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Anatomy and Physiology 2140 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two populations of proteins

A

Intergral and peripheral

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2
Q

Firmly inserted into the lipid bilayer most are transmembrane

A

Intergral proteins

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3
Q

-Attach loosely to intergral proteins
some are enzymes
many are glycoproteins

A

Peripheral Proteins

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4
Q

-All living organisms are composed of these
- human body has trillions
- about 200 different types

A

Cells

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5
Q

What are characteristics of erythrocytes

A

-red blood cells
- play a crucial role in oxygen and carbon dioxide transport
- no replication

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6
Q

What are characteristics of Fibroblast

A
  • actively mitotic cells that forms the fibers of connective tissue
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7
Q
  • cells that connect body parts, form linings or transport gases cells
A

Epithelial Cells

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8
Q

cells that move organs and body parts

A

skeletal muscle cells

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9
Q

Cell that stores nutrients and is a triglyceride that stores long term energy

A

fat cell “mr.store it

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10
Q

Cell of reproduction

A

Sperm

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11
Q

cell that fights disease

A

Macrophage

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12
Q

cell that gathers information and controls body functions

A

Nerve cells

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13
Q

basic components of cells

A
  • Plasma membrane
  • Cytoplasm
  • Nucleus
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14
Q

Excitable cells that conduct electrical current

A

smooth muscle cells and nerve cells

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15
Q

outer lining of a cell
- barrier
- communication
- secretion

A

plasma membrane

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16
Q
  • requires energy
  • moves molecules against conc. gradient
A

Active transport

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17
Q

Uses a membrane pump, directly fueled by hydrolysis of ATP, to move molecules against a concentration gradient
e.g. Na+/K pump (sodium potassium pump

A

1 active transport (primary)

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18
Q

There is always more ______ outside the cell than in

A

Sodium

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19
Q

There is always more _________ inside the cell than out

A

Potassium

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20
Q

Molecules in low concentration, hitch a ride with the molecules perviously pumped across the membrane by 1 active transport.
e.g. glucose rides with sodium ions as they diffuse down conc. gradient.

A

2 Active transport (secondary)

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21
Q

can be used to transport large particles and macromolecules and requires energy

A

Vesicular transport

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22
Q

Plasma membrane in fold and pinches off inside cell.

A

Endocytosis

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23
Q

what are the three types of endocytosis

A
  • Phagocytosis
  • Receptor-mediated endocytosis
    Pinocytosis
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24
Q

-cell eating
- forms phagosomes
- fused with lysosome and contents digested
- used by macrophages and WBCs

A

Phagocytosis

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25
Q

-cell drinking
- Occurs in most cells
- method of absorbing nutrients
- plasma membrane enfolds

A

Pinocytosis

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26
Q
  • very selective mechanism for taking molecules inside the cell
  • molecules that are taken up this way: insulin, cholesterol, iron
  • “lock and key”
A

receptor-mediated endocytosis

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27
Q

Substances inside the cell move outside

A

exocytosis

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28
Q

what are examples of cells that practice exocytosis

A
  1. hormones
  2. neurotransmitters
  3. mucus secretion
  4. cell waste
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29
Q

the membrane bound vesicle migrates to the plasma membrane

A

Phase 1 of exocytosis

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30
Q

Proteins at the vesicle surface (v-SNAREs) bind with t-SNAREs (plasma membrane protein)

A

Phase 2 of exocytosis

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31
Q

the vesicle and plasma membrane fuse and pore opens up

A

phase 3 of exocytosis

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32
Q

vesicle contents are released to the cell exterior

A

phase 4 of exocytosis (final)

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33
Q

-region between plasma membrane and nucleus
- where 90% of cell activity occurs

A

Cytoplasm

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34
Q

What is the cytoplasm composed of

A

cytosol (fluid)
organelles
molecules
pigments

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35
Q

specialized cellular organs each performing its own job

A

cytoplasmic organelles

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36
Q

power plant that makes ATP
- glucose goes in, ATP comes out

A

Mitochondria

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37
Q

Fluid + organelles =

A

Cytoplasm

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38
Q

What are the genetic disease that are only inherited through the maternal line because of an error in mitochondrial DNA (mDNA)

A
  1. Myoclonic Epilepsy
  2. Lebers hereditary neuropathy (causes blindness)
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39
Q
  • Are granules of protein and ribosomal RNA
    -Site of protein synthesis
  • some are attached to ER and some float freely in cytoplasm
  • “the chef”
A

Ribosomes

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40
Q

Interconnected tubes and parallel membranes
- occupy most of cytoplasm

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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41
Q

Covered in ribosomes which constantly attach and detach
- the attached ribosomes assemble all proteins secreted from cell
- most abundant secretory cells (liver cells)

A

Rough ER

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42
Q

what cells produce most blood proteins and are responsible for
- cholesterol synthesis
- steroid hormone production
- detoxification

A

Liver cells

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43
Q
  • NO role in protein sythesis
  • tubule network containing intergral protein enzymes that catalyze :
    - lipid metabolism
    - cholesterol synthesis
    - Detoxification
A

Smooth ER

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44
Q

Bags of powerful digestive enzymes acid hydrolyses called oxidases and catalases

A

Lysosomes

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45
Q

pH of 5.0 and can degrade bacteria, viruses, and toxins, worn out organelles through phagocytes

A

Lysosomes

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46
Q

What breaks down bone to release calcium into the blood

A

Lysosomes

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47
Q

Look like lysosomes.
- like to go after free radicals : highly reactive molecules with an unpairs electron in the outer orbital
- Antioxidants help these

A

Peroxisomes

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48
Q

example of a free radical

A

Superoxide anion

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49
Q

A series of stacked and flattened membranes
a traffic director for cellular proteins

A

Golgi Apparatus

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50
Q

Modifies, concentrates, and packages proteins and fats made in the ER

A

Golgi apparatus

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51
Q

The control center of the cell
- contains all of the instructions ( encoded in DNA) to build most of the body’s proteins

A

Nucleus

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52
Q

Transcribing the DNA into mRNA in the nucleus

A

Transcription

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53
Q

Translation

A

Translating the message into something that can be understood in the cytoplasm
- mRNA in the cytoplasm is read by the ribosomes

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54
Q

what is the stop codon that the ribosome reaches that causes translation to stop

A

UAA

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55
Q

essential amino acids

A
  1. Histidine
  2. Isoleucine
  3. Lysine
  4. Methoionine
    5 .phenylalanine
  5. Threonine
  6. Tryptophan
  7. Valine
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56
Q

Non-Essential amino acids

A
  1. Alanine
  2. Arginine
  3. Asparagine
  4. Aspartic acid
  5. Cysteine
  6. Glutamic acid
  7. Glutamine
  8. Glycine
  9. Proline
  10. Serine
  11. Tyrosine
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57
Q

A disease that results from a mutation in our genetic code or DNA. (spelling mistake in the code)

A

Genetic Disease

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58
Q

Why does a dysfunctional protein causes a genetic disease?

A

Proteins carry out most of the cells activities and malfunctioning protein will affect the cells ability to carry out certain processes and therefore its ability to function properly.

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59
Q

Examples of Genetic diseases?

A
  • Sickle Cell anemia
  • Huntington’s disease
  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Hemophilia
  • Breast Cancer
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60
Q

at least 200 different types and are specialized to perform different functions

A

Cells

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61
Q

Group of cells similar in structure and functions

A

Tissue

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62
Q

What are the four Primary tissue types?

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Connective
  3. Muscle
  4. Control
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63
Q

Internal communication tissue that is found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves

A

Nervous tissue

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64
Q

Contracts to cause movement and is found in the muscles that are attached to bones, muscles of the heart, and muscle of the wall of hollow organs

A

Muscle tissue - Skeletal, Cardiac, Smooth

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65
Q

Forms boundaries between different enviroments, protects, secrets, absorb, and filters.

A

Epithelial tissue

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66
Q

What tissue lines the digestive tract organs/ other organs, glands (pancreas) and skin surface ( epidermis)

A

Epithelial Tissue

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67
Q

Supports, protects, and binds other tissues together.

A

Connective tissue

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68
Q

Where is connective tissue found?

A
  • bones
  • tendons
  • fat and other soft padding tissue
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69
Q

Collection of tissue that have a specialized function
- most have 4 types of tissue

A

Organ

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70
Q

What are Epithelial Cells

A

Cover the body surface and line body cavities

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71
Q

What are the three types of epithelial

A
  1. cutaneous
  2. Mucous
  3. Serous
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72
Q

Wet - most secret mucous - line body cavities that open to the exterior

A

Mucous epithelia

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73
Q

Dry - skin - protects

A

Cutaneous epithelia

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74
Q

Wet - secret serous fluid, a lubricating fluid - lines that closed ventral body cavity

A

Serous Epithelia

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75
Q

Peritoneum

A

Wraps around organs

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76
Q

What are the functions of epithelial cells

A
  • Protection —> Skin
  • Absorption —> DIgestive tract
  • Filtration —> Kidney
  • Excretion —> Kidney
  • Secretion —> Glands
  • Sensation —> Skin
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77
Q

what tissues is a single layer of flattened cells with dics shaped central nuclei and sparse cytoplasm; the simples of the epithelia and are found in the air sacs of the lungs

A

Simple Squamous

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78
Q

What tissue is a single layer of cube-like cells with large, spherical central nuclei and are found in the Kidneys ?

A

Simple Cuboidal

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79
Q

what tissue is a single layer of tall cells with round to oval nuclei and are found in the intestines?

A

Simple Columnar

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80
Q

What tissue is a single layer of cells of differing heights, some not reaching the free surface with cilia and are found in the respiratory tract (trachea)

A

Pseudo-stratified columnar

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81
Q

protects underlying tissues in areas subjected to abrasion and are found in the esophagus

A

Stratified Squamous

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82
Q

An adhesive sheet of glycoproteins secreted by the epithelial cells

A

basal lamina

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83
Q

A layer of collagen fibers. Is a part of underlying connective tissue

A

Reticular Lamina

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84
Q

Basal Lamina + Reticular Lamina =

A

basement Membrane

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85
Q

Function is to reinforce the epithelium. less stretching and tearing

A

basement membrane

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86
Q

Other characteristics of epithelium

A
  • avascular
  • Innervated
  • Regenerative
  • Nourished by diffusion of nutrients from connective tissue
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87
Q

Layers of cuboidal and Columnar cells and function is protection and secretion and is only located in the male urethra

A

Stratified Columnar

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88
Q

Basal cells are cuboidal or columnar
apical cells can change shape
domed
located in the ureters, bladder, part of urethra

A

Transitional Epithelia

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89
Q

Glands are groups of cells that make and secret a particular fluid

A

Glandular Epithelia

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90
Q

what glands Produce hormones

A

Endocrine Glands

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91
Q

All secret products onto skin or into body cavities
products = mucous, sweat, oil, saliva, etc.

A

Exocrine glands

92
Q

What are the two types of exocrine glands

A

Unicellular and multi cellular

93
Q

secret their products by exocytosis

A

Merocrine glands

94
Q

Glands in the intestine that are tubular secretory

A

Simple tubular

95
Q

Stomach (gastric glands) that are tubular secretory

A

Simple branched tubular

96
Q

Duodenal glands of small intestine that are tubular secretory structures

A

Compound tubular

97
Q

What is a type of alveolar secretory structure

A

Simple alveolar

98
Q

Sebaceous (oil) glands that is a alveolar secretory strucutre

A

Simple branched alveolar

99
Q

example of compound alveolar glands

A

Mammary glands

100
Q

Example of compound tubloalveolar glands

A

Salivary Glands

101
Q

The entire secretory cell ruptures, releasing secretions and dead cell fragments ( whole cell blows up)

A

Holocrine gland

102
Q

Found everywhere in the body in different amounts but very little amounts are found in the brain

A

Connective tissue

103
Q

what glands causes acne

104
Q

what are the 4 main classes of connective tissue

A

-Connective tissue proper (facia of the body)
- Cartilage
- Bone
- blood

105
Q

What are the functions of connective tissue

A

Binding and support
protection
insulation
transportation

106
Q

where does connective tissue come from?

A

An embryonic tissue called mesenchyme.

107
Q

What are the two tpes of connective tissue proper?

A
  1. loose connective tissue
  2. Dense connective tissue
108
Q

Subclass of loose connective tissue

A

Areolar
Adipose
Reticular

109
Q

Subclasses of dense connective tissue

A

regular
irregular
elastic

110
Q

What are all three fiber types

A

collagen, reticular, elastic

111
Q

What are the types of cartilage

A
  1. hyaline
  2. elastic
  3. fibrocartilage
112
Q

Types of bone tissue

A

Compact bone
Spongy bone

113
Q

Hard tissue that resist both compression and tension
function = support

A

Bone tissue

114
Q

Fills space between cells

A

Ground subtance

114
Q

What are the cells of connective tissue proper

A

Fibroblast and fibrocytes

114
Q

What are the structural elements of connective tissue

A

Ground substance
Fibers
Cells

114
Q

a fluid tissue that carries oxygen and carbon dioxide, nutrients, water, and other substances

A

Blood tissue

114
Q

Provide support

115
Q

What are the cells of cartilage

A

Chondroblast and chondrocytes

116
Q

what are the cells of bone

A

osteoblast and osteocytes

117
Q

What are the cells of blood tissue

A

Red blood cells
white blood cells
thrombocyte
plasma
erythocytes
platelets

118
Q

What makes connective tissue proper?

A

Fibroblast

119
Q

What make leukocytes, thrombocytes and erythrocytes

A

Hemocytoblast

120
Q

fiber that makes blood clots

A

Fibrinogen

121
Q

what is the fat storage tissue of the body

A

adipose tissue

122
Q

The packaging material of the body

A

Areolar tissue

123
Q

Mast cells and macrophages in lymphoid organs (spleen, lymph) nodes and bone marrow)

A

reticular tissue

124
Q

The skin is composed of…

A

Epidermis, dermis, hyopdermis

125
Q

Have Epithelia cells - outer protective layer

126
Q

Fibrous connective tissue - vascularized

127
Q

” Below skin”
- subcutaneous tissue
- is mostly adipose tissue - some areolar

A

Hypodermis

128
Q

cells in the epidermis

A

Keratinocytes, melanocytes, langerhan cells, merkel cells

129
Q

Produce a fibrous protein keratin and is replaced every 25-45 days

A

Keratinocytes

130
Q

In deepest layer of epidermis and make melanin

A

melanocytes

131
Q

What is the function of pacinian corpuscle

A

detects Vibration (on of movement)

132
Q

Made in bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis for immunity

A

Langerhan Cells

133
Q

Touch receptor and associated with nerve endings

A

Merkel cells

134
Q

What are the layer of the epidermis

A
  1. Stratum corneum
    2 . stratum granulosum
    3 .Stratum spinosum
  2. Stratum basale
135
Q

Deepest layer and is a single row of rapidly dividing keratinocytes

A

Stratum Basale

136
Q

Several layers thick
many desmosomes providing tension resistant attachments

A

Stratum Spinosum

137
Q

3-5 cell layers
- nuclie and organelles disintergrating

A

Stratum Granulosum

138
Q

thickest layer of the skin
keratinocytes are dead
primary protection

A

Stratum corneum

139
Q

absent in the skin but is found in the plams of the hand, fingertips and sole of the feet

A

Stratum Lucidum

140
Q

The dermis is what type of tissue?

A

areolar connective tissue

141
Q

What does the dermis contain

A

collagen, elastin, and recticular
- machrophages
- fibroblast

142
Q

where does mitosis occur in the epidermis?

A

Stratum Basale

143
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis?

A

The papillary layer and the reticular layer

144
Q

The_________ _________ is loose areolar connective tissue with collagen and elastin and is the superior surface

A

Papillary Layer

145
Q

The _______ _______ is 80% of the dermis irregular dense fibrous connective tissue and has thick bundles of collagen for strength and water hydration

A

Reticular Layer

146
Q

Function of the Integumentary System

A

Temperature regulation
Sensation
Metabolic Functions = vitamin D
Blood reservoir = 5% of bodys blood
Excretion - Sweat (uric acid, ammonia

147
Q

Basal Cell Skin cancers

A

Affects basal of skin
Most common
least malignant

148
Q

Squamous Cell Cancer

A

In keratinocytes if stratum spinosum
raised bump with central crusting ulcer

149
Q

What are the three reasons for skin cancer

A

UV radiation (caucasians
X-rays
Chronic Skin Ulcers

150
Q

Melanoma

A

Most dangerous
10% of skin cancers
Multiplying melanocytes

151
Q

Detection of Melanoma

A

Asymmetry
Border Irregularly
Colors
Diameter (lager than 6mm)
Elevation

152
Q

What is not a function f the ribosome during polypeptide sequence
- remove introns from Pre-mRNA
- Recognize a start codon on an mRNA
- align tRNA to mRNA codons
- move along the mRNA during the polypeptide elongation

A

Removing introns from pre-mRNA molecules

153
Q

Only in the epidermis and involves fluid loss

A

First degree Burns

154
Q

In the epidermis and upper dermis and takes 3-4 weeks to repair

A

Second Degree burns

155
Q

In the epidermis, dermis and hypodermis – causes slow regeneration and can cause suffacation

A

Third Degree burns

156
Q

Melanocytes done make enough melanin or make reduced amounts of Melanin (hypomealonsis)

157
Q

Herpes simplex virus lies dormant in the nerves of the skin

A

Cold Sores

158
Q

rasied pink lesions developing yellow crust

159
Q

Autoimmune disease that causes dry, silvery, scales

160
Q

Very common skin condition that is the loss of melanocytes

161
Q

How many named bones are there in the body

162
Q

What are the shape classifications of bones

A

Long, short, flat, irregular

163
Q

what are the functions of bones

A

Support, protection, movement, mineral storage, hematopoiesis

164
Q

Shaft - thick collar of compact bone
- central medullar cavity filled with yellow bone marrow

165
Q

Ends of bones - expanded
- exterior is compact bone
- interior is spongy bone
-covered in hyaline cartilage

166
Q

Where the bones are lengthened before adulthood
- bones are fused and there is no cartilage there
- Seam

A

Epiphyseal line

167
Q

Plate of cartilage

A

Epiphyseal plate

168
Q

Shiny white double layered membrane that covers the surface of the the bone except on the join surfaces

A

Periosteum

169
Q

Membrane that lines the inside of the bone and covers the surface of the spongy bone

170
Q

Stem cell in the bone that forms osteoblast and osteoclast

A

Osteoprogenitor

171
Q

Matrix-syenthisziging cell
- responsible for bone growth

A

Osteoblast

172
Q

Mature bone cell
- monitors and maintains the mineralized bone matrix

173
Q

Bone reabsorbing cell

A

Osteoclast

174
Q

Made of structures called osteons

A

Compact bone

175
Q

rings of lamella (collagen fibers) with a central or Haverisna canal for blood

176
Q

what are lacunae and central canal connected by

A

Canaliculi

177
Q

cavities between lamellae

178
Q

Where is red bone marrow located

A

The is no red marrow below the shoulder or below you hips

179
Q

What makes red bone marrow

A

Hemocytoblast

180
Q

What is needed for osteoblast replication

A

calcium, Vitamin D and Vitamin C ( collagen synthesis)

181
Q

what precentage of bone is recycled every week?

182
Q

How often is spongey and compact bone replaced

A

Spongy bone = every 3-4 years
Compact bone = every 10 years

183
Q

What is a Displaced fracture

A

bones are out of alignment

184
Q

What is a non-displaced fracture

A

the bones are aligned after fracturing

185
Q

What is a complete fracture?

A

the bones is broken completely through

186
Q

What is a incomplete fracture?

A

The bone is cracked and partially gone through

187
Q

What is a linear fracture

A

parallel crack along the bone

188
Q

What is a transverse fracture

A

Perpendicular to long axis

189
Q

What is an Open (compound) fracture

A

Penetrates the skin and is also a displaced fracture

190
Q

What is a closed fracture (simple)

A

When the bone is broken but the skin is still intact

191
Q

What are the common fractures

A

commuted, compression,Spiral, depressed, greenstick, and epiphyseal

192
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

When bone fragments are broken into three of more pieces

193
Q

What type of fracture is most common in aged, brittle bones

A

Comminute fracture

194
Q

what is a compression fracture

A

when the bone is crushed from compression and is most common in porous bones

195
Q

what is a Spiral Fracture

A

It is a ragged break that occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone

196
Q

What is a common sports fracture

A

Spiral Fracture

197
Q

What is a epiphyseal fracture

A

When the epiphysis is separated from the diaphysis along the epiphyseal plate

198
Q

What is a depresses fracture

A

When broken bone portion isn pressed inward
- typical in the skull

199
Q

What is a greenstick fracture

A

When the bone brakes incompletely, only one side of the shaft breaks and the other bends
- most common in children

200
Q

What bone disorder means that the bones are soft because calcium is not deposited into bone

A

Osteomalacia

201
Q

What is the bone disorder that is characterized by the lack of vitamin D or calcium in the diet / bones and occurs in children

202
Q

What is the bone disorder that means there is a reduction in bone mass and the bones are lighter and porous.

A

Osteoporosis

203
Q

Immovable joints

A

Synarthroses

204
Q

Slightly moveable joints

A

Amphiarthroses

205
Q

Freely moveable joints

A

Diarthroses

206
Q

Strucutrally immovable/ slightly moveable joint

207
Q

Structurally rigid/ slightnly moveable joint
ex. epiphyseal plate

A

Cartilaginous

208
Q

Structurally freely moving joint

209
Q

What are Fibrous joints

A

Bones that are joined together by fibrous tissue
- have no joint cavity
- most immovable

210
Q

What are the three types of fibrous joints

A
  1. Sutures
  2. Syndesmosis
  3. Gomphoses
211
Q

What are the characteristics or suture fibrous joints

A
  • only in the skull
  • Filled with minimal amounts of very short connective tissue
  • wavy edges are interlocked
212
Q

What are the characteristics of syndesmoses fibrous joints
example. tibiofiblular joint

A

-Bones are connected by a ligament of fibrous tissue
- vary in length

213
Q

what are the characteristics of a Gomphoses fibrous joint

A
  • held by periodontal ligaments
  • “gum”
214
Q

What are the two types of cartilaginous joints

A

Synchondroses and Symphyses

215
Q

What are the characteristics of synchondroses joints

A
  • bone to bone joint
  • united by hyaline cartilage
  • all are synarthrotic (immovable)
  • are temporary joints
216
Q

What are the characterisitcs of Symphyses cartilaginous joints

A
  • Allows limited movement of joints - designed for strength, shock absorption, and flexibility
  • bones united by fibrocartilage
217
Q

What are examples of symphyses cartliagouns joints

A

Intervertebral disc and Pubic symphysis

218
Q

What are the three places in the body that have fibrocartilage

A
  1. intervertabra
  2. Pubic Symphysis
  3. Knees
219
Q

What are examples of synchondroses cartilaginous joints

A

Epiphyseal plate and the sternum

220
Q

Synovial joints Characteristics of synovial joints

A
  • articulating bones are spearated by a fluid filled joint cavity
    -have 5 distinguishing features
    allows alot of movement (diarthrotic)
  • most joints of the body (limbs)
221
Q

An elongated bursae that wraps completely around a tendon

A

Tendon Sheath

Anatomy and Physiology 2140 (7 decks)

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