Exam 1 - DM Flashcards

1
Q

the 3Ps are

A

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

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2
Q

the 3Ps are associated with ___

A

T1DM

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3
Q

diagnosis of DM includes one of the following:

A

(1) A1C >6.5%
(2) FSBG >126 mg/dL
(3) GTT > 200 mg/dL
(4) classic sx of hyperglycemia and random BG > 200 mg/dL

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4
Q

explain the rule of 15

A

if BS <70 mg/dL, eat 15g CHO, wait 15m, then recheck BS; repeat if not in range.

once in range, eat complex carb & protein

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5
Q

name 3 good examples of CHO

A

3-4 glucose tabs
1 dose of glucose gel
4 oz of juice or soda
hard candies

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6
Q

Why should pts with DM check their feet daily?

A

neuropathy and delayed wound healing

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7
Q

name at least 3 key considerations for older adults and DM

A

(1) may have activity limitations / sedentary lifestyle
(2) changes in cognition can impact meal or meds
(3) loneliness, social isolation, and financial stress
(4) multiple providers can impact mgmt
(5) impaired renal fn can impact med clearance

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8
Q

impaired renal function makes the body more ___ to insulin

A

sensitive

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9
Q

when do we never give a pt something orally?

A

altered mental status b/c of risk for aspiration

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10
Q

glucagon can be given ___ and ___

A

IM, subQ

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11
Q

metformin MOA

A

lowers blood glucose by inhibiting liver glucose production

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12
Q

GLP-1 agonists MOA

A

lowers blood glucose by inhibiting liver glucose production

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13
Q

metformin can cause ___ symptoms

A

GI

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14
Q

what should you avoid when taking metformin?

A

alcohol (liver)

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15
Q

hold ___ 24 hours before contrast and surgery

A

metformin

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16
Q

GLP-1 agonists like ozempic can lead to ____

A

pancreatitis

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17
Q

sulfonylureas MOA

A

lower blood glucose by triggering the release of insulin

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18
Q

____ should be taken with meals.

A

sulfonylureas

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19
Q

never combine ___ insulin with others in the same syringe

A

long-acting

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20
Q

you usually should give rapid-acting insulin at least ___ apart b/c of the 3-hr peak

A

4 hours

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21
Q

rapid insulin onset

A

10-30m

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22
Q

rapid insulin peak

A

0.5-3 hr

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23
Q

rapid insulin duration

A

3-6 hrs

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24
Q

regular / short insulin onset

A

30-60m

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25
Q

regular / short insulin peak

A

1-5 hrs

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26
Q

regular / short insulin duration

A

6-10 hrs

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27
Q

intermediate (NPH) insulin onset

A

1-2 hrs

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28
Q

intermediate (NPH) insulin peak

A

6-14 hrs

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29
Q

intermediate (NPH) insulin duration

A

16-24 hrs

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30
Q

long insulin onset

A

1-2 hrs

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31
Q

long insulin peak

A

none

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32
Q

long insulin duration

A

12-24 hrs

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33
Q

ultra-long insulin onset

A

30-90m

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34
Q

ultra-long insulin peak

A

none

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35
Q

ultra-long insulin duration

A

24+ hr

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36
Q

Name 3 things you should consider before administering insulin

A

(1) When was the last dose?
(2) What type of insulin is this?
(3) Is the pt going to eat now / soon?

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37
Q

3 causes of DKA are

A

infection, lack of insulin, stress / illness

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38
Q

Kussmaul respirations is a key sign of

A

DKA

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39
Q

Why do we see Kussmaul respirations in metabolic acidosis?

A

respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis

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40
Q

___ will be positive for ketones

A

DKA

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41
Q

both DKA and HHS will have elevated ___

A

BUN / Creatinine levels

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42
Q

both DKA and HHS will have s/s of ___

A

dehydration and electrolyte loss

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43
Q

BG > 600 mg/dL is ___

A

HHS

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44
Q

BG > 300 mg/dL is ___

A

DKA

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45
Q

HCO3 < 15 is ___

A

DKA

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46
Q

HCO3 > 20 is ___

A

HHS

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47
Q

osmolarity > 320 mOsm/L is ___

A

HHS

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48
Q

pH < 7.35 is a sign of ___

A

DKA

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49
Q

What are the two biggest priorities for DKA?

A

Airway
Breathing - Kussmaul respirations

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50
Q

When blood sugar rises, pancreas secretes insulin into bloodstream → glucose into cells → lowers blood sugar levels

What does this describe?

A

Negative feedback

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51
Q

increasing level of hormones in the blood triggers further secretion of the hormone

A

Positive feedback

52
Q

secreting hormones controlled by biological clock in the body

A

biologic rhythms

53
Q

which gland can you palpate?

54
Q

Chronic autoimmune disease that results in destruction of pancreatic beta cells

55
Q

dietary iodine deficiency, Hashimoto’s, thyroid removed can all cause what?

A

primary hypothyroidism

56
Q

pituitary dysfunction causes what?

A

secondary hypothyroidism

57
Q

name 4 risk factors for hypothyroidism

A

(1) female sex
(2) age >60
(3) family history
(4) iodine deficiency

58
Q

depression, fatigue, weight gain, and hair thinning are s/s of ___

A

hypothyroidism

59
Q

the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is ____

A

Grave’s disease

60
Q

name 3 risk factors for hyperthyroidism

A

(1) female sex
(2) family history
(3) autoimmune conditions

61
Q

heat intolerance, tachycardia, and exophthalmos are s/s of ___

A

hyperthyroidism

62
Q

insufficient secretion of adrenocortical steroids

A

Addison’s disease

63
Q

2 causes of Addison’s disease are ____ and ____

A

(1) dysfunction of the pituitary gland and insufficient secretion of ACTH
(2) autoimmune destruction

64
Q

decreased aldosterone in Addison’s disease can lead to ____, ___, and ___

A

hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and hypovolemia

65
Q

chronic excess cortisol secretion from the adrenal cortex

A

Cushing syndrome

66
Q

2 most common causes of Cushing syndrome are

A

(1) pituitary gland tumor
(2) chronic corticosteroid use (exogenous)

67
Q

buffalo hump, truncal obesity, reduced muscle mass, and weight gain are s/s of

A

Cushing Syndrome

68
Q

what is the first priority for fluid replacement in HHS?

A

increase blood volume

69
Q

before IV potassium-containing products, ensure that urine output is at least ___

70
Q

what is the usual drug management of DKA?

A

regular insulin via continuous IV (one bolus too)

71
Q

the main goal of F&E balance for DKA is ___

A

maintaining perfusion to vital organs

72
Q

What should you assess first with DKA?

A

(1) airway
(2) LOC
(3) hydration status
(4) electrolytes
(5) blood glucose levels

73
Q

Why are older adults at higher risk of hypoglycemia?

A

age-related decline in kidney function (prolonged effects of insulin)

74
Q

When should you repeat the dose of glucagon if pt remains unconscious?

A

after 10 minutes

75
Q

after alcohol ingestion there is a decrease in ____

A

liver glucose production

76
Q

pts who are long-standing insulin-dependent and no longer have the warning symptoms of early hypoglycemia

A

hypoglycemic unawareness

77
Q

when brain glucose gradually declines to a low level you will see __

A

neuroglycopenic symptoms

78
Q

HTN greatly accelerates the progression of ____

A

diabetic kidney disease

79
Q

glucagon can cause ___

80
Q

___ and ___ are key regulatory hormones to insulin

A

glucagon, epi

81
Q

nephropathy can lead to which electrolyte imbalance?

A

hyperkalemia

82
Q

once nephropathy occurs, priorities are (3):

A

(1) control BP
(2) control blood glucose
(3) avoid nephrotoxic agents

83
Q

when a pt is NPO, do we give insulin?

A

Yes, basal only; may need to adjust

84
Q

3 causes of inpatient hypoglycemia are

A

(1) inappropriate insulin type
(2) mismatch b/w insulin type and/or timing of food
(3) altered eating plan w/o adjusting insulin

85
Q

for non-critically ill pts, maintain pre-meal glucose to ___

A

<140 mg/dL

86
Q

for critically ill pts, keep blood glucose between ____

A

140-180 mg/dL

87
Q

When urine ketones are present, patients should not ___

88
Q

pts should ingest ____ to raise blood glucose levels to ___ before exercise

A

CHO; 100 mg/dL

89
Q

Exercise in pts with uncontrolled DM results in ___ and ____

A

hyperglycemia; ketone body formation

90
Q

for a 70-kg adult, they may need ____ of additional CHO per hour of moderate-intensity activity

91
Q

initial formula for carb counting is…

A

1 unit of rapid-acting insulin for each 15g of CHO

92
Q

monitors glucose levels in interstitial fluid to provider real-time glucose information to the user

93
Q

obtaining blood from other sites other than fingertip

A

alternate site testing

94
Q

why should pts not share their BGM equipment?

A

risk of infection

95
Q

anemia can falsely ____ glucose levels

96
Q

preparations containing ____ insulin are uniformly cloudy after gently rolling; all other insulins should be _____.

A

NPH; clear

97
Q

NPH insulin is ___

98
Q

In-use insulin can be kept at room temp for up to ____ to _____

A

28 days; reduce injection site irritation

99
Q

nighttime release of adrenal hormones that causes blood glucose elevation at about 5-6am

A

dawn phenomenon

100
Q

morning hyperglycemia d/t counterregulatory response to nighttime hypoglycemia

A

somogyi phenomenon

101
Q

____ should only be used in adults who do not have respiratory problems or are nonsmokers

A

dry powder inhalers

102
Q

Delivers rapid-acting analog insulin every hour to provide basal insulin coverage with additional insulin at mealtimes

A

continuous subQ insulin infusion (CSII)

103
Q

for frail pts or those who are very thin, what angle should you inject subQ insulin?

A

45 degrees

104
Q

what increases absorption at the site?

A

(1) applying heat locally
(2) massaging the area
(3) exercising the injected area

105
Q

Blood glucose testing 2 hrs after meals and within 10 minutes before next meal helps determine ____

A

if the previous bolus was adequate

106
Q

short- or rapid-acting insulin for blood glucose elevations above the target range

A

correction doses

107
Q

the effect of basal insulin is assessed by ___

A

fasting blood glucose before breakfast

108
Q

____ insulin makes up about 50% of total daily dosage

109
Q

basal insulin coverage is provided by ____, ___, or ___

A

NPH/intermediate, long, or ultra-long acting

110
Q

additional meal-time insulin released by the pancreas to prevent blood glucose elevation after meals

111
Q

what the pancreas produces that balances liver glucose production with glucose use and maintains normal blood glucose levels between meals

112
Q

attempt to replicate the normal insulin release pattern from the pancreas

A

Insulin regimen

113
Q

Why is insulin typically injected rather than taken PO?

A

Because it is a small protein that is often inactivated in the GI tract

114
Q

When is insulin therapy indicated for T2DM?

A

(1) When target blood glucose levels can’t be met with the use of 2 or 3 different antidiabetic agents, including GLP-1 agonists
(2) when A1C > 10%.

115
Q

___ is the time-in-range goal for most pts with diabetes.

116
Q

preprandial range for a diabetic is

A

80-130 mg/dL

117
Q

postprandial levels should be

A

<180 mg/dL

118
Q

which checks should be completed annually?

A

albumin, eyes, foot,

119
Q

Simultaneous presence of metabolic factors that increase risk for developing T2DM and cardiovascular disease

A

Metabolic syndrome

120
Q

production and storage of glycogen

A

glycogenesis

121
Q

glycogen breakdown into glucose

A

glycogenolysis

122
Q

conversion of fats to acids

A

ketogenesis

123
Q

conversion of proteins to glucose

A

gluconeogenesis

124
Q

insulin ____ glycogenolysis

125
Q

insulin ____ glycogenesis

126
Q

target blood glucose range

A

euglycemia

127
Q

polycythemia can falsely ____ glucose levels

A

lower / depress