Cancer Flashcards

Exam 1

1
Q

the genetic and physiologic processes that control cellular growth, replication, differentiation, and function maintain homeostasis

A

Cellular regulation

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2
Q

nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio

A

the nucleus is small compared to the rest of the cell

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3
Q

Euploidy

A

23 pairs of chromosomes

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4
Q

Ratio of cells undergoing mitosis to the total number of cells

A

Mitotic index

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5
Q

benign tumor cells

A

normal cells growing in the wrong place or at the wrong time as a result of a problem with cellular regulation

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6
Q

cancer / malignant cells

A

abnormal cells that serve no function and are harmful to normal body tissues

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7
Q

carcinogenesis

A

process of changing a normal cell into a cancer cell

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8
Q

What are the 4 stages of carcinogenesis?

A

Initiation
Promotion
Progression
Metastasis

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9
Q

Irreversible event that can lead to cancer development

A

initiation

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10
Q

substances that change the activity of a cell’s genes so that the cell becomes cancerous

A

carcinogens

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11
Q

enhanced growth of an initiated cell by substances known as promoters

A

promotion

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12
Q

the time between cell initiation and the development of an overt tumor

A

latency period

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13
Q

continued change of a cancer cell to more malignant over time

A

progression

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14
Q

the original group of cancer cells

A

primary tumor

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15
Q

when cancer cells move from the primary location by breaking off from the original tumor

A

metastasis

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16
Q

metastatic tumors

A

additional tumors

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17
Q

What is the purpose of grading and staging?

A

To help standardize cancer diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment

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18
Q

Grading

A

how similar the cancer cells look to the parent cell

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19
Q

What is the purpose of grading cancer?

A

Prognosis and therapy

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20
Q

the description of cancer cells by chromosome number and appearance

A

Ploidy

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21
Q

gain or loss of chromosomes and/or structural abnormalities

A

Aneuploidy

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22
Q

What is the purpose of assessing ploidy?

A

Determine diagnosis and prognosis

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23
Q

Staging

A

Determines the exact location of the cancer and whether metastasis has occurred

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24
Q

What does cancer staging influence?

A

selection of therapy / treatment

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25
Q

Name the three types of staging

A

Clinical, surgical, pathologic

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26
Q

Which type of staging is the most definitive?

A

Pathologic

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27
Q

Tumor, Node, Metastasis (TNM) staging system

A

describes the anatomic extent of cancers

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28
Q

What are 3 factors that account for variation in cancer development?

A

Carcinogen exposure
Genetic predisposition
Immunity

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29
Q

Name the 3 main external factors that cause cancer

A

Chemical
Physical
Viral

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30
Q

What is the single most preventable source of carcinogenesis?

A

Tobacco use

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31
Q

Which tissues are at greatest risk for tobacco-induced cancer?

A

Tissues that have direct contact with tobacco (i.e., lungs and airways)

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32
Q

Ionizing and UV radiation are examples of ____ factors

A

physical

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33
Q

What is the single most important risk factor for cancer?

A

Advancing age

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34
Q

What does CAUTION stand for?

A

C = changes in bowel or bladder habits
A = A sore throat that does not heal
U = Unusual bleeding or discharge
T = Thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere
I = Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
O = Obvious change in a wart or mole
N = Nagging cough or hoarseness

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35
Q

Name the 6 most common cancers

A

Colorectal
Lung
Prostate
Skin
Leukemia
Bladder

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36
Q

Name at least 3 family history “red flags”

A

(1) Cancer in multiple members of every generation
(2) Similar cancers in multiple first-degree relatives
(3) Multiple instances of rare cancer within a family
(4) Cancer at a young age
(5) Cancer in both of paired organs
(6) Breast cancer is present in genetic male adult

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37
Q

use of strategies to prevent the actual occurrence of cancer

A

primary cancer prevention

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38
Q

using drugs, chemicals, or natural nutrients to disrupt cancer development

A

Chemoprevention

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39
Q

What is the only known vaccine approved for cancer prevention?

A

HPV

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40
Q

the use of screening strategies to detect cancer early, at a time when cure or control is more likely

A

Secondary cancer prevention

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41
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Decreased platelet count

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42
Q

Cachexia

A

Extreme body wasting and malnutrition

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43
Q

Changes in peripheral nerve function are more commonly caused by ____, rather than cancer.

A

Neurotoxic chemotherapy

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44
Q

Why is bone metastasis significant?

A

Pain, fractures, and hypercalcemia can occur, which all lead to reduced mobility

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45
Q

Which effects of bone metastasis are oncologic emergencies?

A

spinal cord compression (SCC) and hypercalcemia

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46
Q

Hypoxia

A

inadequate supply of O2 to the body’s tissue

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47
Q

Hypoxemia

A

low level of O2 in the blood

48
Q

Radiation can cause which 4 cardiac problems?

A

(1) Pericarditis
(2) coronary artery disease
(3) Myocardial dysfunction
(4) valvular heart disease

49
Q

Name the 6 functions of surgery

A

(1) prophylaxis
(2) diagnosis
(3) cure
(4) control
(5) palliation
(6) tissue reconstruction

50
Q

removes potentially cancerous tissue as a means of preventing cancer development

A

prophylactic

51
Q

removal of all or part of a suspected lesion for examination and testing to confirm or rule out a cancer diagnosis

A

diagnostic

52
Q

removes all cancer tissue

53
Q

removes part of the tumor if removal of the entire mass is not possible

54
Q

providing symptom relief and improving quality of life

A

palliative

55
Q

increases function, enhances appearance, or both

A

reconstructive / restorative

56
Q

How does debulking surgery help the pt?

A

Alleviate symptoms, enhance success of other tx, increase survival time

57
Q

What are two priority care needs for patients after surgery?

A

(1) psychosocial support
(2) maximum functioning after surgery

58
Q

After surgery, the nurse’s role includes teaching patients the importance of what?

A

Performing exercises;
Regaining function

59
Q

Nurses should reinforce what 3 things following cancer surgery?

A

(1) early mobilization
(2) pain management
(3) prevention of infection

60
Q

the amount of radiation delivered to a tissue

A

Radiation exposure

61
Q

the amount of radiation absorbed by the tissue

A

Radiation dose

62
Q

Fractionation

A

series of divided doses (related to radiation)

63
Q

In external beam radiation, is the patient radioactive?

64
Q

In internal radiation therapy / brachytherapy, is the patient radioactive?

65
Q

What is the most common side effect of radiotherapy?

A

radiation dermititis

66
Q

What is the priority intervention for someone receiving radiation therapy?

A

Teach patients about skin care needs

67
Q

activates immune system to attack cancer cells

A

Immunotherapy

68
Q

chemo agents used to shrink a tumor before surgery or radiation

A

neoadjuvant chemotherapy

69
Q

chemo agents used to kill remaining cancer cells follow surgery or radiation

A

adjuvant chemotherapy

70
Q

How do you choose which chemotherapy agent?

A

tumor type
tumor markers
growth rate
pt’s performance status

71
Q

giving chemotherapy rounds closer together with bone marrow growth factors to prevent neutropenia

A

Dose-dense chemotherapy

72
Q

How can you prevent extravasation during chemo treatment?

A

Monitor for blood return at the access site at regular intervals

73
Q

T/F: Oral drugs are just as toxic as IV chemotherapy

74
Q

For missed doses of oral chemotherapy, do you always take the drug when remembered?

A

No, usually not

75
Q

Neutropenia

A

Decreased number of neutrophil WBC

76
Q

time when bone marrow activity and WBC counts are at their lowest after chemo

77
Q

Name the 2 priority care issues during chemotherapy

A

(1) Protect pt from life-threatening side effects
(2) Manage distressing symptoms

78
Q

What is one treatment to reduce the risk for infection during chemotherapy?

A

Use of growth factors to stimulate bone marrow production of granulocytes

79
Q

What are the priority interventions for patients with neutropenia?

A

(1) protect from infection
(2) teach patients and family how to reduce infection risk at home

80
Q

Name the priority nursing intervention for thrombocytopenia.

A

Provide a safe environment to reduce risk of falls or injury

81
Q

Name the 4 types of chemotherapy-induced nausea & vomiting (CINV)

A

(1) anticipatory
(2) acute
(3) delayed
(4) breakthrough

82
Q

What does CINV put patients at risk for, especially older adults?

A

Risk for dehydration and fluid imbalance

83
Q

Inflammatory process that affects the mucous membranes of the oral mucosa and GI tract

84
Q

Reduced ability to concentrate, memory loss, or difficulty in learning new info

A

Chemo brain

85
Q

Name 3 nursing priorities for a patient experiencing chemo brain.

A

(1) support the patient
(2) provide resources for cognitive training
(3) ensure that other patients have experienced this

86
Q

What is the nursing priority for chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN)?

A

Prevent injury

87
Q

3 side effects of immunotherapy are…

A

(1) Fatigue
(2) Rash
(3) Risk of infection

88
Q

Immune-related adverse events (irAEs)

A

when the stimulation of the immune system affects healthy cells

89
Q

What is the typical treatment for irAEs?

A

immunosuppression via corticosteroids

90
Q

Combination actions from immunotherapy and targeted therapy to help treat specific cancers

A

Monoclonal antibodies

91
Q

Rituximab is what type of treatment?

A

Monoclonal antibody

92
Q

When infusion-related reactions occur w/ monoclonal antibodies, what is the nursing priority?

A

Pt assessment to recognize potentially life-threatening reactions

93
Q

drugs designed to block the growth and spread of cancer by interfering with the specific cellular growth pathways or molecules involved

A

Targeted therapy

94
Q

What is the nursing priority for targeted therapy?

A

Careful assessment for adverse reactions to treatment

95
Q

Decreasing the amount of hormones reaching hormone-sensitive tumors to slow cancer growth

A

Endocrine therapy

96
Q

What is the nurse’s role in endocrine therapy?

A

(1) teach pt and family about side effects
(2) encourage exercise
(3) avoid hormonal replacement

97
Q

Support chemo by enhancing recovery of bone marrow function after tx-induced myelosuppression

A

Colony-stimulating factors

98
Q

Filgrastim and pegfilgrastim are examples of what treatment?

A

Colony-stimulating factors as supportive therapy

99
Q

occurs if body has a physiological need for more cells (e.g., increases in WBC during an infection) or presence of apoptosis (cell death)

A

Proliferation

100
Q

an orderly process where cells progress from immaturity to maturity leading to a specific cell function

A

Differentiation

101
Q

______ regulate and promote cell growth

A

proto-oncogenes

102
Q

regulate and suppress cell growth

A

Tumor suppressor genes

103
Q

BRCA1, BRCA2 are examples of what?

A

Tumor suppressor genes

104
Q

Treatment given after the primary treatment (e.g., surgery) to eliminate remaining cancer cells.

A

Adjuvant therapy

105
Q

Treatment given before the primary treatment to shrink the tumor and improve outcomes.

A

Neoadjuvant therapy

106
Q

Treatments that work throughout the body, such as chemotherapy, hormonal therapy, or targeted therapy

A

Systemic therapy

107
Q

Treatments focused on a specific area, such as surgery or radiation therapy

A

Localized therapy

108
Q

Blocking hormones that fuel certain cancers

A

Hormonal therapy

109
Q

Why is IV chemo often given via central line?

A

To avoid extravasation

110
Q

steroids are given to treat what side effect of chemotherapy?

A

Nausea and vomiting

111
Q

Time and energy a person spends dealing with cancer treatments

A

Time toxicity

112
Q

osteoporosis and cardiovascular risk are two long-term effects of what?

A

Hormonal / endocrine therapy

113
Q

Continued treatment to prevent cancer recurrence or progression

A

Maintenance therapy

114
Q

Participation in clinical trials for new treatments

A

Experimental therapy

115
Q

Radiation sources comes into direct, continuous contact with tumor for a specific amount of time

A

Brachytherapy