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Anatomy > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 layers of the dermis and what percentage of the dermis does each make up?

A

-pappilary Layer (20%)
- reticular layer (80%

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2
Q

What makes the subcutaneous layer ideal for drug injection?

A

extensive vascular network promotes rapid absorption

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3
Q

How does the subcutaneous layer differ among sexes?

A

thicker in women and accumulates in breasts, hips, thighs
thinner in men and accumulates in arms, abdomen, and back

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4
Q

What is the papillary layer composed of?

A

areolar connective tissue forms dermal papillae

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5
Q

what is the reticular layer composed of?

A

dense irregular tissue surrounding hair follicles, sebaceous glands and sweat glands, nerves, and blood vessels

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6
Q

what are the two most common types of exocrine glands in the skin?

A

sweat glands and sebaceous glands

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7
Q

what is another name for sweat glands?

A

sudoriferous glands

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8
Q

what are the two types of sweat glands

A

merocrine(eccrine) and apocrine

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9
Q

what part of sweat glands contract upon nervous system stimulation to release sweat?

A

myoepithelial cells

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10
Q

what type of sweat gland is most numerous?

A

merocrine

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11
Q

where are merocrine sweat glands abundant?

A

palms,soles, and forehead

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12
Q

what is a main function of merocrine glands?

A

thermoregulation

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13
Q

what to merocrine glands secrete?

A

sweat(99% water, salts, vit C, antibodies)

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14
Q

what do merocrine ducts connect to

A

pores of skin

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15
Q

where are apocrine glands located?

A

only axillilary and genital areas

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16
Q

what do apocrine glands secrete?

A

sweat, fatty substances, & proteins

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17
Q

what type of sweat gland is larger than the other?

A

apocrine sweat glands

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18
Q

what do apocrine ducts empty into?

A

hair follicles

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19
Q

when do apocrine glands begin to function?

A

puberty

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20
Q

what are the two types of modified apocrine glands?

A

ceruminous and mammary glands

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21
Q

how are most sebaceous glands formed?

A

most develop from hair follicles and secrete into hair follicles

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22
Q

what do sebaceous glands secrete?

A

sebum

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23
Q

what are the four stages of wound healing?

A
  1. cut blood vessels bleed into wound
  2. blood clot forms and leukocytes clean wound
  3. blood vessels re grew and granulation tissue forms
  4. epithelium regenerates and CT fibrosis occurs
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24
Q

what are the obstacles in healing a more severe injury?

A

longer time needed for wider and deeper surfaces, hair follicles, exocrine glands, and nerves may not be repaired

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25
Q

what indicates a first degree burn?

A

epidermal damage only; localized redness, swelling, and pain

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26
Q

what indicates a second degree burn?

A

epidermal and upper dermal damage; blisters appear

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27
Q

what indicates a third degree burn?

A

entire thickness of skin involved; skin can be white, bright red, or blackened, not painful or swollen, skin grafting is typically necessary

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28
Q

what are the treatments/concerns for burn victims?

A
  • manage fluid loss
  • relieve swelling
  • manage pain
  • remove dead tissue
  • control infection
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29
Q

what are the two types of bones tissue?

A

compact bone and spongey bone

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30
Q

what is another name for compact bone?

A

dense/cortical bone

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31
Q

what percent of bone mass does compact bone make up?

A

80%

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32
Q

what is another name for spongey bone?

A

cancellous/trabecular bone

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33
Q

what percent of bone mass does spongey bone make up?

A

20%

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34
Q

where is hyaline cartilage found in bones?

A
  • attaches ribs to sternum
  • covers ends of some bones
  • cartilage within growth plates
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35
Q

where can fibrocartilage be found in bones?

A
  • intervertebral discs
  • pubic symphysis
  • cartilage pads of knees
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36
Q

what are some functions performed by bones?

A
  • support and protection
  • movement
  • hemopoiesis
  • storage of mineral and energy reserves
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37
Q

what is hemopoiesis?

A

blood cell production

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38
Q

where does hematopoiesis occur?

A

in red bone marrow CT

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39
Q

what key minerals are stored in bones?

A

calcium and phosphate

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40
Q

why is calcium important in the body?

A

essential for muscle contraction, blood clotting, and nerve impulse transmission

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41
Q

why is phosphate important in the body?

A

ATP utilization and plasma membranes

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42
Q

where are lipids stored in adult bones?

A

in yellow bone marrow

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43
Q

what region of the bone is the diaphysis?

A

the elongated usually cylindrical shaft

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44
Q

what is the diaphysis composed of?

A

compact bones with thin spicules of spongey bone extending inward

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45
Q

what are the functions of the diaphysis?

A

provides leverage and weight support

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46
Q

where is the medullary cavity?

A

the hollow space within the diaphysis

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47
Q

what is found in the medullary cavity?

A

red bone marrow in children and yellow bone marrow in adults

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48
Q

where is the epiphysis?

A

the knobby region at each end of long bone

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49
Q

what is the epiphysis composed of?

A

composed of an outer thin layer of compact bone and an inner region of spongey bone

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50
Q

where is articular cartilage found?

A

covers the joint surface on each epiphysis

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51
Q

what is the function of articular cartilage in long bones?

A

reduces friction and absorbs shock in moveable joints

52
Q

what is the metaphysis?

A

region of mature bone between diaphysis and epiphysis

53
Q

what is another term for the growth plate?

A

epiphyseal plate

54
Q

what is the epiphyseal plate made of?

A

a thin layer of hyaline cartilage

55
Q

what is the epiphyseal line?

A

the remnant of the epiphyseal plate once growth has completed

56
Q

what is the periosteum

A

tough sheath covering outer surface of bone

57
Q

what is the outer layer of the periosteum composed of?

A

fibrous layer of dense irregular CT

58
Q

what are the functions of the outer layer of the periosteum?

A
  • protects bone from surrounding structures
  • anchors blood vessels and nerves to bone surface
  • attachment site for ligaments and tendons
59
Q

what s the inner layer of the periosteum composed of?

A

osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts

60
Q

what attaches the periosteum to bone?

A

perforating fibers

61
Q

what is the endosteum

A

incomplete layer of cells that contains osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts

62
Q

what is the function of the endosteum?

A

covers all internal surfaces of bone within medullary cavity

63
Q

how does the gross anatomy of other bone types differ from long bones?

A

external surface composed of compact bone and interior is composed of spongey bone with no medullary cavity

64
Q

What is diploe?

A

spongey bone in flat bones of skull

65
Q

true or false, bones are avascular

A

false, bones are highly vascularized, ex., in regions of spongy bone

66
Q

where do blood vessels enter the bone?

A

from the periosteum

67
Q

what is the nutrient foramen?

A

a small opening or hole in bone where arteries can enter and veins can exit

68
Q

what is the function of nerves in bone and where do they enter?

A

accompany blood vessels through foramen and innervate bone, periosteum, endosteum, and marrow cavity (mainly sensory nerves)

69
Q

what is another name for red bone marrow?

A

myeloid tissue

70
Q

what is a function of red bone marrow?

A

form blood cells (hemopoietic)

71
Q

where is red bone marrow located in children?

A

located in spongey bone and medullary cavity of long bones

72
Q

where is red bone marrow located in adults?

A

only in select areas of axial skeleton

73
Q

what is red bone marrow composed of?

A

reticular CT, immature blood cells, fat

74
Q

what is yellow bone marrow?

A

fatty substance that is a product of red bone marrow degeneration as children mature

75
Q

what may cause yellow bone marrow to convert back to red bone marrow

A

severe anemia

76
Q

what are the 4 types of cells found in bone CT?

A
  • osteoprogenitor cells
  • osteoblasts
  • osteocytes
  • osteoclasts
77
Q

what are osteoprogenitor cells?

A

stem cells derived from mesenchyme that matures to become an osteoblast

78
Q

where are osteoprogenitor cells found?

A

located in periosteum and endosteum

79
Q

what is the function of osteoblasts?

A

synthesize and secrete osteoid

80
Q

what is osteoid?

A

the initial semisolid form of bone matrix that is produced by osteoblasts and later calcifies

81
Q

what do osteoblasts differentiate into?

A

osteocytes

82
Q

what are osteocytes and what is their function?

A

mature bone cells derived from osteoblasts that maintain bone matrix, detect mechanical stress on bone, and trigger deposition of new bone matrix

83
Q

what are osteclasts and what are they derived from

A

large, multinuclear phagocytic cells derived from fused bone marrow cells

84
Q

what are the organic components of bone matrix?

A

osteoid contains collagen protein and semisolid ground substance, gives bone flexibility

85
Q

what are the inorganic components of bone matrix?

A

calcium phosphate salt crystals that harden matrix and account for rigidity of bones

86
Q

describe the process of bone resorption

A
  • bone matrix is destroyed by substances released from osteoclasts
  • calcium and phosphate dissolved by hydrochloric acid
  • freed calcium and phosphate ions enter blood
87
Q

when does bone resorption occur?

A

when blood calcium levels are low

88
Q

what is compact bone composed of?

A

small cylindrical structures called osteons (haversian systems)

89
Q

what is the central canal of the osteon and what is its function?

A

cylindrical channel at center of osteon that blood vessels and nerves extend through

90
Q

what are the concentric lamellae of the osteon and what are their function?

A

rings of bone CT that surround central canal

91
Q

what are the osteocytes of the osteon and what are their function?

A

mature bone cells found between concentric lamellae that maintain bone matrix

92
Q

what are the canaliculi of the osteon and what are their function?

A

tiny, interconnecting channels within bone CT that allow for exchange of nutrients, minerals, and other substances between blood vessels and osteocytes

93
Q

what are perforating canals?

A

canals that blood vessels and nerves travel through that run perpendicular to central canals

94
Q

what are circumferential lamellae

A

rings of bone

95
Q

what are insterstitial lamellae?

A

components of compact bone between osteons that are incomplete

96
Q

what are trabeculae and what are their function?

A

open lattice of narrow rods and plates of bone that resists stress found in spongey bone

97
Q

describe the steps of interstitial growth in cartilage

A

1.) chondrocytes within lacuna are stimulated to divide
2.) two chondroblasts cells occupy a single lacuna
3.)chondroblasts secrete new material and become separate chondrocytes
4.)cartilage continues to grow internally

98
Q

describe the steps of appositional growth in cartilage

A

1.) stem cells at edge of perichondrium begin to divide
2.) new undifferentiated stem cells and chondroblasts are formed
3.)chondroblasts push apart and become chondrocytes

99
Q

how does cartilage growth occur during early embryonic development?

A

interstitial and appositional growth occur simultaneously

100
Q

how is cartilage growth affected as carilage matures?

A

interstitial growth declines rapidly and cartilage becomes semi rigid

101
Q

how is cartilage growth affected after cartilage is fully mature?

A

new cartilage growth stops and only occurs after injury

102
Q

what are the 2 types of ossification?

A

intramembranous and endochondral ossification

103
Q

what is intramembranous ossification and what does it produce?

A

bone growth within a membrane, produces flat bones of skull, some facial bones, and mandable

104
Q

describe the steps of intramembranous ossification

A

1.) ossification centers form within thickened regions of mesenchyme
2.) osteoid undergoes calcification
3.)woven bone and surrounding periosteum form
4.) lamellar bone replaces woven bone

105
Q

what bones are produced via endochondral ossification?

A

almost all bones inferior to skull

106
Q

when does endochondral ossification occur and how so?

A

begins late in 2nd month of development using hyaline cartilage models

107
Q

describe the steps of endochondral ossification

A

1.) begins at primary ossification center in center of shaft
2.) bone collar forms around diaphysis of cartilage model
3.) central cartilage in diaphysis calcifies
4.)periosteal bud invades cavities and forms spongey bone
5.) diaphysis elongates and medullary cavity forms

108
Q

what are the two types of postnatal bone growth?

A

interstitial and appositional growth

109
Q

define interstitial growth in bones

A

increase in length of long bones

110
Q

define appositional growth in bones

A

increase in bone thickness

111
Q

what is required for interstitial growth?

A

presence of epiphyseal cartilage

112
Q

how does the epiphyseal plate close and when does this typically happen?

A

bone lengthening ceases as the none and epiphysis and an diaphysis fuse, occurs at about 18 for females and 21 for males

113
Q

how does appositional growth occur?

A

osteoblasts beneath periosteum secrete bone matrix on external bone and osteoclasts remove bone on endosteal surface (occurs throughout life)

114
Q

how is the growth hormone important for bone growth?

A

most important in stimulating epiphyseal plate activity in infancy and childhood

115
Q

how is the thyroid hormone important for bone growth?

A

regulates activity of growth hormone and ensures proper proportions

116
Q

how are testosterone and estrogen important for bone growth?

A

promote adolescent growth spurts and end growth by inducing epiphyseal plate closure

117
Q

what percent of bone mass is recycled each week

A

5-7%

118
Q

how often does bone get replaced?

A

spongey bone - every 3-4 years
compact bone - every 10 years

119
Q

what does bone remodeling consist of?

A

bone deposit and bone resorption

120
Q

why is calcium important in the body?

A

functions in:
- nerve impulse transmission
- muscle contraction
- blood coagulation
- cell division

121
Q

how much calcium do we have in our bodies?

A

1200-1400 grams (99% as bone)

122
Q

what hormone regulates blood calcium levles

A

parathyroid hormone (PTH),
calcitonin may also be involved

123
Q

describe the 3 fracture classifications

A

1.)position of bone ends after fracture
- nondisplaced: ends retain normal position
-displaced: ends out of normal alignment
2.)completeness of break
- complete: broken all the way through
- incomplete: not broken all the way through
3.) whether skin is penetrated
- open (compound)
- closed (simple)

124
Q

what are the two types of reduction used to treat fractures?

A

closed reduction: physically manipulated to correct position

open reduction: surgical pins pr wires secure ends

125
Q

what are the stages of bone repair

A

1.) hematoma forms
2.)fibrocartilaginous callus forms
3.)bony callus forms
4.)bone remodeling occurs

Anatomy (10 decks)

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