not take longer than one week

172
Q

Oral Decongestants MOA

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Shrink nasal mucous membrane by stimulating alpha adrenergic receptor in nasal mucous membrane which promote drainage of sinuses and improve air flow

Do not take longer than one week

173
Q

Oral Decongestants Indication

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Decrease nasal congestion
Relieve pressure in middle ear

Do not take longer than one week

174
Q

Oral Decongestants Drugs

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Pseudoephedrine
Phenylephrine

Do not take longer than one week

175
Q

Pseudoephedrine
Phenylephrine
Class

A

URT
Oral Decongestants

176
Q

Steroid Nasal Decongestants

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Beclomethasone
Fluticasone
Triamcinolone
Budesonide
Flunisolide

Block inflammatory response to relieve inflammation with minimal system absorption

Seasonal allergic rhinitis
Nasal Congestion
Inflammation after removal of nasal polyps

Take 1-3 weeks to be effective

177
Q

Steroid Nasal Decongestants MOA

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Block inflammatory response to relieve inflammation with minimal system absorption

Take 1-3 weeks to be effective

178
Q

Steroid Nasal Decongestants Indication

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Seasonal allergic rhinitis
Nasal Congestion
Inflammation after removal of nasal polyps

Take 1-3 weeks to be effective

179
Q

Steroid Nasal Decongestants Drugs

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Beclomethasone
Fluticasone
Triamcinolone
Budesonide
Flunisolide

Take 1-3 weeks to be effective

180
Q

Beclomethasone
Fluticasone
Triamcinolone
Budesonide
Flunisolide
Class

A

URT
Steroid Nasal Decongestants

181
Q

Antihistamines - URT

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Diphenhydramine
Hydroxyzine
Meclizine
Promethazine
Azelastine
Cetirizine
Fexofenadine
Levocetirizine
Loratadine

Block release and action of histamine at histamine 1 receptors to decrease allergic response. Anticholinergic and antipruritic effects

Allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis
Urticaria
Angioedema

Administer on empty stomach and void beforehand

182
Q

Antihistamines - URT MOA

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Block release and action of histamine at histamine 1 receptors to decrease allergic response. Anticholinergic and antipruritic effects

Administer on empty stomach and void beforehand

183
Q

Antihistamines - URT Indications

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis
Urticaria
Angioedema

Administer on empty stomach and void beforehand

184
Q

Antihistamines - URT Drugs

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Diphenhydramine
Hydroxyzine
Meclizine
Promethazine
Azelastine
Cetirizine
Fexofenadine
Levocetirizine
Loratadine

Administer on empty stomach and void beforehand

185
Q

Diphenhydramine
Hydroxyzine
Meclizine
Promethazine
Azelastine
Cetirizine
Fexofenadine
Levocetirizine
Loratadine
Class

A

URT Antihistamines

186
Q

Expectorants

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Guaifenesin

Liquifies respiratory tract secretion to reduce viscosity making it easier to expel

Increase productive cough to expel mucus to clear airways and relieve respiratory congestion

Do not take longer than one week

187
Q

Expectorants MOA

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Liquifies respiratory tract secretion to reduce viscosity making it easier to expel

Do not take longer than one week

188
Q

Expectorants Indications

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Increase productive cough to expel mucus to clear airways and relieve respiratory congestion

Do not take longer than one week

189
Q

Expectorants Drug

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Guaifenesin

Do not take longer than one week

190
Q

Guaifenesin Class

A

URT
Expectorants

191
Q

Mucolytic

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Acetylcysteine: Acetaminophen OD

Dornase alfa: palliative cystic fibrosis

Works to break down mucosa in order to aid high-risk respiratory patient in coughing thick secretions

Pt difficulty coughing up secretions
Pt develop atelectasis
Pt undergoing diagnostic bronchoscopy
Postoperative pt
Pt with tracheostomies
Illness like COPD, CF, pneumonia, TB

192
Q

Mucolytic MOA

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Works to break down mucosa in order to aid high-risk respiratory patient in coughing thick secretions

193
Q

Mucolytic Indications

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Pt difficulty coughing up secretions
Pt develop atelectasis
Pt undergoing diagnostic bronchoscopy
Postoperative pt
Pt with tracheostomies
Illness like COPD, CF, pneumonia, TB

194
Q

Mucolytic Drugs

A

Upper Respiratory Tract

Acetylcysteine: Acetaminophen OD

Dornase alfa: palliative cystic fibrosis

195
Q

Acetylcysteine
Dornase alfa
Class

A

URT Mucolytic

196
Q

Xanthine LRT

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Caffeine
Theophylline

Direct effect on smooth muscle of respiratory tract in both the bronchi and bronchovesicular

Symptomatic relief or prevention of asthma and COPD
Reversal of bronchospasms

Only prescribed when other drugs do not work

197
Q

Xanthine LRT MOA

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Direct effect on smooth muscle of respiratory tract in both the bronchi and bronchovesicular

Only prescribed when other drugs do not work

198
Q

Xanthine LRT Indications

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Symptomatic relief or prevention of asthma and COPD
Reversal of bronchospasms

Only prescribed when other drugs do not work

199
Q

Xanthine LRT Drugs

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Caffeine
Theophylline

Only prescribed when other drugs do not work

200
Q

Caffeine
Theophylline
Class

A

Xanthine LRT

201
Q

Sympathomimetics LRT

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Epinephrine: drug of choice for bronchospasms
Formoterol
Levalbuterol
Salmeterol
Albuterol: rescue inhaler
Isoproterenol
Metaproterenol

Beta 2 selective adrenergic agonist that dilate bronchi which increase respiratory rate and depth

Acute asthma attack
Bronchospasm
Prevention of exercise induced asthma
Maintenance meds for chronic respiratory disease

202
Q

Sympathomimetics LRT MOA

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Beta 2 selective adrenergic agonist that dilate bronchi which increase respiratory rate and depth

203
Q

Sympathomimetics LRT Indication

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Acute asthma attack
Bronchospasm
Prevention of exercise induced asthma
Maintenance meds for chronic respiratory disease

204
Q

Sympathomimetics LRT Drugs

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Epinephrine: drug of choice for bronchospasms
Formoterol
Levalbuterol
Salmeterol
Albuterol: rescue inhaler
Isoproterenol
Metaproterenol

205
Q

Epinephrine
Formoterol
Levalbuterol
Salmeterol
Albuterol
Isoproterenol
Metaproterenol
Class

A

Sympathomimetics LRT

206
Q

Inhaled Steroids LRT

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Beclomethasone
Fluticasone
Triamcinolone
Budesonide
Ciclesonide

Decrease inflammatory response in airways

Prevention and rx of asthma
Maintenance rx of COPD

Take 2-3 weeks to be effective

207
Q

Inhaled Steroids LRT MOA

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Decrease inflammatory response in airways

Take 2-3 weeks to be effective

208
Q

Inhaled Steroids LRT Indication

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Prevention and rx of asthma
Maintenance rx of COPD

Take 2-3 weeks to be effective

209
Q

Inhaled Steroids LRT Drugs

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Beclomethasone
Fluticasone
Triamcinolone
Budesonide
Ciclesonide

Take 2-3 weeks to be effective

210
Q

Beclomethasone
Fluticasone
Triamcinolone
Budesonide
Ciclesonide
Class

A

Inhaled Steroids LRT

211
Q

Anticholinergic LRT

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Ipratropium
Tiotropium
Aclidinium
Umeclidinium

Blocks the vagal effect leading to relaxation of smooth muscle in bronchi causing bronchodilation

Maintenance rx of COPD

212
Q

Anticholinergic LRT MOA

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Blocks the vagal effect leading to relaxation of smooth muscle in bronchi causing bronchodilation

213
Q

Anticholinergic LRT Indications

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Maintenance rx of COPD

214
Q

Anticholinergic LRT Drugs

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Ipratropium
Tiotropium
Aclidinium
Umeclidinium

215
Q

Ipratropium
Tiotropium
Aclidinium
Umeclidinium
Class

A

Anticholinergic LRT

216
Q

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist LRT

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Zafirlukast
Montelukast

Block receptors for production of leukotrienes

Long-term rx of asthma

Works within one week

217
Q

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist LRT MOA

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Block receptors for production of leukotrienes

Works within one week

218
Q

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist LRT Indications

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Long-term rx of asthma

Works within one week

219
Q

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist LRT Drugs

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Zafirlukast
Montelukast

Works within one week

220
Q

Zafirlukast
Montelukast
Class

A

Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist LRT

221
Q

Lung Surfactants

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Beractant
Calfactant
Lucinactant
Poractant

Replace surfactant missing in lungs of neonate with RDS

Rescue rx of infants who have develop RDS

222
Q

Lung Surfactants MOA

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Replace surfactant missing in lungs of neonate with RDS

223
Q

Lung Surfactants Indication

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Rescue rx of infants who have develop RDS

224
Q

Lung Surfactants Drugs

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

Beractant
Calfactant
Lucinactant
Poractant

225
Q

Beractant
Calfactant
Lucinactant
Poractant
Class

A

LRT
Lung Surfactants

226
Q

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

A

Heart Failure

Milrinone

Block PDE which increase cAMP causing increase in calcium levels therefore stronger contraction and prolonged response to sympathetic stimulation

Short term rx HF in pt unresponsive to digitalis, diuretics, and vasodilators
Use is limited to severe situation

227
Q

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors MOA

A

Heart Failure

Block PDE which increase cAMP causing increase in calcium levels therefore stronger contraction and prolonged response to sympathetic stimulation

228
Q

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors Indication

A

Heart Failure

Short term rx HF in pt unresponsive to digitalis, diuretics, and vasodilators
Use is limited to severe situation

229
Q

Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors Drug

A

Heart Failure

Milrinone

230
Q

Milrinone Class

A

Heart Failure
Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors

231
Q

Cardiac Glycosides

A

Heart Failure

Digoxin: positive inotrope and negative chronotrope

Increase intracellular calcium allowing more calcium to enter during depolarization; positive inotrope effects
Increase renal perfusion with diuretic effect and decrease in renin secretions
Slow conduction through AV node to decrease heart rate

Rx HF, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal atrial tachycardia

Antidote: DigiFab

232
Q

Cardiac Glycosides MOA

A

Heart Failure

Increase intracellular calcium allowing more calcium to enter during depolarization; positive inotrope effects
Increase renal perfusion with diuretic effect and decrease in renin secretions
Slow conduction through AV node to decrease heart rate

Antidote: DigiFab

233
Q

Cardiac Glycosides Indication

A

Heart Failure

Rx HF, atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal atrial tachycardia

Antidote: DigiFab

234
Q

Cardiac Glycosides Drug

A

Heart Failure

Digoxin

Antidote: DigiFab

235
Q

Cardiac Glycosides Antidote

A

Heart Failure

Antidote: DigiFab

236
Q

Digoxin Class

A

Heart Failure
Cardiac Glycosides

237
Q

Hyperpolarization-Activated Cyclic Nucleotide Gated Channel Blocker (HCN Blockers)

A

Heart Failure

Ivabradine

Blocking HCN slows heart’s pacemaker (sinus node) in repolarizing phase of AP which reduces heart rate

Reduce risk of hospitalization for worsening heart failure

238
Q

Hyperpolarization-Activated Cyclic Nucleotide Gated Channel Blocker (HCN Blockers) MOA

A

Heart Failure

Blocking HCN slows heart’s pacemaker (sinus node) in repolarizing phase of AP which reduces heart rate

239
Q

Hyperpolarization-Activated Cyclic Nucleotide Gated Channel Blocker (HCN Blockers) Indication

A

Heart Failure

Reduce risk of hospitalization for worsening heart failure

240
Q

Hyperpolarization-Activated Cyclic Nucleotide Gated Channel Blocker (HCN Blockers) Drug

A

Heart Failure

Ivabradine

241
Q

Ivabradine Class

A

Heart Failure
Hyperpolarization-Activated Cyclic Nucleotide Gated Channel Blocker (HCN Blockers)

242
Q

Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitors (ARNI)

A

Heart Failure

Sacubitril
Valsartan

Block breakdown of natriuretic peptides and inhibit effects of RAAS
Leads to decrease in cardiac workload, lower vascular volume, lower blood pressure and improved heart failure symptoms

Reduce risk of cardiovascular death or hospitalization in adults with chronic heart failure
Rx symptomatic heart failure with systemic left ventricular systolic dysfunction in pediatric patient older than one year

243
Q

Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitors (ARNI) MOA

A

Heart Failure

Block breakdown of natriuretic peptides and inhibit effects of RAAS
Leads to decrease in cardiac workload, lower vascular volume, lower blood pressure and improved heart failure symptoms

244
Q

Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitors (ARNI) Indications

A

Heart Failure

Reduce risk of cardiovascular death or hospitalization in adults with chronic heart failure
Rx symptomatic heart failure with systemic left ventricular systolic dysfunction in pediatric patient older than one year

245
Q

Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitors (ARNI) Drugs

A

Heart Failure

Sacubitril
Valsartan

246
Q

Sacubitril
Valsartan
Class

A

Heart Failure
Angiotensin Receptor Neprilysin Inhibitors

247
Q

Antianginal Beta Blockers

A

Atenolol
Metoprolol
Propranolol
Nadolol

Block beta adrenergic receptors in the heart and kidneys
Decrease the influence of SNS on heart and kidney
Decrease cardiac output and the release of renin

Long term management of angina pectoris caused by atherosclerosis
Used in combination with nitrates to increase exercise tolerance
Prevent re-infarction in stable patient 1-4 week after MI

248
Q

Antianginal Beta Blockers MOA

A

Block beta adrenergic receptors in the heart and kidneys
Decrease the influence of SNS on heart and kidney
Decrease cardiac output and the release of renin

249
Q

Antianginal Beta Blockers Indication

A

Long term management of angina pectoris caused by atherosclerosis
Used in combination with nitrates to increase exercise tolerance
Prevent re-infarction in stable patient 1-4 week after MI

250
Q

Antianginal Beta Blockers Drugs

A

Atenolol
Metoprolol
Propranolol
Nadolol

251
Q

Atenolol
Metoprolol
Propranolol
Nadolol
Class

A

Antianginal Beta Blockers

252
Q

Antianginal Nitrates

A

Preventative and long-acting:
Isosorbide dinitrate
Isosorbide mononitrate

Prevention and rx acute attack:
Nitroglycerin

Act directly on the smooth muscle to cause relaxation of blood vessels

Prevent and rx attacks of angina pectoris

253
Q

Isosorbide dinitrate
Isosorbide mononitrate
Nitroglycerin
Class

A

Antianginal Nitrates

254
Q

Antianginal Nitrates MOA

A

Act directly on the smooth muscle to cause relaxation of blood vessels

255
Q

Antianginal Nitrates Indications

A

Prevent and rx attacks of angina pectoris

256
Q

Antianginal Nitrates Drugs

A

Preventative and long-acting:
Isosorbide dinitrate
Isosorbide mononitrate

257
Q

Antianginal Calcium Channel Blockers

A

Dihydropyridine: more vascular used HTN and angina
Amlodipine
Nicardipine
Nifedipine

Non-dihydropyridine: more myocardial used in angina and arrhythmias
Diltiazem
Verapamil

Inhibit movement of calcium ions across membranes therefore altering action potential and blocking muscle cell contraction. Results in loss of smooth muscle tone, vasodilation, and decrease PVR

Prinzmetal’s angina
Chronic angina
Effort-associated angina
HTN

258
Q

Antianginal Calcium Channel Blockers MOA

A

Inhibit movement of calcium ions across membranes therefore altering action potential and blocking muscle cell contraction. Results in loss of smooth muscle tone, vasodilation, and decrease PVR

259
Q

Antianginal Calcium Channel Blockers Indications

A

Prinzmetal’s angina
Chronic angina
Effort-associated angina
HTN

260
Q

Antianginal Calcium Channel Blockers Drugs

A

Dihydropyridine: more vascular used HTN and angina
Amlodipine
Nicardipine
Nifedipine

Non-dihydropyridine: more myocardial used in angina and arrhythmias
Diltiazem
Verapamil

261
Q

Dihydropyridine
Amlodipine
Nicardipine
Nifedipine

Non-dihydropyridine
Diltiazem
Verapamil

A

Antianginal Calcium Channel Blockers

262
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 1

A

Procainamide
Lidocaine
Quinidine
Flecainide
Propafenone

Block Sodium channels in the cell membrane during action potential causing a decrease in depolarization, decrease in automaticity of ventricular cells and increase in ventricular fibrillation threshold.

Tachycardia
Life threatening ventricular arrhythmias
Symptomatic paroxysmal arterial arrhythmias

Quinidine toxicity occurs foods that alkalinize urine and grapefruit juice

263
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 1 MOA

A

Block Sodium channels in the cell membrane during action potential causing a decrease in depolarization, decrease in automaticity of ventricular cells and increase in ventricular fibrillation threshold.

Quinidine toxicity occurs foods that alkalinize urine and grapefruit juice

264
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 1 Indications

A

Tachycardia
Life threatening ventricular arrhythmias
Symptomatic paroxysmal arterial arrhythmias

Quinidine toxicity occurs foods that alkalinize urine and grapefruit juice

265
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 1 Drugs

A

Procainamide
Lidocaine
Quinidine
Flecainide
Propafenone

Quinidine toxicity occurs foods that alkalinize urine and grapefruit juice

266
Q

Procainamide
Lidocaine
Quinidine
Flecainide
Propafenone
Class

A

Antiarrhythmic Class 1

267
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 2

A

Acebutolol, Esmolol, Propranolol
Digoxin, Adenosine

Act on autonomic receptors by competitively block the beta receptors in heart and kidneys to decrease heart rate, cardiac excitability, cardiac output. Slow conduction through AV node to decrease heart rate

Rx rapid arterial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal SVT, premature ventricular contractions, ventricular tachycardia

Adenosine specifically used SVT when other measure not effective by flatlining the heart

268
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 2 MOA

A

Act on autonomic receptors by competitively block the beta receptors in heart and kidneys to decrease heart rate, cardiac excitability, cardiac output. Slow conduction through AV node to decrease heart rate

Adenosine specifically used SVT when other measure not effective by flatlining the heart

269
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 2 Indication

A

Acebutolol, Esmolol, Propranolol
Digoxin, Adenosine

Rx rapid arterial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal SVT, premature ventricular contractions, ventricular tachycardia

Adenosine specifically used SVT when other measure not effective by flatlining the heart

270
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 2 Drugs

A

Acebutolol, Esmolol, Propranolol
Digoxin, Adenosine

Adenosine specifically used SVT when other measure not effective by flatlining the heart

271
Q

Acebutolol, Esmolol, Propranolol
Digoxin, Adenosine
Class

A

Antiarrhythmic Class 2

272
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 3

A

Amiodarone
Dofetilide
Sotalol

Block Potassium channels and slow outward movement of potassium during the 3rd phase of action potential

Life threatening ventricular arrhythmias
Maintenance of sinus rhythm after conversion of atrial arrhythmias

SAD banana

273
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 3 MOA

A

Block Potassium channels and slow outward movement of potassium during the 3rd phase of action potential

SAD banana

274
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 3 Indication

A

Life threatening ventricular arrhythmias
Maintenance of sinus rhythm after conversion of atrial arrhythmias

SAD banana

275
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 3 Drugs

A

Amiodarone
Dofetilide
Sotalol

SAD banana

276
Q

Amiodarone
Dofetilide
Sotalol
Class

A

Antiarrhythmic Class 3

277
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 4

A

Diltazem
Verapamil

Block movement of calcium across cell membrane which depresses the generation of action potential and delays phases 1/2 of repolarization. Slows conduction through AV node.

Rx rapid supraventricular dysrhythmias like rapid atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

Very Dairy

278
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 4 MOA

A

Block movement of calcium across cell membrane which depresses the generation of action potential and delays phases 1/2 of repolarization. Slows conduction through AV node.

Very Dairy

279
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 4 Indications

A

Rx rapid supraventricular dysrhythmias like rapid atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

Very Dairy

280
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class 4 Drugs

A

Diltazem
Verapamil

Very Dairy

281
Q

Diltazem
Verapamil
Class

A

Antiarrhythmic Class 4

282
Q

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

A

Antihypertensive

Benazepril
Captopril
Enalapril
Lisinopril
Ramipril

Blocks ACE from converting Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II in RAAS
Blocks aldosterone causing vasodilation, sodium and water excretion, and small increase in serum potassium

HTN
Congestive heart failure and left ventricular dysfunction in conjunction with other meds
Diabetic neuropathy prevention

Dry hacking constant cough

283
Q

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor MOA

A

Antihypertensive

Blocks ACE from converting Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II in RAAS
Blocks aldosterone causing vasodilation, sodium and water excretion, and small increase in serum potassium

Dry hacking constant cough

284
Q

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor Indication

A

Antihypertensive

HTN
Congestive heart failure and left ventricular dysfunction in conjunction with other meds
Diabetic neuropathy prevention

Dry hacking constant cough

285
Q

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor Drugs

A

Antihypertensive

Benazepril
Captopril
Enalapril
Lisinopril
Ramipril

Dry hacking constant cough

286
Q

Benazepril
Captopril
Enalapril
Lisinopril
Ramipril
Class

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor

287
Q

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: ARB

A

Antihypertensive

Candesartan
Irbesartan
Losartan
Olmesartan
Telmisartan
Valsartan

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist which prevents vasoconstriction and release of aldosterone

HTN, congestive heart failure, diabetic neuropathy prevention

288
Q

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: ARB
MOA

A

Antihypertensive

Angiotensin II receptor antagonist which prevents vasoconstriction and release of aldosterone

289
Q

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: ARB
Indications

A

Antihypertensive

HTN, congestive heart failure, diabetic neuropathy prevention

290
Q

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: ARB
Drugs

A

Antihypertensive

Candesartan
Irbesartan
Losartan
Olmesartan
Telmisartan
Valsartan

291
Q

Candesartan
Irbesartan
Losartan
Olmesartan
Telmisartan
Valsartan
Class

A

Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: ARB

292
Q

Renin Inhibitors

A

Antihypertensive

Aliskiren

Inhibits renin which inhibits RAAS to decrease blood pressure, decrease aldosterone, and decrease sodium reabsorption

HTN

293
Q

Renin Inhibitors MOA

A

Antihypertensive

Inhibits renin which inhibits RAAS to decrease blood pressure, decrease aldosterone, and decrease sodium reabsorption

294
Q

Renin Inhibitors Indications

A

Antihypertensive

HTN

295
Q

Renin Inhibitors Drug

A

Antihypertensive

Aliskiren

296
Q

Aliskiren Class

A

Renin Inhibitors

297
Q

Antihypertensive Calcium Channel Blockers

A

Amlodipine, Felodipine, Nifedipine
Diltiazem, Verapamil

Inhibit movement of calcium ions across cell membrane depressing impulse and leading to slowed conduction, decrease myocardial contractility, dilating arteries

HTN, angina, arrhythmias

Very Daisy Dipine

298
Q

Antihypertensive Calcium Channel Blockers MOA

A

Inhibit movement of calcium ions across cell membrane depressing impulse and leading to slowed conduction, decrease myocardial contractility, dilating arteries

Very Daisy Dipine

299
Q

Antihypertensive Calcium Channel Blockers Indications

A

Amlodipine, Felodipine, Nifedipine
Diltiazem, Verapamil

HTN, angina, arrhythmias

Very Dairy Dipine

300
Q

Antihypertensive Calcium Channel Blockers Drugs

A

Amlodipine, Felodipine, Nifedipine
Diltiazem, Verapamil

Very Daisy Dipine

301
Q

Amlodipine, Felodipine, Nifedipine
Diltiazem, Verapamil Class

A

Antihypertensive Calcium Channel Blockers

302
Q

Vasopressors

A

Antihypertensive

Dobutamine, Dopamine, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

Stimulate all adrenergic receptors in SNS causing increase heart rate and myocardial contractility, blood vessel constrict and blood pressure increase, bronchi dilates and rate and depth of breathing increases

Hypotensive status
Anaphylaxis
Bronchospasms and acute asthma

303
Q

Vasopressors MOA

A

Antihypertensive

Stimulate all adrenergic receptors in SNS causing increase heart rate and myocardial contractility, blood vessel constrict and blood pressure increase, bronchi dilates and rate and depth of breathing increases

304
Q

Vasopressors Indications

A

Antihypertensive

Hypotensive status
Anaphylaxis
Bronchospasms and acute asthma

305
Q

Vasopressors Drugs

A

Antihypertensive

Dobutamine, Dopamine, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine

306
Q

Dobutamine, Dopamine, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine Class

A

Vasopressors

307
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha-2 Agonist

A

Clonidine

Stimulates Alpha-2 receptors in CNS and inhibits cardiovascular centers leading to decrease sympathetic outflow from CNS and decrease in blood pressure

HTN

308
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha-2 Agonist MOA

A

Stimulates Alpha-2 receptors in CNS and inhibits cardiovascular centers leading to decrease sympathetic outflow from CNS and decrease in blood pressure

309
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha-2 Agonist

A

HTN

310
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha-2 Agonist Drug

A

Clonidine

311
Q

Clonidine Class

A

Antihypertensive Alpha-2 Agonist

312
Q

Antihypertensive Diuretic Drugs

A

Thiazide and thiazide-like: Chlorothiazide, Chlorthalidone, Hydrochlorothiazide

Potassium-sparring: Spironolactone and triamterene

313
Q

Antihypertensive Vasodilators

A

Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Nitroprusside, Nitroglycerin

Acts directly on vascular smooth muscle to cause muscle relaxation and vasodilation to decrease blood pressure.

Severe hypertension and other meds do not work.
Refractory hypertension when blood pressure spikes in someone with previously controlled blood pressure
Hypertensive emergencies
Malignant hypertension: organ damage

314
Q

Antihypertensive Vasodilators MOA

A

Acts directly on vascular smooth muscle to cause muscle relaxation and vasodilation to decrease blood pressure.

315
Q

Antihypertensive Vasodilators Indications

A

Severe hypertension and other meds do not work.
Refractory hypertension when blood pressure spikes in someone with previously controlled blood pressure
Hypertensive emergencies
Malignant hypertension: organ damage

316
Q

Antihypertensive Vasodilators Drugs

A

Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Nitroprusside, Nitroglycerin

317
Q

Hydralazine, Minoxidil, Nitroprusside, Nitroglycerin

A

Antihypertensive Vasodilators

318
Q

Antihypertensive Beta Blockers

A

Atenolol, Metoprolol, Propranolol

Block beta adrenergic receptors in the heart decrease heart rate and cardiac muscle contraction
vasodilates causing increase blood flow to kidneys which decreases the release of renin

HTN
Angina
Tachyarrhythmias
Migraine HA
Myocardial infarction
Glaucoma
Heart failure
Hyperthyroidism

319
Q

Antihypertensive Beta Blockers MOA

A

Block beta adrenergic receptors in the heart decrease heart rate and cardiac muscle contraction
vasodilates causing increase blood flow to kidneys which decreases the release of renin

320
Q

Antihypertensive Beta Blockers Indications

A

HTN
Angina
Tachyarrhythmias
Migraine HA
Myocardial infarction
Glaucoma
Heart failure
Hyperthyroidism

321
Q

Antihypertensive Beta Blockers Drugs

A

Atenolol, Metoprolol, Propranolol

322
Q

Atenolol, Metoprolol, Propranolol
Class

A

Antihypertensive Beta Blockers

323
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha Adrenergic Blocker

A

Phentolamine

Block Alpha 1 receptor causing vasodilation
Block Alpha 2 receptor which prevent norepinephrine feedback loop resulting in increase in reflex tachycardia

Dx and manage episode of pheochromocytoma

324
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha Adrenergic Blocker MOA

A

Block Alpha 1 receptor causing vasodilation
Block Alpha 2 receptor which prevent norepinephrine feedback loop resulting in increase in reflex tachycardia

325
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha Adrenergic Blocker Indications

A

Dx and manage episode of pheochromocytoma

326
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha Adrenergic Blocker Drug

A

Phentolamine

327
Q

Phentolamine
Class

A

Antihypertensive Alpha Adrenergic Blocker

328
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha and Beta Blocker

A

Carvedilol and Labetalol

Block norepinephrine at all alpha and beta receptor sites in the sympathetic nervous system to lower blood pressure and heart and increase renal perfusion which decrease renin

HTN

329
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha and Beta Blocker MOA

A

Block norepinephrine at all alpha and beta receptor sites in the sympathetic nervous system to lower blood pressure and heart and increase renal perfusion which decrease renin

330
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha and Beta Blocker Indication

A

HTN

331
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha and Beta Blocker Drug

A

Carvedilol and Labetalol

332
Q

Carvedilol and Labetalol Class

A

Antihypertensive Alpha and Beta Blocker

333
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha 1 Blocker

A

Doxazosin, Prazosin, Terazosin

Block alpha 1 receptor sites for vasodilation

HTN

334
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha 1 Blocker MOA

A

Block alpha 1 receptor sites for vasodilation

335
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha 1 Blocker Indication

A

HTN

336
Q

Antihypertensive Alpha 1 Blocker Drug

A

Doxazosin, Prazosin, Terazosin

337
Q

Doxazosin, Prazosin, Terazosin Class

A

Antihypertensive Alpha 1 Blocker

338
Q

Hemostatic Agent

A

Coagulation Modifier

Aminocaproic Acid: systemic
Prevent systemic clot breakdown to prevent blood loss

Absorbable gelatin, collagen, fibril, thrombin: topical
For surface injuries involving so much damage to the small vessels in the area that clotting does not occur and blood is slowly and continually loss

339
Q

Aminocaproic Acid

Absorbable gelatin, collagen, fibril, thrombin
Class

A

Hemostatic Agent

340
Q

Antihemophilic

A

Coagulation modifier

Factor

Replace clotting factor that are either genetically missing or low in a particular type of hemophilia

Prevent blood loss from injury or surgery
Rx bleeding disorder

341
Q

Antihemophilic MOA

A

Coagulation modifier

Replace clotting factor that are either genetically missing or low in a particular type of hemophilia

342
Q

Antihemophilic Indications

A

Coagulation modifier

Prevent blood loss from injury or surgery
Rx bleeding disorder

343
Q

Low Molecular Weight Heparin

A

Hemorheological Agent

Pentoxifylline

Xanthine decrease platelet aggregation and decrease in fibrinogen concentration in blood

Improve blood flow in compromised vessels
Rx intermittent claudication

Dalteparin and Enoxaparin

Inhibit thrombus and clot formation by blocking factor X1 and IIa. Also block angiogenesis

Specific use in prevention of clots and emboli formation after certain surgeries and prolonged best rest

344
Q

Thrombolytic Agent

A

Coagulation Modifier

Alteplase
Reteplase
Tenecteplase

Activate plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down fibril threads in a clot to dissolve it

Acute MI
Pulmonary embolism
Ischemic stroke

345
Q

Thrombolytic Agent MOA

A

Coagulation Modifier

Activate plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down fibril threads in a clot to dissolve it

346
Q

Thrombolytic Agent Indications

A

Coagulation Modifier

Acute MI
Pulmonary embolism
Ischemic stroke

347
Q

Thrombolytic Agent Drug

A

Coagulation Modifier

Alteplase
Reteplase
Tenecteplase

348
Q

Alteplase
Reteplase
Tenecteplase
Class

A

Thrombolytic Agent

349
Q

Antiplatelet

A

Coagulation modifier

Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor

Affect formation of platelet plug

Cardiovascular disease that are prone to clogged vessels
Keep surgical graft open
Prevent cerebrovascular occlusion
Adjunct to thrombolytic therapy after MI and to prevent another MI

350
Q

Antiplatelet MOA

A

Coagulation modifier

Affect formation of platelet plug

351
Q

Antiplatelet Indications

A

Coagulation modifier

Cardiovascular disease that are prone to clogged vessels
Keep surgical graft open
Prevent cerebrovascular occlusion
Adjunct to thrombolytic therapy after MI and to prevent another MI

352
Q

Antiplatelet Drugs

A

Coagulation modifier

Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor

353
Q

Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor
Class

A

Antiplatelet

354
Q

Anticoagulant Agents

A

Coagulation Modifier

Heparin
Warfarin
Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Dabigatran

Interfere with the normal cascade involved in the clotting process

Prevent new clots from forming in atrial fibrillation, bed bound, certain surgical patients
Prevent existing clots from getting bigger in DVT, pulmonary embolism, MI
Genetic disorder by replacing missing part of clotting cascard

355
Q

Anticoagulant Agents MOA

A

Coagulation Modifier

Interfere with the normal cascade involved in the clotting process

356
Q

Anticoagulant Agents Indications

A

Coagulation Modifier

Prevent new clots from forming in atrial fibrillation, bed bound, certain surgical patients
Prevent existing clots from getting bigger in DVT, pulmonary embolism, MI
Genetic disorder by replacing missing part of clotting cascard

357
Q

Anticoagulant Agents Drugs

A

Coagulation Modifier

Heparin
Warfarin
Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Dabigatran

358
Q

Heparin
Warfarin
Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Dabigatran
Class

A

Anticoagulant Agents

359
Q

Heparin Antidote and Clotting Lab

A

Protamine Sulfate
PTT

360
Q

Warfarin Antidote and Clotting Lab

A

Vitamin K
PT/INR