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PID > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

True/False. Prokaryotic cells are animal cells and Eukaryotic cells and bacterial cells.

A

False. Prokayotic = Bacterial and Eukaryotic = Animal

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2
Q

What are the four things that both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells have in common?

A
  1. Cell membrane
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. DNA
  4. Ribosomes
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3
Q

True/False. Prokayotic cells don’t have a nucleus or membrane-enclosed organelles and Eukaryotic cells do.

A

True.

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4
Q

What are the three main groups of the cytoplasm?

A
  1. Macromolecules: proteins, mRNA and tRNA
  2. Small molecules: energy sources, precursors of macromolecules, metabolites or vitamins
  3. Various inorganic ions required for enzymatic activity
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5
Q

What is the role of the cytoplasm?

A

Helps to facilitate chemical reactions and dissolve solutes, and it contains the nucleoid and ribosomes

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6
Q

Which of the following are found within the nucleoid?

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Proteins
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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7
Q

The ____ is a complete set of DNA including all essential genes.

A

Bacterial genome

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8
Q

What proteins compact the nucleoid?

A
  • Nucleoid Associated proteins bound to DNA

- Supercoiling by DNA gyrase and topoisomerase I

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9
Q

What is a base pair?

A

One pair of nucleotide bases that connect the complementary strands of DNA

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10
Q

Which of the following is false in regards to a plasmid?

a. Circular molecule of DNA that replicates separately from the chromosome
b. Not part of the nucleoid
c. Essential under normal conditions
d. Each plasmid has a defined copy number regulated by the plasmid

A

c. Essential under normal conditions

- Its NOT essential under normal conditions

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11
Q

What is important about plasmids?

A

They often contain genes associated with causing disease (virulence factors) or to survive in presence of antibiotics and other toxic compounds (resistance genes)

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12
Q

What is a conjugative plasmid?

A

When plasmids can transfer cell to cell

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13
Q

What is found within the bacterial envelope?

A
  • Cytoplasmic Membrane
  • Cell wall (peptidoglycan layer)
  • Periplasmic Space
  • Outer membrane (gram-negative bacteria)
  • Capsule (some bacteria)
  • Envelope associated: Pili/Fimbriae, flagella, secretion systems
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14
Q

What are the functions of the bacterial envelope?

A
  • Protects cell from environment or host
  • Packages internal components
  • Provides structural rigidity
  • Produces energy
  • Facilitates uptake of nutrients and efflux of toxic substances
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15
Q

What can only some envelope associated components do?

A
  • Enable adhesion to surface or motility
  • Provide resistance to some antibiotics or detergents
  • Enable bacterial mating (conjugation)
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16
Q

____ bacteria have a thin layer of peptidoglycan in the periplasmic space while ___ bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan.

A

Gram- negative, Gram-positive

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17
Q

Which bacteria contains teichoic acids attached to the peptidoglycan and which have lipopolysaccharides in the outer membrane?

A

Gram-positive have Teichoic

Gram-negative have LPS

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18
Q

The cytoplasmic membrane is composed of ____ and ____.

A

phospholipid bilayer and proteins

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19
Q

Which part of the phospholipid bilayer is attracted to water and which is not attracted to water?

A

head “loves” water (hydrophilic)

tail “fears” water (hydrophobic)

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20
Q

True/False. Only hydrophilic compounds can enter the cell by passive diffusion across the bilayer.

A

False. Only HYDROPHOBIC

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21
Q

What proteins are located within the cytoplasmic membrane?

A
  • Transport proteins
  • Energy generating and Electron transport chain components: require ATP synthase
  • Proteins that function as anchors or help assemble external structures
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22
Q

The cytoplasmic membrane functions as a _____ barrier, where transport proteins mediate passage of hydrophilic substances in and out of cell

A

Selective permeability barrier

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23
Q

Which of the following allows for small hydrophilic molecules to passively enter the cell?

a. Transporter proteins
b. Porin proteins
c. Aquaporins
d. All the above

A

b. Porin proteins

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24
Q

What is the importance of the capsule?

A
  • Help bacteria evade immune system by preventing engulfment
  • Aids in attachment to some surfaces
  • Increased tolerance to antimicrobial agents
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25
Q

____ is a surface component involved in bacterial conjugation.

A

Sex pilus

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26
Q

Which of the following are considered surface projections?

a. Flagella
b. Pili/Fimbriae
c. Secretion Systems
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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27
Q

When ___ enters a host, it can revert to its active state, multiply, and cause disease.

A

Endospore

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28
Q

What is able to live in extreme conditions?

A

Extremophiles

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29
Q

True/False. An obligate symbiont cannot live without a host and facultative symbionts live together but they can live without a host as well.

A

True

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30
Q

____ can be carried but it doesn’t always cause harm, unless under certain conditions like stress.

A

Facultative pathogenic

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31
Q

True/False. Eukarytoes replicate through binary fission and Prokayotes replicate through mitosis.

A

False. Prokayotes = binary fission and Eukaryoties = Mitosis

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32
Q

True/False. Genus is capital and italic, Species and Subspecies are italic, and Serovar is not italic but its capital.

A

True.

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33
Q

What is the definition of Commensalism?

A

Good for one, no problem for the other

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34
Q

____ are necessary and the relation is positive for both while ____ takes advantage of the other.

A

Mutualism, Parasitism

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35
Q

True/False. Flagella is mainly found within gram-negative bacteria.

A

True

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36
Q

What are the virulence factors of a capsule?

A
  • Colonization
  • Invasion
  • Adhesion
  • Protection against: phagocytosis, and complement
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37
Q

_____ antigen is a capsular antigen.

A

K-antigen

38
Q

Which of the following is true regarding exotoxins?

a. Bacterial metabolites
b. Proteins with high molecular weight
c. Types I, II, III
d. All the above are true

A

d. All the above are true

39
Q

What are type I exotoxins?

A
  • Bind receptor

- Disturb cell metabolism

40
Q

Type ___ exotoxins damage the cell wall and type ___ are intracellular toxins with an A and B component.

A

II, III

41
Q

What are the two components of Type III exotoxins?

A

A component: goes IC

B (binding) component: binds to membrane

42
Q

Which of the following is true regarding gram negative endotoxins?

a. Cell wall components
b. Cause a lot of damage
c. Cause immune reactions
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

43
Q

True/False. Gram negative endotoxins have an LPS that is stable to heat, and can cause cardiovascular shock.

A

True

44
Q

What is the function of LPS?

A

Protect against: toxic products, role in complement

Act as endotoxin

45
Q

Toxins cell wall Gram-positive

A 
Lipoteichoid acid (LTA)
Lipoarabinomannan (Mycobacteria) (LAM)
Peptidoglygan
46
Q

What are obligate aerobes?

A

Need oxygen to grow and will be found more concentrated on the top of the tube.

47
Q

What are facultative anaerobes?

A

Grow better with oxygen but they can also grow without it.

48
Q

____ is a uniform growth throughout the tube and they don’t use oxygen but it won’t hurt them if they have it around whereas _____ only grow in the absence of oxygen.

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes, Obligate anaerobes

49
Q

What is the traditional approach of herd health management?

A

Treating sick animals, mainly medical management and less preventative

50
Q

What is the new herd health management approach used today?

A

Optimize health, welfare and production in a population of animals

51
Q

What is the definition of latent period?

A

Latent period: microbe is replicating but not yet enough for the host to become infectious

52
Q

What is incubation period?

A

Incubation: Microbe is replicating but not symptomatic yet

53
Q

What are the three different types of Helminths?

A

Nematode- roundworm
Cestode - tapeworm
Trematode - fluke

54
Q

What are arthropods (entomology)?

A

arachnids and insets; ectoparasites

55
Q

____ lives on the host and causes infestation where ___ lives inside the host and causes infection.

A

Ectoparasite, Endoparasite

56
Q

What is a definitive host?

A

Harbors adult or sexual stage of the parasite

57
Q

An ____ host harbors larval or asexual stage of the parasite.

A

Intermediate host

58
Q

What is an incidental host?

A

Unusual host unnecessary for the maintenance of the parasite in nature.

59
Q

What is acquired immunity?

A

Conferred by a host’s specific immunity response developed as a result of a previous parasitic infection

60
Q

True/False. Parasites don’t have a specificity for a particular definitive and intermediate host.

A

False. They have a specificity and the life cycle can sometimes only be completed within the host

61
Q

What are common routes of parasite entry?

A 
Ingestion
Skin or mucosal penetration
Transplacental (prenatal)
Transmammary (milk)
Arthropod bite (vector)
Sexual contact
62
Q

True/False. Helminths multiply within the host and Protozoa do not multiply within the definitive post.

A

False. Protozoa multiply in host, Helminths do not multiply in definitive host

63
Q

What are the different ways parasites can cause mechanical tissue damage?

A
  • Blockage of internal organs
  • Pressure atrophy
  • Migration through tissues
64
Q

What are toxic parasite products?

A
  • Destructive enzymes
  • Endotoxins
  • Toxic secretions
65
Q

Which of the following is true about the loss of nutrients caused by parasites?

a. Competition with host for nutrients causing a loss of nutrients
b. Interference with nutrient absorption
c. Iron loss
d. All the above are true

A

d. All the above are true

66
Q

____ response functions in normal host without prior exposure to invading microbes and ____ consist of antibody response and lymphocyte mediate responses.

A

Innate, Adaptive response

67
Q

T/F. Innate response have immunological memory.

A

False. Adaptive generate immunological memory

68
Q

Which cell types are involved in the defense against microbes?

A

Phagocytic

Lymphocytes: B and T cells, Large granular lymphocytes

69
Q

What does the phagosome fuse with in phagocytosis?

A

Lysosome

70
Q

Innate immune system characteristics

A
  • Pattern recognition receptors (TLR, RLR, complement)

- Missing/ altered self receptors (NK cells)

71
Q

What are characteristics of adaptive immune system?

A
  • Antigen presentation (MHC)
  • Antibodies
  • T cell receptors
72
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

-Function to phagocytize and kill extracellular bacteria and yeasts pathogens in acute inflammation

73
Q

What cleans up dead neutrophils?

A

Macrophages

74
Q

Which cells are an important defense against helminths and increase with type I hypersensitivities?

A

Eosinophils

75
Q

Which cells increase rapidly in number after viral infection and release perforins and granzymes to kill cells?

A

NK cells

76
Q

Virus infection-associated ligand are ___ and MHC I molecules are ____.

A

activating, blocking

77
Q

True/False. Phagocytic cells use pattern recognition receptors for pathogen recognition.

A

True

78
Q

What is a parasite?

A

Smaller organism that lives on or in and at the expense of a larger organism called the host

79
Q

What are the three main classes of parasites that can cause disease in humans?

A
  • Helminths
  • Ectoparasites
  • Protozoa
80
Q

Which of the following is a cyst in the brain that causes epilepsy, blindness, madness, and death?

a. Taenia solium
b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Toxocara canis
d. Neurocysticercosis

A

d. Neurocysticercosis

81
Q

What are the three diagnostic methods?

A

Host Species
Site of Infection
Size of parasite

82
Q

What is the Phylum and Class of a Roundworm?

A

Phylum Nemathelminthes

Class Nematoda

83
Q

What are the two Classes of Phylum Platyhelminthes?

A 
Class Cestoda (tapeworms)
Class Trematoda (flukes)
84
Q

Which parasite is elongate/cylindrical in shape, has an alimentary canal, separate sexes, and is free-living?

A

Nematodes

85
Q

What are the characteristics of Cestodes?

A
  • Flat body and no alimentary canal
  • Scolex
  • Stroblia (body) with progottids
  • Hermaphroditic
  • Indirect life cycle
86
Q

____ are dorso-ventrally flattened, leaf-like, and have oral and ventral suckers.

A

Trematodes (flukes)

87
Q

Which Arthropods are considered Insects?

A
  • Flies
  • Fleas
  • Lice
  • Hemiptera
88
Q

Which Arthropods are labeled as arachnids?

A
  • Ticks

- Mites

89
Q

True/False. Adult insets have four pairs of legs, a head, thorax and abdomen section, and antenna.

A

False. They have THREE pairs of legs

90
Q

How many pairs of legs do nymph and adult arachnids have compared to larvae?

A

Nymphs and adults = 4 pairs of legs

Larvae = 3 pairs of legs

91
Q

What are the unique characteristics of an arachnid body?

A

Cephalo-thorax and abdomen

No antennae, but palps

92
Q

____ are unicellular, eukaryotic animals that move via flagella, pseudopodia, gliding movements, and cilia.

A

Protozoa

PID (8 decks)

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