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Patient Care > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitur

A

the thing speaks for itself

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2
Q

Respondent Superior

A

let the master answer

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3
Q

Any deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function f any part, organ, or system of the body

A

Disease

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4
Q

What must health care practitioners understand about infectious diseases?

A

what they are, how they are spread, and how they are controlled

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4
Q

Disease is caused by _____ and can cause ______

A

microorganisms; an absence of health

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5
Q

An establishment and growth of a microorganism on or in a host, resulting in injury to the host

A

infection

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6
Q

Infections are caused by ______

A

pathogenic organisms

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7
Q

What are the 3 functions of pathogens?

A

-multiply and cause obstructions
-cause tissue damage
-secrete organic exotoxins (cause side effects)

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8
Q

What are the different types of microorganisms?

A

bacteria, Ricketts, viruses, fungi, prions, protozoa

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9
Q

These are small/microscopic single celled organisms that have cell walls and an atypical nucleus but lack a membrane. They occur in various shapes and groupings

A

bacteria

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10
Q

How are bacteria classified?

A

gram stain and acid process

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11
Q

These are bacterial forms that are resistant and remain viable for many years

A

endospores

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12
Q

These are bacterial forms that lack nuclei and membrane-bound organelles

A

prokaryotes

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13
Q

What are other examples of bacteria?

A

staph, bacterial pneumonia, tuberculosis, food poisoning, and salmonella

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14
Q

What are bacteria classified as?

A

spheres, rods, and spirals

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15
Q

This atypical bacteria grows inside animal cells (particularly rodents) and are transmitted by insect vectors

A

ricketts

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16
Q

What is an example of Ricketts?

A

rocky mountain fever

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17
Q

These small sub cellular organisms consist of genetic material protected by a protein coating called a capsid

A

viruses

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18
Q

Why can’t viruses survive without a host?

A

they lack components for their own survival

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19
Q

What are examples of viruses?

A

COVID-19, common cold, HIV, influenza, hepatitis, herpes

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20
Q

What do viruses do to multiply?

A

they carry their own DNA or RNA and viral particles (visions) attach to the host cell and inserts its own genetic information. It then redirects host cell to produce new viruses

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21
Q

How do you directly observe a virus?

A

through an electron microscope

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22
Q

Viruses may lie dormant for extended period of time and then manifest in illness but are also unaffected by _____

A

antibiotics

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23
Q

These can occur as single-celled organisms called yeast and form buds to reproduce. They can also occur as long branched filament-like structures (mold) and form spores to reproduce.

A

fungi

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24
Q

How many different types of fungi are there?

A

100,000

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25
Q

Fungi are key in the production of ______

A

alcohol, breads, and penicillin

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26
Q

Fungi causes things like _____

A

athlete’s foot, ringworm, tines nigra

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27
Q

This type of fungi has a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles

A

eukaryotic

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28
Q

The size of fungi, compared to bacteria are _____

A

much larger

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29
Q

This medically important fungi grows into a single-celled yeast and into filamentous hyphae-known as mold

A

dimorphic fungi

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30
Q

What are the 4 classifications of fungi?

A

-superficial (discoloration of the skin)
-cutaneous (involve the keratinized tissue of the hair, nails, and skin)
-subcutaneous (enters the host due to trauma to the skin)
-systemic (enters the circulatory and lymphatic systems, may be fatal)

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31
Q

These are the smallest and least understood microorganism. Method of replication is not understood and are discovered in 1983.

A

prions

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32
Q

Prions are believed to be ______

A

infectious proteins

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33
Q

Prions can transform other proteins into prions but have no ______

A

DNA or RNA

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34
Q

What are examples of Prions?

A

spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease) and alzheimer’s

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35
Q

These complex single-celled animals generally exist in free-living organisms, are eukaryotic, and are larger than bacteria

A

Protozoa

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36
Q

Protozoa are equipped with a digestive system, therefore can _____

A

ingest food particles

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37
Q

Some protozoa are _____ and live within the human body

A

parasitic

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38
Q

Protozoa are classified as

A

-motile (moving
-non-motile (non-moving)

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39
Q

Where can protozoa cause a disease process in?

A

digestive system, respiratory system, genitourinary, circulatory system

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40
Q

What is the cycle of infection?

A

-infectious organisms
-reservoir of infection
-portal of exit
-susceptible host
-portal of entry
-transmission of disease

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41
Q

Infectious organisms are microorganisms capable of causing disease and are called ______

A

pathogens or pathogenic organisms

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42
Q

This distinguish pathogens from nonpathogenic organisms and normal flora

A

virulence factors

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43
Q

Patients are often hosts because of reduce immune system and are considered _______

A

susceptible host

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44
Q

Healthcare workers are also at risk of being susceptible host because _____

A

-exposure to blood and other bodily fluids
-can also spread a disease (wash hands)
-occupationally acquires

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45
Q

The route by which microorganisms gain access into the susceptible host

A

portal of entry

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46
Q

What are examples of portals of entry?

A

respiratory tract, urinary tract, GI tract, open wound or break in skin, bloodstream, mucous membranes of eyes, nose or mouth

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47
Q

This is a place where pathogens can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat to the host, may be human or nonhuman

A

reservoir of infection (water, food, animals)

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48
Q

What must a reservoir of infection have in order for pathogens to thrive?

A

moisture, nutrients, and suitable temperature

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49
Q

This is any route through which blood, body fluids, excretions or secretions leave the body

A

portal of exit

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50
Q

What are examples of portal of exit?

A

GI tract, open wound, respiratory tract, infected wound, bloodstream

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51
Q

The most direct way to break the cycle of infection is to ______

A

prevent transmission of the infectious organism from the reservoir to the susceptible host

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52
Q

What are the 6 main routes of transmission?

A

-direct contact
-fomites
-vectors
-vehicles
-airborne
-droplet contamination

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53
Q

Infected person must touch susceptible host and requires pathogens to be placed in _____ with susceptible tissue (EX: syphilis, HIV, staph infection)

A

direct contact

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54
Q

An object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms
(EX: contaminated gloves, x-ray table, positioning sponges and pens)

A

fomites

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55
Q

An arthropod in whose body an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infective to a new host. transmission occurs when an infected insect bites host
(EX: mosquitos-malaria, ticks-lime disease)

A

vectors

56
Q

Any medium that transports microorganisms
(EX: contaminated food, water, drugs, and blood)

A

vehicles

57
Q

Occurs from dust that contains spores or by means of droplet nuclei. Travel 3 feet or less and can remain suspended in the air for long periods. Can be inhaled.
(EX: TB, varicella viruses)

A

airborne

58
Q

Occurs when an infectious individual coughs, sneezes, speaks or sings in the vicinity of a susceptible host. Do not travel far. Involves contact of the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth of a host with large droplets that contain microorganisms
(EX: influenza, meningitis, diphtheria)

A

droplet contamination

59
Q

The body’s defense against infection

A

natural resistance, acquired immunity, passive immunity

60
Q

Provided by mechanical barriers of intact skin and mucous membranes

A

natural resistance

61
Q

Can be born with this immunity, occurs when an individual develops antibodies to a particular organism as a result of either infection or immunization, can be from previous exposures, is long term.
(EX: chicken pox, measles)

A

acquired immunity

62
Q

Occurs following an injection or preformed antibodies to a particular infection, newborns are temporarily immune because the antibodies are passed from mother to baby (if mother breastfeeds, antibodies pass from mother to baby), antibodies act immediately but weaken over time; short term
(EX: injections after exposure to a virus like hepatitis A)

A

passive immunity

63
Q

The body sees as a foreign protein and forms antibodies

A

antigens

64
Q

What are emerging diseases?

A

-new diseases appearing in the population
-existing diseases that are rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range
-resurgent or recurrent old diseases caused by an old or mutated pathogen

65
Q

Department of a hospital responsible for keeping up to date on CDC recommendations and WHO data

A

infection-control department

66
Q

Infection that occurs more than 48 hours after a patient is admitted to the hospital

A

healthcare-associated infection

67
Q

What HAIs (healthcare-associated infection) are of greatest concern?

A

those that are multi drug-resistant
(EX: MSRA & VRE)

68
Q

What is a common HAI (healthcare-associated infection) that is a GI infection that causes diarrhea?

A

C. Diff (clostridium difficile colitis)

69
Q

What causes C. Diff and why is it difficult to control?

A

gram-positive bacillus; cannot be eliminated by routine asepsis methods

70
Q

Who are most susceptible to getting C. Diff?

A

patients on antibiotics

71
Q

What’s the difference between nosocomial infections and iatrogenic infections?

A

nosocomial: hospital acquired
iatrogenic: result from activities of physicians

72
Q

Who is most susceptible to nosocomial and iatrogenic infections?

A

-compromised patients
-medical personnel
-patients with flora issues

73
Q

Factors that encourage nosocomial infections:

A

-environment
-therapeutic regimen
-equipment
-contamination during medical procedures

74
Q

Factors increasing potential for nosocomial infections:

A

-age
-heredity
-nutritional status
-stress
-inadequate rest or exercise
-personal choice habits

75
Q

What are disease causing microorganisms present in human blood and are considered nosocomial?

A

blood-borne pathogens

76
Q

What is the most common cause of transmission of a blood-borne pathogen from patient to healthcare workers?

A

needle-stick injuries

77
Q

What are the 2 types of blood-borne pathogens that are a concern in a hospital setting?

A

HIV & HBV

78
Q

What is HIV responsible for?

A

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

79
Q

After exposure to HIV, how long can a person remain asymptomatic? How long can results of a blood test take to be positive for HIV antibodies?

A

10 years; up to 1 year

80
Q

How is hepatitis categorized?

A

A to E

81
Q

How are Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E transmitted?

A

through food and water contaminated with feces

82
Q

Which hepatitis viruses are blood-borne pathogens?

A

Hepatitis B, C, and D

83
Q

What is a co-infection of Hepatitis B?

A

Hepatitis D

84
Q

Which Hepatitis virus is more infectious than Hepatitis C?

A

Hepatitis B

85
Q

Which hepatitis virus is spread by contact with blood or blood products and leads to yellow skin color (jaundice)?

A

Hepatitis C

86
Q

When are blood tests positive after symptoms of Hepatitis develop?

A

2 to 6 weeks

87
Q

How long does it take for patients to recover from Hepatitis?

A

6 to 8 weeks; blood tests will always show they were exposed

88
Q

What are symptoms of hepatitis?

A

abdominal pain, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

89
Q

What should you never do with a used needle? *

A

recap it

90
Q

This is a contagious, airborne lung disease and preemployment screening is required for healthcare workers as well as after known exposure

A

tuberculosis (caused by m. tuberculosis)

91
Q

Historically, how were infectious diseases contained?

A

Quarantine: not allowed to leave the house and no one could enter until all members were well

92
Q

When hospitals were first instituted, what was done with infectious patients?

A

isolation in a single ward

93
Q

What is the current infection-control system and what is it designed to do?

A

standard precautions; reduce risk of transmission of infections from unrecognized sources of blood borne diseases and other pathogens in healthcare institutions

94
Q

Standard precautions includes transmission-based precautions for:

A

-airborne
-droplet
-contact

95
Q

The practice of biosafety in medical imaging has standard precautions that apply to:

A

-blood
-bodily fluids
-secretions & excretions (except sweat)
-non-intact skin
-mucous membrane

96
Q

Biosafety in medical imaging also include:

A

-hand washing
-gloving
-PPE
-non-needle recapping
-biospills

97
Q

This involves reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual

A

medical asepsis

98
Q

What are the 3 levels of medical asepsis?

A

-hand hygiene and other cleanliness measures
-disinfection (destroys a pathogen)
-sterilization (items treated with heat, gas, or chemicals to make them germ free)

99
Q

What are reasons we don’t wash hands?

A

-sinks inaccessible
-lack of time
-lack of role models
-concern about washing hands will irritate or dry hands out

100
Q

What is the easiest and most effective method to control the transmission of infections?

A

medically aseptic hand washing

101
Q

What do we wash our hands with?

A

antimicrobial soap

102
Q

Due to the lack of hand hygiene, what did the CDC do?

A

in 2002, CDC began recommending alcohol based hand rubs for 15 seconds

103
Q

What can’t an alcohol hand rub not destroy?

A

C. Diff and Bacillus Anthracis

104
Q

This reduces the incidence of airborne infections and the transfer of pathogens by fomites

A

cleaning

105
Q

As a part of standard precautions, the CDC recommends isolating patients based on:

A

transmission precautions

106
Q

Airborne precautions for pathogenic organisms that remain suspended in the air like TB, chicken pox, and measles include:

A

-the patient must be in a negative-pressure room
-you should wear a particulate respirator
-if the patient leaves the room, they should be wearing a particulate respirator

107
Q

This is designed to reduce the contact of large-particle droplets (more than 5 microns) that can come into contact with mucous membranes

A

droplet precautions

108
Q

What do droplet precautions prevent the transmission of?

A

diphtheria, pneumonia, influenza

109
Q

Unlike airborne precautions, droplet precautions require no _____

A

special air flow

110
Q

These are designed to reduce the risk of transmitting disease pathogens by either direct or indirect contact

A

contact precautions

111
Q

What do contact precautions prevent the transmission of?

A

MRSE, VRE, E. coli, C. Diff, Impetigo

112
Q

When should contact precautions be used?

A

when a virulent is spread by direct contact or indirect contact with a contaminated fomite

113
Q

There are designed to reduce the risk of transmitting pathogens by both airborne droplet nuclei and direct skin to skin contact

A

combination airborne and contact precautions

114
Q

Combination Airborne and Contact Precautions require wearing:

A

-gloves
-gown
-certain types of PPE

115
Q

What roles will each technologist take when radiographing an isolated patient?

A

-one has all patient contact (dirty tech)
-other has no patient contact and only handles equipment (clean tech)

116
Q

What is a benefit of having 2 technologists when radiographing an isolated patient?

A

reduces contamination of equipment, which is difficult to disinfect completely

117
Q

Compromised patients include _____, they may require a modified ______-

A

neonates, organ transplants, burn victims, and those receiving chemotherapy; surgical aseptic technique

118
Q

The process of creating and maintaining an area that is completely free of pathogens

A

surgical asepsis

119
Q

The complete destruction of all organisms and spores from equipment used to perform patient care or procedures

A

sterilization

120
Q

The immersion and soaking of clean objects in a bath of germicidal solution followed by a sterile water rinse; not recommended for surgical asepsis

A

chemical sterilization

121
Q

Device that provides steam sterilization under pressure; the most commonly used sterilization method

A

autoclaving

122
Q

Method that uses a mixture of gases heated to 135 degrees; used for items that cannot be autoclaved

A

conventional gas sterilizaiton

123
Q

Safer than conventional gas sterilization

A

gas plasma technology

124
Q

What method is used more in Great Britain and tropical countries?

A

dry heat

125
Q

Chemical indicators that change color when sterilization has occurs and used to identify whether a pack has been sterilized

A

sterility indicators

126
Q

Packs are sterile if:

A

-they are clean, dry, and unopened
-their expiration date has not been exceeded
-their sterility indicators have changed to a predetermined color, confirming sterilization

127
Q

Microorganism-free area prepared for the use of sterile supplies and equipment

A

sterile field

128
Q

The standard principles of surgical asepsis include:

A

-any sterile object or field touched by an unsterile object or person becomes contaminated
-never reach across a sterile field
-if you suspect an item is contaminated, discard it
-do not pass between the physician and the sterile field
-NEVER LEAVE A STERILE AREA UNATTENDED
-a one-inch border at the permitter of the sterile field is considered a “buffer zone” and is treated as if it were contaminated

129
Q

To drop sterile contents onto a sterile field, you should drop the contents gently onto the sterile field _______

A

about 6 inches above the field at a slight angle

130
Q

How many strokes are used to scrub the nails and skin for a surgical hand scrub?

A

nails - 30 strokes
10-20 strokes to each area of the skin, which usually takes about five minutes

131
Q

How do you clean the fingernails when doing surgical hand rub?

A

clean fingernails under running water using disposable nail cleaner

132
Q

what is the difference between closed gloving and open gloving?

A

closed gloving is used when a gown is necessary, open gloving is used when a gown is not necessary

133
Q

Acceptable adult temperature range

A

36 degrees to 38 degrees Celsius (96.8 to 100.4 F)

134
Q

Acceptable adult respiration range

A

12 to 20 breaths per minute

135
Q

Acceptable adult pulse range

A

60 to 100 bpm

136
Q

What is the normal systolic range?

A

95-119

137
Q

What is the normal diastolic range?

A

60-79

138
Q

What are the 2 stages of hypertension?

A

Stage 1: systolic ranges from 140 to 159 mm Hg; diastolic ranges 90 to 99 mm Hg
Stage 2: (the most severe form) systolic reading is 160 mm Hg or greater and diastolic is 100 mm Hg or greater

Patient Care (5 decks)

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