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Patient Care > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who first discovered X-rays?

A

Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

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2
Q

When did Roentgen discover X-rays?

A

November 8, 1895

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3
Q

When and who was the first x-ray death do to exposure?

A

Charles Dally (1904) (Thomas Edison’s assistant)

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4
Q

What was the first device to produce x-rays?

A

Crookes tube

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5
Q

Who developed interrutperless transformers?

A

H.C. Snook

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6
Q

Who designed the Coolidge tube?

A

William Coolidge

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7
Q

Who developed the first fluoroscope?

A

Thomas Edison

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8
Q

When x-ray photons exit the patient and strike the IR, this “invisible” image is created:

A

latent image

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9
Q

This is the image that is viewed after processing (viewed on a monitor)

A

manifest image

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10
Q

Four basic requirements for the production of x-rays:

A

-a vacuum (x-ray tube)
-electron source (filament)
-a target for the electrons (anode)
-a high potential difference (voltage) between the electron source and the target

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11
Q

What is the primary source of occupational exposure?

A

scatter radiation

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12
Q

Radiation travels in:

A

a straight line at the speed of light

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13
Q

True or False: radiation does not affect photographic emulsions

A

False

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14
Q

When radiation affects biological tissue, what is occurring?

A

ionizes atoms

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15
Q

True or False: radiation cannot be refracted by a lens

A

true

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16
Q

Can radiation be detected by human sense?

A

no, it cannot

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17
Q

What is the response to the strain of dealing with constant demands and problems of people under our care?

A

burnout

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18
Q

What does appropriate use of equipment demonstrate?

A

ethical behavior

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19
Q

What is personal morality based on?

A

lessons of right or wrong, often taught at an early age

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20
Q

What does group morality refer to?

A

principles that apply specifically to certain groups of people

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21
Q

What is a sensitivity to others that allows you to meet their needs constructively?

A

empathy

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22
Q

Where are the moral duties of physicians defined?

A

The Hippocratic Oath (Ancient Greece)

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23
Q

What is the moral principles that govern a person’s behavior or the conducting of an activity?

A

ethics

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24
Q

What is an example of group morality for today’s health professionals?

A

duties to provide due car and to maintain confidentiality of patient information

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25
Q

Who created The Standard of Ethics for Radiographers?

A

ARRT and ASRT

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25
Q

What are the two parts of the Standard of Ethics?

A

Code of Ethics and Rules of Ethics

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26
Q

Explain the difference between the Code of Ethics and Rules of Ethics:

A

-the code of ethics is an aspirational document
-rules of ethics are enforceable, mandatory standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct

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27
Q

Nonconsequentialism vs Consequentialism is a class debate over:

A

wether “the end justifies the means”

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28
Q

The belief that an action is right if the outcome is good

A

Consequentialism (consequences)

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29
Q

What is the ethical theory that the rightness and wrongness of conduct is determined solely by the goodness or badness of the consequence

A

Nonconsequentialism (nature of action)

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30
Q

The ethics of care reflect a viewpoint that could be considered situational ethics. What does this theory recognize?

A

right actions for a patient in any given situation may be wrong for other patients or other circumstances.

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31
Q

Related to care ethics, this theory places value on virtues (admirable character traits such as caring, faithfulness, trustworthiness, compassion and courage)

A

virtue-based ethics

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32
Q

Rights-based ethics emphasizes the:

A

individuals rights of persons

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33
Q

What is a potential conflict of rights-based ethics?

A

what professionals see as their duty and what patients claim as their rights

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34
Q

What are the principle-based ethics?

A

use of moral principles as a basis for defending a chosen path of action in resolving ethical dilemma

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35
Q

What are the six principles of principle-based ethics?

A

-Beneficence: actions that bring about good are considered right
-Nonmaleficence: an obligation not to conflict harm
-Veracity: an obligation to truth
-Fidelity: an obligation to faithful
-Justice: an obligation to fairness
-Autonomy: respecting the independence of others, and action with self-reliance

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36
Q

This is the process of evaluating situations in which the correct action is in question?

A

ethical analysis

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37
Q

What are the four basic steps for Ethical Analysis?

A

-identify the problem
-develop alternate solutions
-select the best solution
-defend your selection

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38
Q

What are requirements for informed consent?

A

-patient must be competent
-only parents/legal guardians can sign for a minor
-consent form must be signed before procedure
-can be revoked at any time

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39
Q

Informed consent is necessary for any procedure that involves:

A

substantial risk or is considered experimental

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40
Q

What are two types of crimes?

A

felonies and misdemeanors

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41
Q

What is a serious crime that can be punished by imprisonment?

A

felony

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42
Q

What is a less significant crime and is usually punishable by a fine or by imprisonment, usually in a jail for less than 1 year?

A

misdemeanor

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43
Q

What is a civil wrong, committed against a person or their property?

A

tort

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44
Q

What are the two categories of torts?

A

intentional misconduct and unintentional

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45
Q

Intentional Torts include:

A

-assault: threat of touching
-battery: unlawful touching of a person
-false imprisonment: unjustifiable detention of a person
-invasion of privacy: intrusion into a patients private affairs, disclose patient information
-libel: false accusation written or printed
-slander: any word spoken with malice that are untrue

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46
Q

Unintentional Misconduct includes:

A

negligence and malpractice

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47
Q

What is the neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution?

A

negligence

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48
Q

What type of misconduct is it when a patient injury is caused by professional negligence

A

malpractice

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49
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitur

A

the thing speaks for itself

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50
Q

Respondent Superior

A

let the master answer

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51
Q

Vicarious Liability “borrowed servant”

A

liability falls on one person or agency for the actions of another

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52
Q

Why is charting important?

A

because it can substantiate or refute charges of negligence or malpractice and can also serve as a record of behavior

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53
Q

What is the Radiology Information System?

A

documentation and recording system for imaging

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54
Q

This requires radiographers to put aside all personal prejudice and emotional bias, rendering services to humanity with full respect for the dignity of humankind:

A

The ASRT Code of Ethics

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55
Q

What are examples of non-verbal communication? (can be interpreted based on culture)

A

-eye contact
-touch
-appearance

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56
Q

What are important listening skills?

A

-more than waiting for your turn to speak
-give speaker full attention and focus
-respond appropriately

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57
Q

_______ cues communicate attitude

A

nonverbal

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58
Q

Verbal skills include:

A

the ability to use language & content that is appropriate for your patient

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59
Q

An indication of a clear understanding of the message:

A

validation of communication

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60
Q

_____ interferes with our ability to process information accurately and appropriately

A

stress

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61
Q

What are ways to improve communication in a crisis?

A

-lower your voice, speak slowly and clearly
-be nonjudgmental in both verbal and nonverbal cues
-don’t allow another’s inappropriate actions or speech change your response
-request confirmation of listener’s understanding

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62
Q

This is a process in which healthcare professionals consciously influences a client to a better understanding through verbal or nonverbal communications:

A

therapeutic communication

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63
Q

What is an advantage of therapeutic communication?

A

it encourages a patient to express feelings and ideas

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64
Q

What is subjective data?

A

what a patient tells you (history)

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65
Q

What is objective data?

A

what you see/observe

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66
Q

What is AIDET?

A

acknowledge, introduce, duration, explanation, thank you

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67
Q

Alternatives that are acceptable to the healthcare professional and provide patient with a sense of participation in their care:

A

valid choices

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68
Q

How do you determine patient’s ability to cooperate?

A

combining observation with therapeutic communication

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69
Q

What are examples of special circumstances that may affect communication?

A

language barrier, hearing impairment, deafness, impaired vision, inability to speak, impaired mental function, altered states of consciousness

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70
Q

Federal law guarantees that patients have the right to _______

A

effective communication

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71
Q

What are useful tips for communicating with patients who have hearing loss?

A

-get the patient’s attention before speaking
-face the person
-hearing loss is frequently in the upper register so speak lower & louder
-speak clearly at a moderate pace & do not shout
-avoid noisy background
-rephrase when you are not understood
-be patient

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72
Q

When using an interpreter, where should you look?

A

at the patient so they don’t feel excluded

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73
Q

Certified interpreters are usually necessary for ______

A

effective communication

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74
Q

How can you assist a patient with vision impairment/loss?

A

some will prefer you guide them and others will prefer a description of surroundings (ask their preference)

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75
Q

A deficit or loss of language function in which comprehension or expression of words is impaired because of injury to language centers in the brain is known as the _______

A

aphasia

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76
Q

When dealing with a patient in an altered state of consciousness:

A

-important to communicate as if the patient can hear and respond
-constant observation is required to avoid accidents
-can’t rely on patient to remember or listen to instructions

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77
Q

A discriminatory attitude toward the elderly that includes a belief that all elderly are ill, disabled, worthless, and unattractive is known as the ______

A

ageism

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78
Q

Neonate and infant (birth to 1 year)

A

watch tone and touch

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79
Q

Toddler (1-2 years)

A

2-3 word sentences, may need to immobilize

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80
Q

Preschooler (3-5 years)

A

conversation, use praise

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81
Q

School Age (6-12 years)

A

give honest, concrete information

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82
Q

Adolescent (13-18 years)

A

can still be emotional during distress, show empathy

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83
Q

Young Adult (19-45 years)

A

involve them in the decision making process

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84
Q

Middle Adult (46-64 years)

A

onset of chronic issues, memory issues, hearing loss, sight changes start to appear, involved in decisions

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85
Q

Late Adult (65-79 years) & Old Adult (80+)

A

can have dementia, Alzheimer’s, allow them to make choices when possible

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86
Q

Kubler-Ross Stages of Grief

A
  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
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87
Q

Provide complete health care at the cost of premium and copay:

A

Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO)

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88
Q

Private physicians/hospitals provide private services while also providing care through insurance plans that operate as HMOs and PPOs:

A

managed care systems

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89
Q

System that offers care at reduced rates within an established network of providers:

A

preferred provider organization (PPO)

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90
Q

What are the Federal Health Insurances?

A

-affordable care act (ACA or “obamacare”)
-medicare (coverage for 65 and older)
-medicaid (coverage for indigent patients)

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91
Q

What are the professional organizations for radiographers?

A

-American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)
-International Society of Radiographers and Radiological Technologists (ISRRT)
-American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT)

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92
Q

This is the oldest and largest national professional association for technologists in the radiologic sciences:

A

American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)

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93
Q

This is one of more than 70 national organizations of technologists around the world:

A

International Society of Radiographers and Radiological Technologists (ISRRT)

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94
Q

This organization tests new graduates for skills and set standards for what needs to be done in clinical and how students are taught:

A

American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT)

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95
Q

This organization developed a written statement that describes the radiographer’s duties and responsibilities:

A

American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)

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96
Q

What defines the clinical practice, technical activities and professional responsibilities of imaging and therapeutic professionals?

A

The Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy (document)

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97
Q

This organization conducts qualifying examinations that entitle applicants who pass exams to use the designation “Registered Technologist” RT in association with their name:

A

American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT)

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98
Q

This organization accredits hospitals:

A

The Joint Commission (TJC)

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99
Q

This organization accredits educational programs in imaging sciences:

A

The Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JCERT)

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100
Q

Most hospital fires are caused by:

A
  1. spontaneous combustion
  2. open flames
  3. cigarette smokers
  4. electricity
101
Q

Spontaneous Combustion

A

-chemical reactions near a flammable material
-infrequent cause of hospital fires
-concern regarding recycling hazardous materials & regulatory requirements for safe disposal of wastes

102
Q

Oxygen supports:

A

combustion

103
Q

What is a concern in radiology department because of electrical equipment?

A

electrical failures

104
Q

How to be prepare for a fire:

A

-know the fire plan of your facility
-know evacuation route and alternative route
-locate fire alarms, extinguishers, and fire doors/exits

105
Q

What is RACE? (4 essential steps to take if you discover a fire)

A

rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish

106
Q

What is PASS? (How to properly operate a fire extinguisher)

A

pull, aim, squeeze, sweep

107
Q

What are the types of fires?

A

class a, class b, class c

108
Q

Class A fires involve:

A

solid combustibles such as paper and wood

109
Q

Class B fires involve:

A

flammable liquids or gases

110
Q

Class C fires involve:

A

electrical equipment or wiring

111
Q

Dry chemical extinguishers are suitable for _____ classes of fire

A

all 3

112
Q

_____ access to the area of a chemical spill and evaluate

A

limit

113
Q

Healthcare facilities have ______ and _______ to follow in determining appropriate action in the event of a chemical spill

A

written policies, procedures

114
Q

OSHA requires this for all hazardous materials be on file and easily accessible to personnel:

A

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)

115
Q

This is a first aid station for chemical eye splashes that spray water into the eye from a convenient height:

A

eyewash station

116
Q

This is the study of the human body in relation to the working environment:

A

ergonomics

117
Q

Workplace safety: things to watch out for:

A

-musculoskeletal disorders
-repetitive motion injuries (RMIs)
-repetitive strain injuries (RSIs)
-cumulative trauma disorders (CTDs)

118
Q

Body Mechanics is the principles of:

A

proper body alignment, movement and balance

119
Q

What are the rules of body mechanics?

A
  1. provide a broad base of support
  2. work at a comfortable height
  3. when lifting, bend your knees and keep your back straight
  4. keep your load well balanced and close to your body
  5. roll or push a heavy object. avoid pulling or lifting
120
Q

The point where the mass of the body is concentrated:

A

center of gravity

121
Q

What does it mean if a patient is ambulatory?

A

the patient can walk

122
Q

Moving patients from one place to another in a hospital requires _____

A

wheeled transport

123
Q

This is used if a patient can sit upright safely:

A

wheelchair

124
Q

If a patient is too weak to sit-up, use this for transport:

A

stretcher

125
Q

Cribs are used to transport:

A

small children

126
Q

Incubators are used to transport:

A

infants

127
Q

Bed to Wheelchair Transfer position of bed:

A

lower to wheelchair level and elevate head of the bed

128
Q

In Bed to Wheelchair Transfer, wheelchair should be:

A

positioned 45 degrees to the bed with wheels locked and footrests out of the way

129
Q

In Bed to Wheelchair Transfer, when the patient is in the supine position how can you assist them so that they are sitting with feet off the bed?

A

place one arm under the knees and the other under the patient’s shoulders. In a single, smooth motion, raise and turn the patient

130
Q

In Bed to Wheelchair Transfer, how can you help the patient stand from the bed?

A

instruct the patient to place hands on your shoulders and put arms under their armpits

131
Q

What is a transfer belt which provides a secure hold and should be used with weak, unsteady patients?

A

gait belt

132
Q

When do falls most commonly occur?

A

when the patient sits in the wheelchair

133
Q

Anxiety may be caused by:

A

-fear about possible diagnosis
-effect of illness on family
-concerns over modesty

134
Q

Reassurance is provided by:

A

professional touch and attitude, details of procedure

135
Q

Psychological needs include:

A

water and elimination

136
Q

Before giving a patient water, what should you do?

A

-check the chart to ensure fluids are allowed
-make sure patient isn’t NPPO (nothing by. mouth)
-record amount
-offer straw

137
Q

You should ask a patient if the restroom is needed before:

A

beginning procedures

138
Q

You should check the patient chart for special instructions such as:

A

-specific collection container (might need sample)
-recording input/output

139
Q

If a patient has a urinary catheter, what must be kept in mind?

A

collection bag must be kept below bladder to prevent back flow and contamination of bladder

140
Q

What kind of position is similar to oblique but patient supports self without a sponge, same knee and elbow bent, rear end raised

A

Sims Position

141
Q

What type of position has head raised well above feet

A

Fowlers Position

142
Q

What type of position has head raised slightly above feet

A

Semi-Fowler Position

143
Q

What position has the patient’s feet and legs are higher than the head?

A

Trendelenburg Position

144
Q

What position has the patient lying face down with hips bent so that the knees and chest rest on the table?

A

Knee-chest Position

145
Q

What position has patient lying on back with legs raised and feet in stirrups

A

Lithotomy Position

146
Q

What should you consider when caring for Elderly and Debilitated patients?

A

-increased fall risk
-decreased subcutaneous fat layer
-fragile skin

147
Q

What are restraints and immobilization for?

A

-used to ensure patient’s safety
-prevent motion during imaging exams

148
Q

Safety straps and side raise are used on:

A

beds & stretchers

149
Q

Rails on beds should ______

A

always be up

150
Q

Restraints should be applied by institutional policy when applied to an adult patient and MUST also be ordered by a _______

A

physician

151
Q

Temporary radiology immobilization ______ require a doctor’s order

A

does not

152
Q

TJC (The Joint Commission) requires:

A

less restrictive methods used first

153
Q

Effective method of avoiding the use of restraints:

A

therapeutic communication

154
Q

Restraint/Immobilization Application:

A

-patient must be allowed as much mobility as possible
-padded to prevent injury to the skin
-maintain normal anatomic position
-knots that will not become tighter with movement
-can be removed quickly

155
Q

Types of Restraints:

A

-limb holders
-ankle/wrist
-vest
-waist

156
Q

Radiology immobilization is used to:

A

reduce radiation exposure

157
Q

When is it appropriate to apply restraints:

A

-trauma
-pediatric
-geriatric
-uncooperative

158
Q

To help with patient comfort, sponges or cushions can be strategically placed for support:

A

-heat
-under knees
-under the head to help with nausea
-during oblique projections

159
Q

What are causes of issues related with skin care:

A

-immobility: blood flow restricted
-pressure
-shearing force: back and forth movement
-urine and fecal material

160
Q

What are the early signs of issues with the skin?

A

-blanching (pale) & coldness: ischemia
-heat & redness: reactive hyperemia
-tissue necrosis (dying tissue)

161
Q

Which patient’s are susceptible to these skin concerns?

A

-malnourished
-elderly
-chronically ill

162
Q

Common areas for skin issues:

A

scapula, sacrum, trochanters, knees, heels

163
Q

How can you prevent skin issues?

A

-provide assistance in moves
-change position
-keep pressure off of susceptible areas
-clean and dry
-prevent skin abrasions in transfers

164
Q

What is also termed battered child syndrome and non accidental trauma (NAT)?

A

child abuse

165
Q

Bruises, pressure marks, broken bones, abrasions, and burns on an elderly patient may indicate:

A

elder abuse

166
Q

What are the essential skills of patient assessment?

A

-observation
-evaluation
-assessment
-communication

167
Q

When taking the patient’s history, what are questioning techniques you can use?

A

-open-ended questions
-facilitation (say yes or nod)
-silence
-reflection or reiteration
-clarification or probing
-summarization

168
Q

What are the Sacred Seven (Elements of taking a history)?

A

-onset
-duration/chronology
-quality of symptoms
-severity of pain
-what aggravates/alleviates

169
Q

How can you assess the patient’s current physical status?

A

-check the chart
-physical assessment
-vital signs

170
Q

When performing a physical assessment what should you look for in regards to skin color or temperature?

A

-cyanotic: bluish coloration in skin
-touch (contact with hands can help make physical observations)
-redness

171
Q

When performing a physical assessment what should you look for in regards to Level of Consciousness (LOC)?

A

-alert and conscious
-drowsy but responsive
-unconscious but reactive to painful stimuli
-comatose

172
Q

When performing a physical assessment what should you look for in regards to breathing?

A

changes could signal major changes in a patient’s condition

173
Q

Homestasis

A

the bodies internal environment which maintain homeostasis is the heartbeat, blood pressure, temperature, and respiratory rate

174
Q

What describes the bodies maintenance of heat production and heat loss controlled by hypothalamus?

A

thermoregulation

175
Q

What equipment can be used to take a patient’s temperature?

A

digital, tympanic temp probe, temporal artery thermometer

176
Q

The pulse is measured in:

A

beats per minute (bpm)

177
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

rapid heart rate

178
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

abnormally slow heartbeat

179
Q

How do you check for a pulse?

A

-hand hygiene before and after
-never use thumb
-normally will check radial pulse or carotid
-count pulse for 30 seconds if it is regular, 60 seconds if it is irregular

180
Q

When counting the number of breaths per minute, what counts as a full cycle?

A

-Inspiration (breath in) the diaphragm contracts downward
-Expiration (breath out) the diaphragm relaxes to a dome position

181
Q

What is the normal range for respiration?

A

12-20 breaths per minute

182
Q

What is bradypnea?

A

slow breathing, fewer than 12 breaths/minute

183
Q

What is tachypnea?

A

fast breathing, more than 20 breaths/minute

184
Q

What measures blood pressure?

A

sphygmomanometer

185
Q

Blood pressure is expressed as:

A

systolic over diastolic

186
Q

The systolic phase is the:

A

working phase of the heart (contraction)

187
Q

The diastolic phase is:

A

the relaxation phase

188
Q

What are the normal ranges for blood pressure?

A

Systolic = 95-119 mmHg
Diastolic = 60-79 mmHg

189
Q

What is Hypertension?

A

high blood pressure

190
Q

What are the two stages of hypertension?

A

-Stage 1: 140-150 mmHg systolic and 90-99 mmHg
- Stage 2: 160 mmHg or greater systolic and 100 mmHg or greater diastolic

191
Q

What is Hypotension?

A

low blood pressure (may indicate shock)

192
Q

What is the range for hypotension?

A

less than 90 mmHg for systolic or less than 50 mmHg for diastolic

193
Q

When taking blood pressure, you must effectively coordinate:

A

what you’re hearing with what you’re seeing

194
Q

What is mmHg?

A

millimeters of mercure

195
Q

What is the aneroid sphygmomanometer dial?

A

blood pressure dial

196
Q

The thumping sounds you hear when taking blood pressure are called:

A

Korotkoff sounds

197
Q

The first thump you hear is recorded as the:

A

systolic pressure

198
Q

The last thump you hear is recorded as the:

A

diastolic pressure

199
Q

When pumping the sphygmomanometer, it is common to pump to:

A

160-180

200
Q

Deflation of the sphygmomanometer should be at:

A

2-3 mmHg per second

201
Q

Oxygen levels are checked using:

A

pulse oximeter

202
Q

Because oxygen is considered a drug, it requires:

A

doctor’s order

203
Q

Oxygen is delivered by this quantity:

A

liters per minute (LPM)

204
Q

What are delivery methods for oxygen?

A

nasal cannula, simple face mask, non-rebreathing mask, high flow mask, tent

205
Q

This delivers high amounts of humidity and oxygen and often used for pediatric patients:

A

tent

206
Q

This high flow mask has an attached reservoir that fills with 100% oxygen and has a one way valve to prevent exhaled gas from being inhaled (10 L/min):

A

non-rebreathing mask

207
Q

A venturi mask that can deliver precise oxygen rates of 34-60%, recommended for COPD:

A

high-flow mask

208
Q

Used for longer term use, it is most common and delivers at a rate of 1 to 6 L/min for adults, it can provide 24-45% oxygen:

A

nasal cannula

209
Q

This is used for short therm therapy and can be somewhat uncomfortable, it delivers oxygen and humidity at a flow rate of 6 to 10 L/min and delivers 40-60% oxygen:

A

simple face mask

210
Q

Oxygen depresses the respiratory drive and the patient stops breathing so high flow rates of oxygen are toxic to:

A

COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) patients

211
Q

COPD patient’s respiration is controlled by higher levels of _____

A

carbon dioxide in the blood

212
Q

This places an ET tube into the trachea and delivers high concentrations of oxygen to the patient:

A

intubation

213
Q

Ventilator-mechanical respirator controls:

A

rate, volume, oxygen content

214
Q

What are the organs of the respiratory system?

A

nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs-alveoli

215
Q

This is a surgical opening through the anterior of the neck into the trachea:

A

tracheostomy

216
Q

When transporting patients with oxygen:

A

-never remove patients oxygen to transport them
-portable oxygen tanks can be used
-make sure you set the rate as the same the patient is on
-always check the amount of O2 in the tank so you don’t run out and compromise the patients care

217
Q

What is the average heart rate in adults?

A

60-100 bpm

218
Q

Tachycardia rate:

A

greater than 100 bpm

219
Q

What are common laboratory tests for patient assessment?

A

Complete blood count (CBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate, blood-clotting assessment, blood chemistry tests

220
Q

What is a pulse oximeter?

A

an external monitor placed on the patient’s finger or earlobe to measure the oxygen saturation level in the blood and pulse rate

221
Q

What is the arterial catheter?

A

one comprehensive way to monitor cardiac activity; provides continuous measurement of heart rate and blood pressure

222
Q

What is the device that measures the electrical activity of the heart; displays the information graphically in the form of waves on a paper tracing or on a monitor?

A

Electrocardiograph monitor (EKG or ECG)

223
Q

What is the device for recording of the electrical activity of the brain?

A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

224
Q

Cardiac output is determined by two key factors:

A

-heart rate
-left ventricular output (stroke volume)

225
Q

Electrocardiography is an electric assessment of the heart’s ability to:

A

perform vital function

226
Q

EKG and ECG can be used _____

A

synonymously

227
Q

What is the function of the heart?

A

to pump blood through vessels to vital organs and tissues

228
Q

The heart generally requires a systolic pressure greater than:

A

90 mmHg

229
Q

What are the four heart chambers?

A

left atrium, right atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle

230
Q

What is a cardiac cycle?

A

cardiac events that occur from the beginning of one ventricular contraction (systole) to the beginning of the next

231
Q

What two principal cell types is the heart composed of?

A

-working cardiac cells (myocardium)
-specialized neural conductive cells

232
Q

Cardiac tissue is unique in its ability to generate its own action potential:

A

polarization, depolarization, repolarization

233
Q

The Sinoatrial node (SA node) is:

A

pacemaker of the heart

234
Q

What does the cardiac conduction system consist of?

A

SA Node, Atrioventricular node (AV node), Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

235
Q

What do abnormalities of the heart’s conduction system cause?

A

arrythmia

236
Q

These cells originate in and transmit electrical impulses across the myocardium and regulate the rhythm of a cardiac cycle:

A

specialized neural cells

237
Q

Specialized neural cells are independent of:

A

nerves and hormones

238
Q

What does an ECG tracing represent?

A

an electrical graphic display of changes in cardiac membrane potentials as a function of time

239
Q

What is the P Wave?

A

represents depolarization of the atrial muscle cells

240
Q

What is QRS Complex?

A

represents depolarization of ventricular muscle cells

241
Q

What is the T Wave?

A

depolarization of ventricular muscle

242
Q

What are common arrhythmias?

A

-bradycardia
-tachycardia
-fibrillation (A-fib and V-fib)
-PVC
-ventricular tachycardia
-ventricular fibrillation

243
Q

What does Normal Sinus Rhythm look like?

A

(CHECK WORD DOC)

244
Q

What does Bradycardia look like?

A

(CHECK WORD DOC)

245
Q

What does Tachycardia look like?

A

(CHECK WORD DOC)

246
Q

What does A-Fib look like?

A

(CHECK WORD DOC)

247
Q

What does V-Fib look like?

A

(CHECK WORD DOC)

248
Q

What does ventricular tachycardia look like?

A

(CHECK WORD DOC)

249
Q

What are treatments for arrhythmia?

A

-antiarrhythmic medications
-cardioversion therapy
-cardiac surgery
-cardiac ablation
-implantable devices

250
Q

What are the types of implantable devices?

A

-cardiac pacemaker
-implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)

251
Q

Treatments of arrhythmia are varied on the basis of:

A

severity and location of the disorder

Patient Care (5 decks)

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