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Applied Anatomy > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the parts of the axial skeleton?

A

skull, vertebral column, sternum, ribs, hyoid

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2
Q

Name the important roles of the vertebral column.

A

posture, support of body weight, locomotion, protection of spinal cord and roots

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3
Q

The vertebral column consists of ____ vertebrae arranged in ___ regions.

A

33; 5

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4
Q

Name the regions of the vertebral column and the number of vertebrae in each.

A

Cervical (7), Thoracic (12), Lumbar (5), Sacrum (5 fused), and Coccygeal (4 fused)

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5
Q

Name the primary curvatures of the vertebral column.

A

Thoracic and sacral

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6
Q

Normal curvatures occur due to….

A

the shape of the intervertebral discs

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7
Q

The primary curvatures are concave _____.

A

anteriorly

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8
Q

Where is a human’s center of gravity located?

A

anterior to the sacral promotory

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9
Q

What kind of curvature is present in the thoracic and sacral regions of the vertebral column?

A

kyphosis

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10
Q

Name the secondary curvatures of the vertebral column.

A

Cervical and lumbar

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11
Q

The secondary curvatures are concave _____.

A

posteriorly

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12
Q

When does the cervical secondary curvature develop?

A

when an infant develops head control.

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13
Q

When does the lumbar secondary curvature develop?

A

when a child begins to walk (typically 12-18 months)

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14
Q

Describe a kyphosis abnormal curvature.

A

hunchback, older women

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15
Q

Describe a lordosis abnormal curvature.

A

swayback

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16
Q

What cause a lumbar abnormal curvature?

A

compression of the posterior portion of lumbar discs. many activities such as diving, gymnastics

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17
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Lateral or side to side curvature

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18
Q

Many times scoliosis is _____, meaning the cause is unknown

A

idiopathic

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19
Q

What are some typical signs of scoliosis?

A

uneven shoulder, uneven hips, curve in spine, rib hump

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20
Q

The body of a typical vertebrae is primarily composed of _____ bone (give both names).

A

cancellous, spongy

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21
Q

What is the function of the body of a vertebrae?

A

support weight

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22
Q

As you go down the vertebral column, the bodies of the vertebrae become progressively ______ in order to support greater weight.

A

larger

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23
Q

The cartilaginous interfaces between the discs and the vertebral body above and below are the

A

vertebral endplates

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24
Q

Vertebral endplates are made of (thick or thin?) _____ cartilage.

A

hyaline

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25
Q

The outer edge of the vertebral body is called _____ ____ (2 names) and is made up of _____ bone

A

ring apophysis, epiphyseal rim; compact

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26
Q

Name the anterior and poster parts of a typical vertebrae.

A

Anterior: Body
Posterior: Vertebral Arch

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27
Q

What does the vertebral canal protect?

A

spinal cord and nerve roots

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28
Q

What is a pedicle?

A

Joins the vertebral arch to the body of the vertebrae

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29
Q

What is the pars interarticularis?

A

region of the lamina located between the facet (zygopophyseal) joints

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30
Q

Spinous processes typical project in what direction?

A

posteroinferiorly

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31
Q

Transverse processes typically project what direction and from what point?

A

posterolaterally, the junction of the lamina and pedicle

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32
Q

What is a facet (zygapophyseal) joint?

A

the joint between the inferior articular processes of a superior vertebrae and the superior articular processes of an inferior vertebrae

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33
Q

What is the significance of the facets joints direction?

A

The direction of the facet joints determines the direction of movement

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34
Q

What is another name for the superior and inferior vertebral notches and what passes through these?

A

intervertebral foramen, dorsal root ganglia

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35
Q

What region of vertebrae allows for the most movement?

A

cervical

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36
Q

Which region of vertebrae have foramen of the transverse processes?

A

cervical, called foramen transversarium

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37
Q

Which vertebrae have bifid spinous processes?

A

C3-C6

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38
Q

Which vertebrae have characteristic large, triangular vertebral foramen?

A

cervical

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39
Q

Describe the transverse processes of the cervical vertebrae

A

end laterally in two projections forming the anterior and posterior tubercles

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40
Q

What is the name for the large anterior tubercles of the tranverse processes of the C6 vertebra

A

carotid tubercles

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41
Q

What is another name for zygapophyseal joints?

A

articular facet joint

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42
Q

What are the hornlike projections on the body of some cervical vertebrae called?

A

uncinate processes (or uncovertebral joints of Luschka)

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43
Q

Name the first two cervical vertebrae.

A

C1-Atlas

C2- Axis

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44
Q

What is the function of the atlas?

A

supports the skull by articulating with the occipital condyles

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45
Q

Describe the physical characteristics of the atlas.

A

no spinous process or body, ring-shaped with anterior and posterior arches, lateral masses

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46
Q

Which cervical vertebra is the strongest of the region?

A

C2-axis

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47
Q

What is the special physical characteristic of the axis (two names) and what holds it in place?

A

dens (odontoid process), transverse ligament of the atlas

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48
Q

Describe C7.

A

vertebra prominens, very long spinous process, easily papable.

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49
Q

What is the purpose of the costal facets on the thoracic vertebrae?

A

articulation with ribs

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50
Q

Describe how the ribs articulate with the vertebrae.

A
  1. The superior demifacet of a vertebral body articulates with the head of the rib at the same vertebral level.
  2. The inferior demifacet of a vertebral body articulates with the head of the rib inferior to it (below).
  3. The tubercle of of a typical rib articulates with the facet on the transverse process of the vertebra of the same level
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51
Q

The articular facets joints articulate with what?

A

each other

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52
Q

Which thoracic vertebrae have some features of cervical vertebrae?

A

T1-T4

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53
Q

Which thoracic vertebrae are considered to be typical and describe them?

A

T5-T8, heart-shaped bodies with circular vertebral foramina

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54
Q

Which thoracic vertebrae have tubercles similar to lumbar vertebrae?

A

T9-T12

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55
Q

Describe the characteristics of the lumbar vertebrae.

A

massive bodies, sturdy laminae, absence of costal facets because no ribs articulate, kidney shaped bodies, and oval or triangular vertebral foramina

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56
Q

Which regions of the vertebral column have articular, facet, zygapophyseal joints?

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar

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57
Q

Which vertebrae is the largest of all moveable vertebrae and why?

A

L5, needs to transmit all weight of body to sacrum

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58
Q

What is another name for the transverse processes in the lumbar vertebrae?

A

costal processes

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59
Q

Name the two extra processes of the lumbar vertebrae and describe their location.

A

Accessory process- on the posterior surface if the base of each transverse process
Mammillary process- on the posterior surface of superior articular process

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60
Q

Which part of the sacrum is weight bearing and which part is non weight bearing?

A

superior portion- weight bearing

inferior portion- non weight bearing

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61
Q

The sacrum is ___ and ____ shaped.

A

triangular, wedge

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62
Q

What is the function of the sacrum?

A

provide strength an stability to the pelvis, transmits body weight through S_I joint

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63
Q

What is the sacral promontory?

A

projecting anterior edge of the body of the first sacral vertebrae (COG just anterior)

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64
Q

The sacrum is tilted at the articulation with L5 forming the ____ _____

A

lumbosacral angle

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65
Q

What is the median sacral crest?

A

represents fused spinous processes

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66
Q

What is the intermediate sacral crest?

A

represents fused articular processes

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67
Q

What is the lateral sacral crest?

A

tips of the transverse processes of fused vertebrae

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68
Q

The sacral canal is a continuation of the ____ _____

A

vertebral canal

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69
Q

The sacral foramina acts as….

A

anterior and posterior exits for sacral nerves

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70
Q

The top of the sacrum is called the ____ and the inferior end is called the _____.

A

base, apex

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71
Q

Describe the sacral hiatus, where it leads, and what it contains.

A

results from the absence of lamina and spinous process of S5, leads into sacral canal, and contains filum terminale, S5 and coccygeal nerve

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72
Q

What is the sacral cornua?

A

represents inferior articular processes of S5- bony prominences

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73
Q

Name the lateral part of the sacrum that is the site of the sacroiliac joint.

A

auricular (ear) surface

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74
Q

What is the name for the wing shaped portion of the sacrum on the superior, anterior, and lateral region.

A

ala

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75
Q

What is another name for the coccyx?

A

tailbone

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76
Q

What is the coccygeal cornua?

A

represents if the superior articular processes of Co1

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77
Q

True or False: The coccyx supports body weight.

A

False, it does not.

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78
Q

The intervertebral (IV) discs are _____ joints.

A

symphysis type joints

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79
Q

The IV discs are found in what vertebrae?

A

C2/C3-L5/S1

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80
Q

True or False: The IV discs are weight bearing.

A

True

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81
Q

Name the two components of the IV discs.

A

Annulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposes.

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82
Q

The annulus fibrosus is composed of what?

A

concentric lamellae of fibrocartilage

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83
Q

The lamellae of the annulus fibrosus run what direction?

A

obliquely from one vertebrae to another

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84
Q

Lamellae of the annulus fibrosus are (thicker/thinner?) and less numerous _______ than ______ or _______.

A

thinner, posteriorly, anteriorly, laterally

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85
Q

The nucleus pulposus is a _____ material that is highly _____

A

gelatinous, elastic

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86
Q

True or False: The nucleus pulposes has a high water content.

A

True

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87
Q

The annulus fibrosus has a direct blood supply only to its ____ parts.

A

outer

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88
Q

The nucleus pulposes is _____ and therefore receives its nourishment by way of ______.

A

avascular, diffusion

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89
Q

The nucleus pulposes is located more ______.

A

posteriorly

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90
Q

The IV discs vary is size and thickness in different regions of the vertebral column. They are thinnest in the _____ region and thickest in the _____ and _____ regions.

A

thoracic, cervical and lumbar

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91
Q

What is a possible problem with the uncovertebral joints of C3-C6?

A

possibility of formation of bony spurs

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92
Q

What innervates the the IV disc (sinovertebral)

A

recurrent branch of the spinal nerves

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93
Q

The anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL) runs from the ______ (anterior to the foramen magnum) to the ______

A

occiput, sacrum

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94
Q

The ALL functions to…

A

prevent hyperextension and connects the anterolateral space aspects of the vertebral bodies and the IV discs

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95
Q

The posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL) runs within the vertebral canal along the posterior aspect of the vertebral bodies from ____ to the ____

A

C2, sacrum

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96
Q

The PLL functions to…

A

prevent hyperflexion and posterior protrusion of the disc

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97
Q

True or False: The PLL is thicker than the ALL.

A

False, the PLL is thinner than the ALL

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98
Q

The facet or zygapophyseal joints are ____ ____ joints.

A

plane, synovial

99
Q

The facet/zygapophyseal joints allow what kind of movements?

A

gliding movements

100
Q

The facet/zygapophyseal joints are innervated by nerves that arise from the _____ branches if the _____ primary rami

A

median, dorsal

101
Q

Name the accessory ligaments of the vertebral arches.

A

ligamentum flava, interspinous ligaments, supraspinous ligaments, ligamentum nuchae, and intertransverse ligament (relatively thin, not very important).

102
Q

What is the ligamentum flava?

A

joins lamina of adjacent vertebrae, made of yellow elastic tissue

103
Q

The ligamentum flava functions to…

A

prevent separation of lamina, prevent abrupt flexion of the vertebral column and prevent injury to the dics

104
Q

What do the interspinous ligaments do?

A

join adjacent spinous processes (weak)

105
Q

What do the supraspinous ligaments do?

A

join adjacent spinous processes (strong)

106
Q

The supraspinous ligament is found from ____ to ____

A

C7 to sacrum

107
Q

What is the range of the nuchal ligament (ligamentum nuchae) ?

A

external occipital protuberance and the posterior border of the foramen magnum to the spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae–it is a median septum between the muscles on each side of the posterior aspect of the neck

108
Q

True or False: Craniovertebral joints do not have intervertebral discs or facet joints.

A

True

109
Q

The Atlanto-occipital joint lies between…

A

the superior articular surfaces of the atlas (C1) and the occipital condyles

110
Q

The atlanto-occipital joint is a _____ joint of the ____ type

A

synovial, condyloid

111
Q

The atlanto-occipital joint functions to…

A

permit nodding of the head (flexion and extension)

112
Q

The anterior and posterior atlanto-occipital membranes extend from the anterior and posterior arches of ____ to the anterior and posterior margins of the ______ _____. This prevents excessive movement of the atlanto-occipital joints

A

C1, foramen magnum

113
Q

The atlanto-axial joint is a _____ joint between ___ and ____ with ____ articulations.

A

synovial, C1 and C2, 3 (right and left lateral and median)

114
Q

What is the tectorial membrane?

A

a continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament that runs from the body of C2 to the internal surface of the occipital bone.

115
Q

The tectorial membrane covers what two ligaments?

A

alar and transverse ligaments

116
Q

Where and what is the purpose of the transverse ligament of the atlas?

A

extends between the tubercles on the lateral masses of C1; holds the dens of C2 against the anterior arch of C1

117
Q

What forms the cruciform ligament?

A

transverse ligament of the atals and the longitudinal bands (fascicles)

118
Q

What are vertically oriented superior and inferior bands that pass from the transverse ligament to the occipital bone superiorly and to the body of C2 inferiorly?

A

Longitudinal bands (type of craniovertebral joint)

119
Q

The alar (check) ligaments extend from the sides of the ____ to the ____ ____ and check what movements of the head?

A

dens, foramen magnum; rotation and side to side movement of the head

120
Q

The dens of C2 is held in a _____ formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament.

A

collar

121
Q

Normal range of movement of the vertebral column is limited by…(4 things)

A
  1. thickness and compressibility of the discs
  2. resistance if the muscles and ligaments if the back
  3. orientation of the zygapophyseal (facet) joints
  4. tension of the articular capsules of the zygapophyseal (facet) joints
122
Q

Movements between adjacent vertebrae occur at the facet joints and the nucleus pulposes and include ___, ____, ____, and ____.

A

flexion, extension, lateral flexion, and rotation

123
Q

Movements are freer in the ______ and _____ regions than in the _____ region

A

cervical and lumbar, thoracic

124
Q

What is spodylolisthesis?

A

anterior displacement of a vertebra in relation to the vertebra below

125
Q

What is spondylosis?

A

a fracture of the pars interarticularis

126
Q

The ____ region allows for the most rotation

A

thoracic

127
Q

What artery runs through the foramen of the transverse processes in the cervical vertebrae?

A

Vertebral arteries, (not through C7 though)

128
Q

What area of the back does the trapezius muscle cover?

A

the posterior aspect of the neck and superior half of the trunk

129
Q

What do the superficial extrinsic muscles of the back function to do?

A

connect upper limbs to the trunk and is concerned with movement of the upper extremity

130
Q

The trapezius muscle attaches the pectoral girdle to the ____ and _____ and also assists in ______ the pectoral girdle.

A

skull, vertebral column; suspending

131
Q

The superior and inferior fibers of the trapezius rotate the scapula to allow full abduction —> _____ ______.

A

scapulohumeral rhythm

132
Q

What artery supplies the trapezius and what trunk does it arise from?

A

transverse cervical artery-branch of the thyrocervical trunk

133
Q

How far does the nuchal ligament span of the back of the neck?

A

skull to the spinous processes of C7

134
Q

What superficial muscle covers the inferior portion of the back?

A

Latissimus dorsi

135
Q

Along with the pec major, the lat dorsi forms a sling from the trunk to the arm, which functions to….

A

raise the trunk (chin up)

136
Q

The levator scapulae is ____ to the sternocleidomastoid and trap muscles

A

deep

137
Q

What forms the triangle of auscultation?

A

latissimus dorsi, part of the rhomboid major, and the trapezius muscle

138
Q

The intermediate muscles are also know as the _____ muscles of the back

A

respiratory

139
Q

The intrinsic or deep muscles of the back are concerned with…

A

maintenance of posture and movements of the vertebral column and head

140
Q

Where does the intermediate layer of the intrinsic back muscles lie?

A

within the middle and posterior layers of the thoracolumbar fascia

141
Q

Name the erector spinae muscles from lateral to medial.

A

Iliocostalis, Longissimus, and Spinalis

142
Q

What is the common origin of the erector spinae muscles?

A

through a broad tendon which is attached inferiorly to the posterior part of the iliac crest, posterior sacrum, supraspinous ligaments, sacrotuberous and sacroiliac ligaments

143
Q

What is the additional action of the longissimus capitis?

A

rotation of the head to the same side

144
Q

What are the actions of the erector spinae muscles?

A

chief extensors of the vertebral column, maintains erect posture, acting unilaterally-laterally flex the head or vertebral column to the same side

145
Q

The deep layer of the intrinsic back muscles describe the short muscles in the groove between the _____ and ______ of the vertebrae

A

transverse and spinous processes

146
Q

What is another name for the deep layer of the intrinsic back muscles?

A

transversospinal muscles

147
Q

The semispinalis arises from about _____ the vertebral column from ____ to ____

A

half; C4-T12

148
Q

Name how many segments each of the muscles of the deep layer of the intrinsic back muscles spans and their general origin and insertion.

A

Semispinalis: 4-6 segments, TP–>SP (C4-T12)
Multifidus: 2-4 segments, TP –> SP (C2-L5)
Rotatores: 1-2 segments, TP –> SP (whole spinal column)

149
Q

The multifidus is best develop in what region?

A

lumbar

150
Q

Name the deep layer of the intrinsic back muscles in order from most superficial to deep

A

semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores

151
Q

True or False: The multifidus is divided into several bundles.

A

True

152
Q

The rotatores has both a ____ and ____ portion.

A

brevis and longus

153
Q

The interspinales and intertransversarii are better developed in what region more than the other two?

A

cervical

154
Q

The intertransversarii and interspinales (small muscles of the deep back) have been proposed to be more important as what…rather than movement of the vertebral column?

A

organs of proprioception

155
Q

Describe fascia.

A

connection tissue composed of irregularly arranged collagen fibers.

156
Q

The arrangement of collagen fibers of fascia allows it to fulfill a role as ____ _____ which resists…..

A

packing tissue; resist tensional forces in multiple directions

157
Q

True or False: There is both superficial and deep fascia.

A

True

158
Q

The deep fascia covers ____ and blends with the ____ of bone.

A

muscles; periosteum

159
Q

The superficial fascia covers ____ _____.

A

cutaneous structures

160
Q

What are the layers of the thoracolumbar fascia?

A

Posterior, Middle, and Anterior

161
Q

The anterior layer of the thoracolumbar fascia passes anterior to the _____ muscle.

A

quadratus lumborum

162
Q

The middle layer of the thoracolumbar fascia goes between the erector spinae muscles and the ____ _____

A

quadratus lumborum

163
Q

Which layer of the thoracolumbar fascia is the primary link between the tension generated in the abdominal muscles and the lumbar spine?

A

Middle layer

164
Q

The middle layer of the thoracolumbar fascia blends with the aponeurosis of what?

A

transversus abdominis

165
Q

What muscles are responsible for cervical rotation to the same side?

A

levator scapulae, splenius cervicis, longissimus captitis, rectus capitis posterior major and minor, inferior oblique

166
Q

How many pairs is the levator costarum?

A

12, short or long

167
Q

What muscles are responsible for cervical rotation to the opposite side?

A

upper trapezius, semispinalis cervicis and capitis,

168
Q

What muscles are responsible for lateral bending of the cervical spine to the same side?

A

levator scapulae, splenius capitis and cervicis, erector spinae, semispinalis cervicis and capitis, superior and inferior oblique

169
Q

What muscles are responsible for cervical extension?

A

upper trap, levator scapulae, splenius, semispinalis cervicis and capitis, rectus capitis posterior major and minor, superior oblique

170
Q

What are the overlying muscles of the suboccipital triangle?

A

Trapezius, splenius (bandage) and semispinalis capitis

171
Q

Name the boundaries of the suboccipital triangle.

A

superior and medial boundary: rectus capitis posterior major
superior and lateral boundary: obliques capitis superior
inferior and lateraly boundary: obliques capitis inferior
floor: posterior atlanto-occipital membrane and posterior arch of C1
roof: semispinalis capitis

172
Q

What are the contents of the suboccipital triangle?

A

vertebral artery and suboccipital nerve (dorsal ramus of C1)

173
Q

Name the four suboccipital muscles.

A

Rectus capitis posterior major and minor, superior and inferior oblique

174
Q

The rectus capitis posterior major arises from…

A

the spinous process of C2

175
Q

The rectus capitis posterior minor arises from…

A

the posterior tubercle on the posterior arch of C1

176
Q

Both the rectus capitis posterior major and minor insert side by side where?

A

on occiput inferior to the inferior nuchal line

177
Q

What is the function of the rectus capitis posterior major and minor?

A

postural muscles, also help rotate the head to the same side; acting bilaterally they help extend the head

178
Q

The multifidis spans from where to where?

A

C2-L5

179
Q

How far does the rotatores span and where is it most easily seen?

A

The entire length of the spinal column, thoracic region

180
Q

In general, the spinalis runs from ___ process to ___ process from the ______ thoracic region to the ______.

A

spinous, spinous; lower, occiput

181
Q

The CNS consists of….

A

brain and spinal cord

182
Q

The spinal cord begins as a continuation of the _____ _____ and extends from the ____ ____ to the level of the ___ vertebra in an adult.

A

medulla oblongata, foramen magnum, L2

183
Q

At birth, the spinal cord is at the level of ____.

A

L3

184
Q

What are the two enlargements of the spinal cord, where are they located, and what is their purpose?

A

Cervical, C4-T1 (brachial plexus) and Lumbar,T11-S1 (lumbosacral plexus)

185
Q

True or False: Spinal cord segments correspond with vertebral levels.

A

False, they do not. This is because during development the vertebral column grows more rapidly than the spinal cord

186
Q

What is a spinal cord segment?

A

the portion of the spinal cord that gives rise to the roots/rootlets that form one bilateral pair of spinal nerves

187
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31 pairs formed by the union of the dorsal and ventral roots

188
Q

Separate the number of spinal nerve pairs per region.

A 
8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal
189
Q

Ventral roots contain _____ (_____) fibers with cell bodies locates in the ventral _____ horn.

A

efferent (motor); gray

190
Q

Dorsal roots contain _____ (_____) fibers with cell bodies locates in the dorsal _____ ____.

A

afferent (sensory), root ganglia

191
Q

Each spinal nerve divides into a ____ and ____ primary ramus.

A

ventral and dorsal

192
Q

The ventral primary ramus supplies the… and the dorsal primary ramus supplies the…

A

limbs and trunk;

back

193
Q

What is a bundle of nerve rootlets in the subarachnoid space distal to the termination of the spinal cord.

A

cauda equina (horse’s tail)

194
Q

What is the conus medullaris?

A

inferior end of the spinal

195
Q

The spinal arteries supply superior (/) of the spinal cord.

A

1/3

196
Q

What artery is formed by the union of branches from the vertebral arteries and supplies the anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord?

A

anterior spinal artery

197
Q

What arteries are branches of either the vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar arteries and supplies the posterior 1/3 of the spinal cord?

A

2 posterior spinal arteries

198
Q

What arteries are located at the cervical and lumbosacral enlargements where the need for good blood supply is greatest?

A

segmental medullary arteries

199
Q

The segmental medullary arteries arise from a number of different arteries and enter the vertebral canal through the….

A

intervertebral foramen

200
Q

What artery usually arises from the inferior intercostal or upper lumbar artery?

A

great anterior segmental medullary artery (medullary artery of Adamkiewicz)

201
Q

The great anterior segmental medullary artery supplies… and provides the main blood supply to the inferior (/) of the spinal cord.

A

the inferior thoracic, superior lumbar and lumbosacral enlargement; 2/3

202
Q

What artery makes a major contribution to the anterior spinal artery?

A

great anterior segmental medullary artery

203
Q

Radicular arteries supply…

A

dorsal and ventral roots

204
Q

There are usually ___ anterior and ____ posterior spinal veins, They communicate freely and are drained by ____ and ____ veins

A

3,3;

medullary, radicular

205
Q

….are found in the epidural space and communicate with venous sinuses of the dura mater

A

internal vertebral plexuses

206
Q

Name the three layers of spinal meninges.

A

Dura (forms long dural sac), arachnoid, and pia mater

207
Q

What innervates the spinal meninges.

A

recurrent menigeal nerves

208
Q

What is found in the epidural space? What is found in the subdural space?

A

epidural space- adipose tissue and venous plexus

subdural space- potential space

209
Q

What is found in the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebralspinal fluid and blood vessels

210
Q

What are two structures made up of pia mater?

A

filum terminale and denticulate ligament

211
Q

What does the denticulate ligament do?

A

divides the posterior (dorsal) and anterior (ventral) roots (rootlets)

212
Q

The PNS consists of ____ pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

A

12

213
Q

What does the Somatic Nervous System do?

A

carries conscious sensations and innervates voluntary muscles

214
Q

General Somatic Afferents (GSA) fibers of the somatic nervous system transmit what kind of sensation from the body to the CNS?

A

pain, temperature, touch, and proprioception

215
Q

General Somatic Efferent (GSE) fibers of the somatic nervous system carry ___ ____ from the CNS to skeletal muscles

A

motor impulses

216
Q

The visceral nervous system is located in the _____ horn.

A

lateral

217
Q

What does the visceral nervous system do?

A

carries sensation from viscera (internal organs) and innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

218
Q

General Visceral Afferent (GVA) fibers of the visceral nervous system transmits sensory impulses from the ____ to the ____

A

viscera, CNS

219
Q

General Visceral Efferent (GVE) fibers transmits motor impulse from _____ to….

A

CNS;

smooth muscle, cardiac muscles, and glandular tissues

220
Q

The autonomic nervous system is a…. system only.

A

motor efferent

221
Q

All smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands are innervated by the autonomic (_____) nervous system.

A

involuntary

222
Q

What are the divisions (both names) of the ANS and what is the main function of each?

A

Sympathetic Nervous System (thoracolumbar)-fight or flight

Parasympathetic Nervous System (craniosacral)- homeostasis

223
Q

What is the primary function of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

regulate blood vessels

224
Q

The cell bodies of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the ______ cell column in the ____ horn–only in the thoracic and lumbar regions.

A

intermediolateral, lateral

225
Q

The ganglia of the _____ nervous system are located at a distance from their target organ while the ganglia of the ____ nervous system are located close to their target organ.

A

sympathetic, parasympathetic

226
Q

What nerves are located in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

CN III, VII, IX, X, and S2-S4

227
Q

The autonomic nervous system is a two neuron system with both ______ and _____ fibers

A

preganglionic and postganglionic

228
Q

For preganglionic fibers, the ____ neuron begins in the CNS and travels to a ganglion where a synapse occurs with the ____ neuron.

A

1st, 2nd

229
Q

For postganglionic fibers, after the synapse with the ____ neuron, the fibers travel to…

A

2nd, target organ

230
Q

What connects the spinal nerves to the sympathetic chain ganglion?

A

rami communicantes

231
Q

White rami are found between T1-L2 and conveys sympathetic _____ fibers to the ______ ____ and also visceral _____ fibers that pass through the sympathetic chain to the spinal nerve.

A

preganglionic, sympathetic ganglion, afferent

232
Q

True or False: Gray rami are found at every spinal level.

A

True

233
Q

Gray rami conveys sympathetic ______ fibers from the sympathetic chain to the spinal nerve.

A

postganglionic

234
Q

Typical spinal nerves are formed from what?

A

dorsal (sensory) and ventral (motor) roots

235
Q

A dorsal root ganglion which is a collection of cells in located within the…

A

intervertebral foramen

236
Q

Each spinal nerve divides into a ____ which courses to the back and a ____ which followed the body wall to the anterior surface of the body

A

dorsal ramus, ventral ramus

237
Q

Which ventral rami are called intercostal nerves?

A

T1-T11

238
Q

True or False: Typical spinal nerves are mixed nerves.

A

True, contain both sensory and motor fibers

239
Q

GSE motor fibers have cell bodies located in the ____ ___ horn of the spinal cord and GVE fibers have cell bodies located in the ___ horn of the spinal cord (segments T1-L2 only)

A

ventral gray; lateral

240
Q

A spinal nerve contains sensory fibers located whose cell bodies are located in….

A

the dorsal root ganglion (GSA, GVA)

241
Q

A strip of skin supplied by the dorsal root (sensory) of a specific spinal nerve.

A

Dermatome

242
Q

A group of muscles supplied by a single nerve root.

A

Myotome

243
Q

Pain that is perceived as coming from an area remote from its actual origin.

A

Referred pain

Applied Anatomy (6 decks)

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