Question 1

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: Select one: A. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. B. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. D. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

Accepted Answer

D. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

Question 2

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: Select one: A. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. B. use an automatic transport ventilator. C. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. D. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.

Accepted Answer

A. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter.

Question 3

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: Select one: A. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. B. demand that the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. C. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. D. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.

Accepted Answer

C. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

Question 4

``` Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: Select one: A. AEMT. B. paramedic. C. EMR. D. EMT. ```

Accepted Answer

B. paramedic.

Question 5

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of: Select one: A. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured. B. the Emergency Medical Services Act. C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society. D. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying.

Accepted Answer

C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

Question 6

If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should: Select one: A. wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class. B. send an official request to the National Registry of EMTs (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam. C. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation. D. recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure.

Accepted Answer

C. contact the state EMS office and provide its staff with the required documentation.

Question 7

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: Select one: A. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. C. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. D. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

Accepted Answer

B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

Question 8

``` The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: Select one: A. shift supervisor. B. medical director. C. EMS administrator. D. field training officer. ```

Accepted Answer

B. medical director.

Question 9

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? Select one: A. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain B. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device C. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin D. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen

Accepted Answer

B. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

Question 10

``` Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? Select one: A. Online B. Off-line C. Direct D. Radio ```

Accepted Answer

B. Off-line

Question 11

A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should: Select one: A. discreetly escort them to the back of the ambulance and allow them to see their child by themselves while you wait outside. B. let them know that because of the circumstances of their child's death, they will not be permitted to see him at this time. C. express your sincere condolences over their loss and have them escorted away from the scene by a law enforcement officer. D. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.

Accepted Answer

D. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.

Question 12

``` A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no more than ________ hours following the incident. Select one: A. 24 B. 72 C. 6 D. 12 ```

Accepted Answer

B. 72

Question 13

According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: Select one: A. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. B. screen all prospective employees for blood-borne pathogens. C. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only. D. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment.

Accepted Answer

A. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure.

Question 14

As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: Select one: A. usually manifest suddenly and without warning. B. may not be obvious or present all the time. C. are most effectively treated with medications. D. cannot be identified and can cause health problems.

Accepted Answer

B. may not be obvious or present all the time.

Question 15

``` Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. history of chronic disease. B. fear of medical personnel. C. distrust of EMTs. D. mental disorders. ```

Accepted Answer

C. distrust of EMTs.

Question 16

Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT: Select one: A. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. B. before personnel are preparing to reenter the scene. C. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved.

Accepted Answer

A. when patients are actively being assessed or treated.

Question 17

``` Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. carbon dioxide deficiency. B. smoke and toxic gases. C. risk of building collapse. D. high ambient temperatures. ```

Accepted Answer

A. carbon dioxide deficiency.

Question 18

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: A. wait at least 5 minutes before touching another patient. B. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital. C. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes. D. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel.

Accepted Answer

B. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.

Question 19

``` Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel: Select one: A. hopeful. B. superior. C. relieved. D. shamed. ```

Accepted Answer

D. shamed.

Question 20

``` Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. have large, rounded lenses. B. offer little or no side protection. C. do not have shatterproof lenses. D. are not secured with a strap. ```

Accepted Answer

B. offer little or no side protection.

Question 21

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: Select one: A. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. B. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. C. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. D. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office.

Accepted Answer

C. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

Question 22

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: Select one: A. is mentally competent and able to refuse. B. possesses a valid driver's license. C. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. D. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

Accepted Answer

D. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

Question 23

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: Select one: A. potential falsification of the patient care form. B. inadequate patient care was administered. C. thorough documentation was not required. D. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form.

Accepted Answer

B. inadequate patient care was administered.

Question 24

Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? Select one: A. Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital. B. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. C. Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. D. Once the patient is in the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment.

Accepted Answer

B. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time.

Question 25

``` When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: Select one: A. battery. B. negligence. C. assault. D. abandonment. ```

Accepted Answer

B. negligence.

Question 26

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? Select one: A. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury B. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training C. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will D. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs

Accepted Answer

A. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

Question 27

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? Select one: A. An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic. B. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT. C. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse. D. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT.

Accepted Answer

B. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

Question 28

While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: Select one: A. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance. B. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. C. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. D. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims.

Accepted Answer

C. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.

Question 29

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: Select one: A. drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment. B. obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything. C. treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence. D. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient.

Accepted Answer

D. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient.

Question 30

``` You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered? Select one: A. Informed B. Expressed C. Minor's D. Implied ```

Accepted Answer

B. Expressed

Question 31

``` Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the: Select one: A. involuntary nervous system. B. somatic nervous system. C. autonomic nervous system. D. central nervous system. ```

Accepted Answer

B. somatic nervous system.

Question 32

``` Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: Select one: A. tibia. B. femur. C. calcaneus. D. patella. ```

Accepted Answer

D. patella.

Question 33

``` At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Select one: A. 100 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 90 beats/min. ```

Accepted Answer

A. 100 beats/min.

Question 34

Both areas of the pons are used to: Select one: A. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress. B. ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing. C. provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed. D. set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person.

Accepted Answer

A. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

Question 35

Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: Select one: A. available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen. B. high levels of oxygen remain in the cells and can cause significant damage. C. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. D. carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cells, but oxygen cannot.

Accepted Answer

C. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells.

Question 36

Contraction of the right ventricle causes: Select one: A. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation. B. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. C. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation. D. closure of the mitral and aortic valves.

Accepted Answer

C. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

Question 37

``` Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: Select one: A. superior vena cava. B. common iliac vein. C. coronary sinus vein. D. inferior vena cava. ```

Accepted Answer

D. inferior vena cava.

Question 38

``` Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. Select one: A. leukocytes B. monocytes C. erythrocytes D. thrombocytes ```

Accepted Answer

C. erythrocytes

Question 39

``` Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Select one: A. epinephrine and norepinephrine. B. acetylcholine and insulin. C. norepinephrine and acetylcholine. D. glucagon and noradrenaline. ```

Accepted Answer

A. epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Question 40

Negative-pressure breathing involves: Select one: A. increasing airway resistance during breathing. B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. C. relaxing the respiratory muscles. D. pushing or forcing air into the lungs.

Accepted Answer

B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.

Question 41

``` Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. respirations of 18 breaths/min. B. bilaterally clear breath sounds. C. rhythmic inhalation and exhalation. D. a reduction in tidal volume. ```

Accepted Answer

D. a reduction in tidal volume.

Question 42

``` Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: Select one: A. a slower heart rate. B. vasoconstriction. C. a strong pulse. D. tachycardia. ```

Accepted Answer

A. a slower heart rate.

Question 43

``` The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. occiput B. mastoid C. orbit D. sphenoid ```

Accepted Answer

C. orbit

Question 44

``` The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: Select one: A. residual volume. B. tidal volume. C. expiratory reserve volume. D. inspiratory reserve volume. ```

Accepted Answer

A. residual volume.

Question 45

The atlas is the: Select one: A. seventh cervical vertebra, which is easily palpable. B. point where the ribs attach to the sternum. C. first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull. D. attachment between the first and second cervical vertebrae.

Accepted Answer

C. first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull.

Question 46

The axial skeleton is composed of the: Select one: A. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle. B. arms, legs, and pelvis. C. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column. D. lower part of the torso and the legs.

Accepted Answer

C. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column.

Question 47

``` The bones of the forearm are called the: Select one: A. radius and ulna. B. humerus and ulna. C. tibia and radius. D. radius and humerus. ```

Accepted Answer

A. radius and ulna.

Question 48

``` The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: Select one: A. sacral symphysis. B. iliac crest. C. greater trochanter. D. sacroiliac joint. ```

Accepted Answer

C. greater trochanter.

Question 49

``` The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: Select one: A. perfusion. B. respiration. C. cardiac output. D. metabolism. ```

Accepted Answer

A. perfusion.

Question 50

``` The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: Select one: A. respiration. B. ventilation. C. exhalation. D. inhalation. ```

Accepted Answer

D. inhalation.

Question 51

``` The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: Select one: A. medial malleolus. B. lateral condyle. C. Achilles tendon. D. lateral malleolus. ```

Accepted Answer

A. medial malleolus.

Question 52

``` The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: Select one: A. atrioventricular node. B. bundle of His. C. Purkinje fibers. D. sinoatrial node. ```

Accepted Answer

D. sinoatrial node.

Question 53

``` The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes: Select one: A. insulin. B. glucose. C. pancreatic juice. D. bile. ```

Accepted Answer

C. pancreatic juice.

Question 54

``` The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: Select one: A. jugular notch. B. angle of Louis. C. sternal notch. D. xiphoid process. ```

Accepted Answer

D. xiphoid process.

Question 55

``` The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the “gray matter.” Select one: A. diencephalon B. cerebellum C. cerebrum D. brain stem ```

Accepted Answer

C. cerebrum

Question 56

``` The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Select one: A. pulmonary veins. B. inferior venae cavae. C. pulmonary arteries. D. superior venae cavae. ```

Accepted Answer

A. pulmonary veins.

Question 57

``` The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. sacrum. B. ischium. C. coccyx. D. ilium. ```

Accepted Answer

C. coccyx.

Question 58

``` The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: Select one: A. epicardium. B. pericardium. C. myocardium. D. endocardium. ```

Accepted Answer

C. myocardium.

Question 59

``` The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the: Select one: A. pubis and acetabulum. B. ilium, ischium, and pubis. C. ilium, pubis, and sacrum. D. sacrum and ischium. ```

Accepted Answer

B. ilium, ischium, and pubis.

Question 60

The primary function of the right atrium is to: Select one: A. receive blood from the pulmonary veins. B. receive blood from the vena cava. C. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation. D. pump blood to the pulmonary artery.

Accepted Answer

B. receive blood from the vena cava.

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Exam 1 - Chapters 1 to 8 Flashcards

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