Exam 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

During the golden age of microbiology, what where scientists looking for

A

What causes Fermentation
what causes disease
How can we prevent disease and infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who was responsible for finding out that we should wash our hands

A

Ignaz Semmelweis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who was responsible for creating antiseptic techniques

A

Joseph Lister

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who was the first to show infection control/ediology

A

John snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who was the one that created a smallpox vaccination and created the feild of immunology

A

Edward Jenner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the processes of life

A

Growth
Reproduction
Responsiveness
Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the features of prokaryotes

A

No nucleus
No membrane bound organelles
Circular DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the features of Eukaryotes

A

Have nucleus
Membrane bound organelles
Linear DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are Glycocalyces

A

Gelatinouns sticky substance that surrounds cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two types of Glycocalyces

A

Capsule

Slime layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the capsule glycocalyx allow bacteria to do

A

Evade host immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does a slime layer glycocalyx allow bacteria to do

A

Attatch to surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do bacterial cell wall allow them to do

A

Withstand osmotic forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are bacterial cell walls composed of

A

Peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of bacterial cell wall has a thick layer of peptidoglycan

A

Gram +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of bacterial cell wall has a thin layer of peptidoglycan

A

Gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What colours do gram + and gram - bacteria turn in a gram stain

A

Gram + Purple

Gram - pink/red/magenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can m/c pass through a bacterial membrane passivly

A

Diffusion
Facilitated diffusion
Osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can m/c pass through a bacterial membrane activly

A

Active transport

Group translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens when a cell is placed into a hypertonic solution

A

The cell loses water and shinks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens when a cell without a cell wall is placed into a hypotonic solution

A

The cell takes on water and can burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens when a cell with a cell wall is placed in a hypotonic solution

A

Water moves into the cell, but it wont burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are inclusion

A

Reserve deposits of chemicals in the cytoplasm of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are endospores

A

Defensive capsule bacteria can make, so that they “hibernate” until the conditions are favorable again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How big a prokaryote ribosomes

A

70s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How big are eukaryote ribosomes

A

They have a 60s subunit and a 40s subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is resolution when talking about microspoy

A

shortest distance between two specime that can still be distinguished by an observer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the point of staining for microsopy

A

To increase the contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the two stains used in a Gram stain

A
Crystal Violet (purple)
Safarnin (pink)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the two stains used in Acid-Fast stain

A
Methylene blue (blue)
Carbol fuchsin (red)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two stains used in an endospore stain

A
Malachite green (green)
Safranin (pink)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the purpose of an Acid-fast stain

A

to look for mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Why do we need to use acid to stain mycobacteria

A

Because they have a waxy mycolic cell wall that need acid to stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the colour of a positive acid-fast stain

A

Red = mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the colour of a positive Endospore stain

A

Green = endospore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What do most gram + bacteria names end in

A

Us

ium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the special Gram + bacteria that dont end in Us/ium

A

Listeria
Nocardia
Actinomyces
Streptomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do most gram - bacteria names end in

A

a

er

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the special gram - bacteria that dont end in a/er

A
Pseudomonas
Proteus
Vibrio
Haemophilus
Bacterioides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do the names of acid-fast bacteria have in common

A

Mycobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What bacteria gives a fried egg look

A

Mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

who created binomial nomenclature (genus species)

A

Linnaeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who proposed that there are 3 domains (bacteria, archaea, eukarya)

A

Carl Woese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a series of paired statments where only one of two choices applies to any particular organism, Used in determination of species

A

Dichotomous key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an aggregation of cells arising from a single parent cell

A

Colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a collection of microbes in a complex community

A

Biofilm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of bacteria like light for energy and CO2 for carbon

A

Photoautotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What type of bacteria like light for energy and organic compounds for carbon

A

Photoheterotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of bacteria like chemical compounds for energy and CO2 for carbon

A

Chemoautotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of bacteria like CHemical compounds for energy and organic compounds for carbon

A

Chemohetrerotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of bacteria like cold temperatures

A

Psychrophilic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What type of bacteria like moderate temperatures

A

Mesophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of bacteria like high temperature

A

Thermophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What type of bacteria like extreme high temp

A

Hyperthermophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What type of bacteria like high (basic) pH

A

Basophilies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What type of bacteria like Low (acidic) pH

A

Acidophilies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the major growth requirements for microbes

A
Oxygen
Temp
pH
moisture
Osmotic pressure
Light
Food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a defined media

A

A media where all the components are known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a complex media

A

A media where the components are unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is a selective media

A

Contain substances that favour or inhibit growth of particular organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a differential media

A

Visible changes in medium or differences in the appearance of colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is an example of a selective media

A

Sabouraud dextrose arar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is an example of differential media

A

Blood agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is an example of a Selective and differential media

A

MacConkey agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are plasmids

A

Extra chromosomal DNA that is found in microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the name of a fertility plasmid

A

F plamids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the name of a resistance plasmid

A

R plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the name of a plasmid that allows for a bacteria to kill other bacteria

A

Bacteriocin plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the name of a plasmid that allows for a bacteria to become “bad” in the human body

A

Virulence plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is vertical gene transfer

A

Organism replicates their DNA and passes it on to offspring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is horizontal gene transfer

A

Transfer of DNA to another organism, or acquirement or DNA from environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the 3 types of horizontal gene transfer

A

Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What type of horizontal gene transfer has the microbe take up DNA from the environemnt

A

Transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What type of gene transfer requires the cells to be considered Competent

A

Transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is called when i virus transfers DNA from one microbe to another

A

Transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of DNA transfer requires a bacteria to have an F plasmid (F+) and the other to not have an F plasmid (F-)

A

Conjugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the shape of a coccus

A

Sphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the shape of a Bacilus

A

Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the shape of a Vibrio

A

Bat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the shape of a Spirochete

A

Spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the shape of a pleomorphic

A

Random

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the three methods of Asexual reproduction

A

Binary fission
Snapping division
Budding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the result of binary fission

A

1 mother = 2 daughters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the result of snapping division

A

1 mother attached to a daughter (forms a hinge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the result of budding

A

1 mother + 1 daughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the different arragments of Cocci

A
Diplococci
Streptococci
Tetrads
sarcinae
Staphylococci
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the different bacilli arrangments

A

Single bacilus
Diplobacilli
Streptobacilli
Palasade (v-shaped_

88
Q

What type of bacilli arrangement is caused by snapping division

A

Palisade

89
Q

How do algae and fungi reproduse

A

Sexually and asexually

90
Q

What are the characteristics of protozoa

A

Lack cell wall
Require moist environements
Few are pathogens
mainly reproduce asexually

91
Q

DO all protozoa produce trophozoites

A

yes

92
Q

Do all protozoa produce cysts

A

only some

93
Q

What are contractile vacuoles

A

organelle that pumps water from the cells, protecting them from osmotic lysis

94
Q

What is the significance of fungi in terms of health

A

Produce antibiotics
30% cause disease (mycoses)
Spoil food

95
Q

What is the thallus of a fungi

A

Nonreproductive body

96
Q

What are hyphae

A

long tubular filaments of fungi

97
Q

what is mycelium

A

Tangled mass of hyphae

98
Q

What are fungi that produce two types of thalli called

A

Dimorphic

99
Q

What is the mushroom

A

The fruiting body of a fungi

100
Q

in Fungi, What is a series of buds that remain attached to the parent call called

A

Pseudohypha

101
Q

What are characteistics of viruses

A

Acellular
Have DNA or RNA surrounded by a capsid
have intracellular and extracellular state

102
Q

What is the Extracellular state of virus Called

A

Viron

103
Q

What is a virus envelope

A

A phospholipid layer around the capsid

104
Q

What is the intracellular state of a virus

A

Just DNA or RNA

105
Q

What are the different capsid shapes

A

Polyhedral
Complex
Helical

106
Q

What is the most common viral shape

A

Polyhedra (decahedron (20 sides))

107
Q

What does a viral envelope provide

A

Protection from the host recognition system

108
Q

What are the glycoproteins on the viral envelope called

A

Spikes

109
Q

How are viruses classed

A

Type of nucleic acid

Presence of envelope

110
Q

What is lytic replication

A

Replication cycle of a virus that causes lysis of the host cell

111
Q

What is lysogeny

A

Modified lytic cycle where the host cell is able to live+replicate until a signal stimulates viral replication

112
Q

What is lysogenic conversion

A

Where phages carry genes that alter phenotype of bacterium

113
Q

How do animal viruses attach

A

Chemical attraction

Glycoprotein spikes

114
Q

What are the three types of entry of animal virsues

A

Direct penetration
Endocytosis
Membrane fusion

115
Q

What is it called when an animal virus remains dormant in host cells

A

Latent viruses

Proviruses

116
Q

How are viruses cultivated in the lab

A

In mature organisms (bacteria culture)
In embryonated chicken egg
In tissue culture

117
Q

What is a prion

A

Proteinaceous infectious agents (lack nucleic acid)

118
Q

How are prions destroyed

A

Incineration

Autoclaving in sodium hydroxide

119
Q

Where do prions normally cause damage

A

Nervous system

120
Q

What is a tissue characteristic of a prion diseased state

A

Spongy appearance due to formation of large vacuoles

121
Q

What are the roles of microorganisms in food production

A

Fermentation
Starter cultures
Spoilage

122
Q

What do bacteria that produce cheese do

A

They produce acid that curdles the milk

123
Q

What are the two categories fo foodborne illnesses

A

Food infection

Food intoxificatoin

124
Q

What is a food infection

A

Consumption of a microorganism

125
Q

What is food intoxification

A

Consumption of microbial toxins

126
Q

where do the majority of foodborn illnesses come from

A

Food service industry

127
Q

What type of water is safe to drink

A

Potable water

128
Q

What indicates fecal contamination of water

A

presence of Coliforms

129
Q

What are the steps in water treatment

A

Coagulation + Flocculation
Sedimentation
Filtration
Disinfection

130
Q

What is Bio-remediation

A

Use of biological organisms to solve an environmental problem

131
Q

What is Bioterrorism

A

Use of microbes to terrorize human population

132
Q

What is Agroterrorism

A

Use of microbes to terrorize human populations by destroying food supplies

133
Q

What is the criteria for assessing biological threats

A

Impact
delivery potential
Public perception
Public preparadness

134
Q

What is the role of Recombinate genetic technology in bioterrorism

A

Could be used to Make biological weponds or to thwart bioterrorism

135
Q

What is the normal microbiota of a person for their life

A

Resident microbiota

136
Q

What are transient microbiota

A

bacteria that remain in the body for a few hours/months before disappearing

137
Q

What are normal flora

A

Organisms that colonize the body surfaces normally without causing disease

138
Q

What are sites that are free of microbes

A

Axenic

139
Q

When are most persons resident microbes established

A

During first months of life

140
Q

What are opportunistic pathgens

A

Normal microbiota that cause disease under certain circumstances

141
Q

What are reservoirs of infection

A

Sites where pathogens live until they can infect a new host

142
Q

What are the three types of resevoids

A

Animal
Human
Nonliving

143
Q

What is a disease that is spread from animal to humans

A

Zoonoses

144
Q

What are usually dead-end hosts

A

Humans

145
Q

What are individuals who are infected but are asymptomatic

A

Carriers

146
Q

Those who develop and illness from a microbe can be called

A

Cases

147
Q

What is Isolation

A

Separate ill person from the community

148
Q

What is Quarantine

A

Restrict movement of well people who may have been exposed

149
Q

What is contamination

A

Presence of microbes in body

150
Q

What is infection

A

When a microbe evades the bodys immune system

151
Q

What are the three major portals of entry

A

Skin
Mucous membranes
Placenta

152
Q

What is parenteral route of entry

A

Puncture of the skin

153
Q

What is the most common site of microbial entry into a human

A

Respiratory tract

154
Q

What is antigenicity

A

The ability of the substance to stimulate the production of antibodies

155
Q

What is pathogenicity

A

Ability of a microbe to cause disease

156
Q

What is virulence

A

Degree a pathogenicity

157
Q

Are symptoms subjective or objective

A

Subjective

158
Q

are signs subjective or objective

A

Objective

159
Q

What is a syndrome

A

Group of symptoms and signs

160
Q

What factors contribute to virulence

A
Adhesion factors
Biofilms
Extracellular enzymes
Toxins
Antiphagocytic factors
161
Q

What is a common adheision factor

A

Biofilms

162
Q

What do extracellular enzymes do

A

Allow breakdown of collagen so the microbe can penetrate deeper

163
Q

What are the stages of disease

A
Incubation
Prodromal period
Illness
Decline
Covalescence
164
Q

What is the stage of disease where tissues return to normal

A

Covalescence

165
Q

What are the different modes of Transmission

A
Contact
Vehicle
Vector
Airborne
Perinatal
166
Q

What are the two classes of vectors

A

Arachnids

Insects

167
Q

What vectors only carry pathogen

A

Mechanical vectors

168
Q

What vectors serve as hosts

A

Biological vectors

169
Q

What is the most important arachnid vector

A

Ticks

170
Q

What are the most important insect vector

A

Mosquitoes

171
Q

What is the most important of all vectors

A

Mosquitoes

172
Q

What is incidence in terms of epidemiology

A

Number of new cases

173
Q

What is prevalence in terms of epidemiology

A

Total cases

174
Q

What is a pandemic

A

An epidemic on more than one continent

175
Q

What is an epidemic

A

a disease occurs at a greater frequence than normal

176
Q

What is the index case

A

The first case of the disease

177
Q

What type of disease are a result from medical procedures

A

Latrogenic

178
Q

What is a noscomial infection

A

Infection acquired in health-care settings

179
Q

What is the most effective way to control noscomial infections

A

Hand washing

180
Q

What are the basic principals for microbial control

A

Sterilization
Aseptic procedures
Disinfection

181
Q

What is antisepsis

A

Use of chemical on skin or other tissue to remove microbe

182
Q

What is degerming

A

Removal of microbes by scrubbing

183
Q

What is sanitization

A

Disinfection of a public place

184
Q

What is pasteurization

A

use of heat to kill pathogens and reduce spoilage of food

185
Q

What suffixes indicate a chemical agent is used to inhibit growth

A

stasis

static

186
Q

What suffix is used to indicate destroy of permanently inactivate a microbe

A

cide

cidal

187
Q

What measures the efficacy of an antimicrobial agent

A

Death rate

188
Q

What are the two actions of an antimicrobial agent

A

Alteration of cell wall and membranes

Damage to nucleic acid

189
Q

What factos affect efficacy of antimicrobial methods

A

Site

Susceptibility

190
Q

What are moist heat related methods to kill bacteria

A

Boiling
Autoclaving
Pasturization
Ultrahigh temp sterilization

191
Q

liquids that have been treated with ultrahigh-temp sterilization can be stored where

A

at room temperature

192
Q

Can endospores, prions and viruses survive boiling

A

Yes

193
Q

What type of heat-related microbial killing methods uses hot air and incineration

A

Dry heat

194
Q

What are physical methods of microbial control

A
Refrigeration
Freezing
Dessication
Lyophilization
Filtration
Osmotic pressure
Ionizing/nonionizing radiation
195
Q

What is dessication

A

Drying of food to inhibit growth

196
Q

What is lyophilization

A

Freeze drying

197
Q

What type of physical method of microbial control uses high concentrations of salt or sugar

A

Osmotic pressure

198
Q

What have a greater ability to survive osmotic pressure changes

A

Fungi

199
Q

What are two types of ionizing radiation treatments for food

A

Electron beams

Gama rays

200
Q

What is a form of nonionizing radiation

A

UV light

201
Q

What are examples of phenol and phenolics for disinfection

A

Lysol

Pine-sol

202
Q

What are examples of Alcohols for disinfection

A

Rubbing alcohols

203
Q

What are examples of halogens for disinfection

A

Bleach
Chlorine
Iodophores (used in surgery)

204
Q

What are examples of oxidizing agents used in disinfection

A

Hydrogen peroxide

Ozone

205
Q

What is an issue with hydrogen peroxide for disinfection

A

It is cytotoxic, kills healthy cells and granulating tissues

206
Q

What should someone use to clean wounds

A

Saline

Commercial wound cleansers

207
Q

What are examples of surfactants

A

Soaps

Detergents

208
Q

What is idea in disinfecting adjusting tables

A

Quats (surfactant)

209
Q

Are soaps antimicrobial

A

No they are good for degerming

210
Q

What is an example of a heavy metal that was used to disinfection

A

Silver nitrate

Thimerosal

211
Q

What is an aldehyde

A

a compound containing CHO groups

212
Q

What is an example of an antimicrobial aldehyde

A

Glutaraldehyde (dental office, hospitals)

Formalin (embalming)

213
Q

What are examples of gaseous agents used for disinfection

A

Ethylene oxide

214
Q

What is a common enzyme used for disinfection

A

Lysozyme

215
Q

What is an enzyme that can remove prions from medical equipment

A

Prionzyme

216
Q

What type of chemical disinfection method is used to treat diseases

A

Antimicrobials

217
Q

What are other methods one can use to clean

A

Essential oils

Steam cleaners