EXAM #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Structures of the body, pure memorization

A

anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How the body works, processes

A

physiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • Heart, blood vessels, and blood
  • contains nervous tissue, muscle tissue, connective tissue and epithelial tissue
A

The cardiovascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 main functions of the cardiovascular system

A
  1. Transport
  2. Maintenance of homeostasis
  3. Protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The Cardiovascular System:
Transport function
- carries nutrients from _ _ to cells throughout body

A

digestive system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The Cardiovascular System:
Transport function
- carries _ _ from cells of body to kidneys

A

waste products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The Cardiovascular System:
Transport function
- carries _ from endocrine glands to target cells

A

hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Cardiovascular System:
Transport function
- carries _ _: oxygen from lungs to cells and carbon dioxide from cells to lungs

A

respiratory gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The Cardiovascular System:
Maintenance of Homeostasis
- Helps maintain normal, balanced function of the body by participating in maintenance of:
1. _ _ by absorbing and redistributing heat
2. _ _ levels
3. _ _ and _ concentrations

A
  1. body temperature
  2. body fluid
  3. pH levels and electrolyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The Cardiovascular System:
Protection function
- Protects body from _ and other pathogens through the _ _ _
- Prevents excess _ _ at injury sites through _ _ _

A
  • bacteria, immune system elements
  • fluid loss, blood clotting mechanisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is blood?
- _ _ _
- _ & _ _ (RBC, EBC, platelets) known collectively as the _ _
- Surrounded in _ _ _

A
  • Fluid connective tissue
  • cells & cell fragments, formed elements
  • liquid extracellular matrix (plasma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Characteristics of blood:
Approximately _ of body weight

A

7%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Characteristics of blood:
Average of _ liters

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of blood:
_ liters in smaller adults

A

4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Characteristics of blood:
_ liters in larger adult

A

5-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Characteristics of blood:
1 liter ~ 1 quart = _

A

2 pints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Characteristics of blood:
pH between _ and _

A

7.35 & 7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Characteristics of blood:
pH is <7.35

A

Acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Characteristics of blood:
pH is >7.45

A

Alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pH scale:
Basic = _
Neutral = _
Acidic = _

A
  • 14
  • 7
  • 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Characteristics of blood:
Viscosity - _ _ _ than water
- Blood thicker than water because of soluble proteins

A

5 times greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Components of Blood:
Makes up about 55% of blood volume

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Components of Blood:
Makes up about 45% of blood volume

A

Formed elements (RBC, WBC, Platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Components of Blood:
The pale yellow fluid that makes up the extracellular matrix

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Components of Blood:
Plasma
- _ ~ 92%
- _ _ ~7%
- Ions, nutrients, gases, hormones, wastes ~ _

A
  • water
  • plasma proteins
  • 1%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Components of Blood:
More than 90% of plasma is _
- also contains dissolved plasma proteins & other solutes

A

water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Components of Blood:
Blood cells suspended in the plasma

A

formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Components of Blood:
Formed elements
- _ ~ 99.9%
- _ ~ > .1%
- ~ > .1%

A
  • Red blood cells
  • White blood cells
  • Platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Components of Blood:
Plasma is very similar to _ _ because water, ions, and small solutes are exchanged across capillary walls

A

interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Components of Blood:
Difference between plasma and interstitial fluid

A

interstitial fluid has plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Components of Blood:
Plasma proteins (90% synthesized in liver)

A
  • Albumins
  • Globulins
  • Fibrinogens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Components of Blood:
Plasma proteins
- 60% of plasma proteins
- Responsible for _ _ of blood

A

Albumins
- osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Components of Blood:
Plasma proteins
- ~35% of plasma proteins
- immunoglobulins attack foreign proteins and _

A

Globulins
- pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Components of Blood:
Plasma proteins
- Transport _ bind ions, hormones, cholesterol, and other compounds

A

globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Components of Blood:
Plasma proteins
- clotting proteins

A

Fibrinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Components of Blood:
Plasma proteins
- Fibrinogens
- serum = _ after removal of clotting proteins

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Erythrocytes

A

Red Blood Cells (RBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Function of Red Blood Cells:
- Transport some _ from tissues to lungs

A

carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Function of Red Blood Cells:
- Transport most _ from lungs to tissues

A

oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Abundance of Red Blood Cells:
- slightly less than _ the blood volume

A

half (~45% average)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Abundance of Red Blood Cells:
- _ of the formed elements

A

99.9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Abundance of Red Blood Cells:
- _ _ per microliter of blood

A

4-6 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Abundance of Red Blood Cells:
_ new RBCs enter blood stream every second & _ RBCs breakdown every second

A
  • 3 million
  • 3 million
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Abundance of Red Blood Cells:
- % of RBCs
- _ obtained by centrifuging blood sample to separate formed elements from plasma
- buffy coat is layer of WBC & platelets

A

Hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Abundance of Red Blood Cells: Example
Hematocrit of _ means whole blood is 58% plasma & 42% formed elements

A

42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Abundance of Red Blood Cells:
Males have slightly higher _ than females due to more testosterone

A

hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Structure of Red Blood Cells

A
  • very small, highly specialized cells
  • biconcave disc shape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Structure of Red Blood Cells:
Very small, highly specialized cells
- when mature have _ and _ other organelles (allows to be small)

A

no and few

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Structure of Red Blood Cells:
Very small, highly specialized cells
- densely packed with _

A

hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Structure of Red Blood Cells:
Biconcave disc shape
- Provides large surface to volume ratio necessary for _ _ _
- allows RBCs to stack, bend, flex

A

rapid gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Globular protein, formed from 4 polypeptide subunits (2 alpha & 2 beta)

A

Hemoglobin (Hb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb):
- each subunit contains a molecule of _

A

heme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb):
Heme - Pigment molecule containing ionized iron (Fe2+) which can _ bind an oxygen molecule
- weak bond, easily broken by pressure gradient

A

reversibly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb):
- Each RBC contains about _ Hb

A

280 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb):
- Each RBC can carry over _ molecules of oxygen

A

a billion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Hemoglobin function:
At lungs, where oxygen concentration is high
- hemoglobin _ oxygen

A

binds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hemoglobin function:
At lungs, where oxygen concentration is high
- _ = bright red in color

A

oxyhemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hemoglobin function:
At peripheral tissues, where oxygen concentration is low
- carbon monoxide _ binds to heme iron preventing oxygen from binding
- strong bond, stays for a very long time, blocks out oxygen (O2 cannot compete with CO)

A

irreversibly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Oxygen concentration high in _ and low in _

A
  • lungs
  • tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hemoglobin disorder:
- most common in people from African descent

A

sickle-cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Hemoglobin disorder:
- beta chain of Hb is abnormal
- In _ oxygen, Hb molecules interact causing cell to become stiff and curved

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Hemoglobin disorder:
Sickle-cell
- _ _ _ = 1 single gene, normally fine, extreme oxygen deficit can activate
- _ _ _ = active all the time

A
  • sickle-cell trait
  • sickle-cell anemia disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Hemoglobin disorder:
- similar but less common genetic hemoglobin disorder
- most common in people of Mediterranean descent

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Blood:
- cells & cell fragments
- approximately 45% of total blood volume

A

Formed Elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Blood:
Formed Elements
- Red blood cells (RBC) = _

A

erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Blood:
Formed Elements
- White blood cells (WBC) = _

A

leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Blood:
Formed Elements
- Platelets ~ _

A

thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Blood: Formed Elements
White blood cells (WBC) = leukocytes are mostly found in _

A

tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Blood: Formed Elements
The production of blood cells in red bone marrow (known as myeloid tissue)

A

Hemopoiesis (hematopoiesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Pre-fix -cyte means
ex: erythrocyte, leukocyte

A

cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Blood: Formed Elements
platelets are _ _

A

cell fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
All begins with _

A

hemocytoblasts ( -blasts=build, - cyto=cells/stem cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
_ in myeloid tissue (red bone marrow) that divide to produce

A

Stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
2 main kinds of stem cells in myeloid tissue (red bone marrow) that divide to produce

A
  1. myeloid stem cells
  2. lymphoid stem cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
A kind of stem cell in myeloid tissue (red bone marrow) that divide to produce
- Give rise to RBCs, platelets, and 4 of the 5 types of WBCs

A

myeloid stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
A kind of stem cell in myeloid tissue (red bone marrow) that divide to produce
- Become lymphocytes (specialized WBCs)

A

lymphoid stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
_ white blood cells
_ from myeloid stem cells
_ from lymphoid stem cells

A
  • 5
  • 4
  • 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
Hemocytoblasts divide by mitosis into _ & _

A

myeloid stem cells & lymphoid stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
Lymphoid stem cells result in what kind of white blood cell

A

lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
Myeloid stem cells result in what kinds of white blood cells

A
  • basophils
  • eosinophils
  • neutrophils
  • monocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
Myeloid stem cells result in

A
  • erythrocytes
  • platelets
  • 4/5 white blood cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
Myeloid stem cells
- _ become platelets

A

megakarocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Blood: Hemopoeisis
Myeloid stem cells
- EPO
- ejection of nucleus = _
- then become _

A
  • reticulocyte
  • erythrocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Blood: RBC formation and turnovers
1% of circulating RBCs are replaced per day
- about _ _ new RBCs enter bloodstream each second

A

3 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Blood: RBC formation and turnovers
life span = approximately _ days
- travel ~ 700 miles

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Blood: RBC formation and turnovers
RBCs travel ~ _ per 120 days

A

700 miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Blood: RBC formation and turnovers
RBCs are _ and _ constantly at approximately the same rate

A

destroyed and replaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Blood: RBC formation and turnovers
RBC made by erythropoiesis in _ _ _

A

red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Blood: RBC formation and turnovers
RBC destroyed by phagocytosis in _ & _

A

liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

RBC production called _
- occurs in red bone marrow

A

erthropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Stages in RBC production
- Hemocytoblast
- Myeloid stem cell

A
  1. Proerythroblast
    2-4. erythroblast stages
    5-7. reticulocyte
    = mature erythrocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Stages in RBC production
- immature red blood cell,
- ejected nucleus
- enters bloodstream days 5-7

A

reticulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Stages in RBC production
- EPO (erythropoietin)

A

day 1: proerythroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Regulation of RBC production (erythropoiesis):
- adequate supply of _ _ and _ and _ _
- _

A
  • amino acids, vitamins B6 & B12, and folic acid
  • hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Regulation of RBC production (erythropoiesis):
- Hormones

A
  • Thyroxine
  • Androgens (testosterone)
  • Growth hormone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Regulation of RBC production (erythropoiesis):
Hormones
- released by kidney in response to hypoxia

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Regulation of RBC production (erythropoiesis):
Hormones
- stimulates erythroblast cell division

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Regulation of RBC production (erythropoiesis):
Hormones
- accelerates Hb synthesis and RBC maturation

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

erythropoietin (EPO) involved in what 3 main things of RBC production

A
  1. released by kidney in response to hypoxia
  2. stimulates erythroblast cell division
  3. accelerates Hb synthesis and RBC maturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Regulation of RBC production (erythropoiesis):
- EPO or packed RBCs –> not a good idea

A

blood doping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

RBC turnover:
After ~120 day lifespan OR damage _ of spleen, liver, and red bone marrow engulf RBCs, remove Hb and break Hb into components

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

RBC turnover:
Macrophages (of spleen, liver & red bone marrow) _ aged or damaged RBCs

A

engulf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

RBC turnover:
Macrophages (of spleen, liver & red bone marrow) remove Hb molecules from _ RBCs

A

hemolyzed (ruptured)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

RBC turnover:
Macrophages (of spleen, liver & red bone marrow) break _ into components

A

hemoglobin (Hb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

small macrophage (active) = _

A

Monocyte (inactive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

3 ways for hemoglobin (Hb) turnover

A
  1. Globulin proteins
  2. Heme pigments
  3. Heme iron is recycled
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Globulin proteins - disassembled into _ _ to be re-used

A

amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Heme pigments
- converted to biliverdin (greenish), then _ (yellow-orange)

A

bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Heme pigments
- _ is excreted by liver in bile

A

Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Heme pigments
- _ is caused by buildup of bilirubin

A

jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Heme pigments
- converted by intestinal bacteria and oxygen to _ and _

A

urobilins and stercobilins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Heme iron is recycled
- stored in _
- or transported throughout the bloodstream bound to transferrin

A

phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Bilirubin at high levels can be _

A

toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
_ stores bile

A

gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Heme pigments
- makes pee yellow

A

urobilins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb) turnover:
Heme pigments
- makes poo brown

A

stercobilins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Blood disorders:
Low RBC or low hemoglobin

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Blood disorders:
Anemia
- lysing (exploding) of RBCs too fast

A

Hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Blood disorders:
Anemia
- low B12

A

pernicious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Blood disorders:
Anemia
- not enough iron in diet
- pregnancy

A

iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Blood disorders:
Anemia
- actively hemorrhaging (may be internal)
- menstruation

A

hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Blood disorders:
- high RBC count

A

polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Blood disorders:
- _ is blood in urine
- _ is blood proteins in urine

A
  • hematuria
  • hemoglobinuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Leukocytes

A

White Blood cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

White Blood cells function

A
  • defend the body against pathogens
  • remove toxins, wastes & abnormal cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Abundance of WBCs:
Less than _ of the formed elements

A

0.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Abundance of WBCs:
1 microliter of blood has ~5 million RBCs and _ WBCs

A

~7 thousand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Abundance of WBCs:
WBCs in blood are small fraction of total WBCs
- majority of WBCs are in _

A

tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

White Blood Cells structure:
WBCs have _ _ and typical _ _
- high concentration of secretory vesicles, phagocytic vesicles, and lysosomes

A
  • large nucleus
  • cellular organelles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

White Blood Cells activity:
WBCs exhibit _ movement

A

amoeboid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

White Blood Cells activity:
WBCs exhibit amoeboid movement in which 2 ways

A
  1. emigration (move to areas in need)
  2. positive chemotaxis (move toward chemicals)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Most White Blood Cells are _

A

phagocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

White Blood Cells: Defense against pathogens
nonspecific defenses

A
  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
  • monocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

White Blood Cells: Defense against pathogens
specific defenses

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Types of WBCs:
- 50-70% of circulating WBCs

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Types of WBCs:
- short life span of ~ 10 hours, or even shorter if
actively engulfing bacteria, debris, etc. (Pus-many dead)

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Types of WBCs:
- Phagocytic: engulf pathogens or debris in tissues

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Types of WBCs:
- 2-4% of circulating WBCs

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Types of WBCs:
- increase in number during parasitic infections (release toxins)

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Types of WBCs:
- increase number during allergic reactions

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Types of WBCs:
- Phagocytic: engulf antibody-labeled materials, reduce inflammation

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Types of WBCs:
- 2-8% of circulating WBCs

A

Monocytes/Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Types of WBCs:
- Largest WBC

A

Monocytes/Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Types of WBCs:
- Migrate out of blood vessels and become macrophages

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Types of WBCs:
- Macrophages = aggressive phagocytes, engulf pathogens or debris

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Types of WBCs:
- less than 1% of circulating WBCs

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Types of WBCs:
- cross capillary endothelium and accumulate in damaged tissue

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Types of WBCs:
- release histamine and heparin

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Types of WBCs: Basophils
dilates blood vessels

A

histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Types of WBCs: Basophils
prevents blood clotting

A

heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Types of WBCs:
- 20-40% of circulating WBCs

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Types of WBCs:
- continuously migrate in and out of bloodstream

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Types of WBCs:
- provide defense against specific pathogens or toxins

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Types of WBCs: Lymphocytes
- 3 types of cells

A
  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. NK cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Types of WBCs: Lymphocytes
mediated immunity
- secrete chemicals

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Types of WBCs: Lymphocytes
humoral immunity, produce antibodies
- when activated pump out antibodies

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Types of WBCs: Lymphocytes
natural killer cells, destroy abnormal tissue cells
- cancer

A

NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

White Blood Cells:
_ _ used to distinguish among disorders
- parasitic infection, inflammation, allergic reaction

A

differential count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

WBC differential count can indicate a disorder of WBCs:
- decreased # of WBCs

A

Leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

WBC differential count can indicate a disorder of WBCs:
- increased # of WBCs
- leukemia

A

leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

cancer of WBCs

A

leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

White Blood Cells:
Leukopenia

A

decreased # of WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

White Blood Cells:
Leukocytosis

A

increased # of WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

WBC produced from _

A

hemocytoblasts (stem cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

WBC production:
Eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils and
monocytes are produced in bone marrow by
_ _ _

A

myeloid stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

WBC production:
Lymphocytes produced from stem cells that
migrate to _ _ (thymus, spleen,
lymph nodes)

A

lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Platelets:
cell fragments involved in _

A

clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Platelets:
_ per microliter of blood

A

150,000 to 500,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

low # of platelets
- increased risk for hemorrhage

A

thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

high # of platelets
- increased risk of blood clots

A

thrombocytosis

171
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

low # of platelets

172
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

high # of platelets

173
Q

Platelets produced in bone marrow from _

A

megakaryocytes

174
Q

megakaryocytes produce _ by shedding membrane-enclosed packets of cytoplasm and proteins (cell fragments )

A

platelets

175
Q

Major components of the cardiovascular system

A
  • blood
  • heart
  • blood vessels (arteries, capillaries, veins)
176
Q

Cardiovascular system:
Blood to and from lungs

A

pulmonary circuit

177
Q

Cardiovascular system:
Blood to and from rest of the body

A

systemic circuit

178
Q

The heart:
- hollow muscular organ that acts as a _
- receives and pumps blood from two different circuits
- each circuit begins and ends at the heart

A

pump

179
Q

The heart circuits:
Carries blood to and from gas exchange surfaces of lungs
- blood travels through circuits in sequence

A

pulmonary circuit

180
Q

The heart circuits:
Carries blood to and from the rest of the body
- blood travels through circuits in sequence

A

systemic circuit

181
Q

Blood vessels:
carry blood away from the heart

A

arteries

182
Q

Blood vessels:
carry blood to the heart

A

veins

183
Q

Blood vessels:
small vessels connecting between arteries and veins

A

capillaries

184
Q

Blood vessels:
site of exchange of gasses, nutrients, fluids between blood and interstitial fluid

A

capillaries

185
Q

The Heart:
Right atrium receives _ _ blood from body

A

low oxygen

186
Q

The Heart:
Right ventricle receives low oxygen from the right atrium, pumps it to the _

A

lungs (pulmonary circuit)

187
Q

The Heart:
Left atrium receives _ blood from lungs

A

oxygenated

188
Q

The Heart:
Left ventricle receives oxygenated blood from left atrium and pumps it to the _

A

body (systemic circuit)

189
Q

Chambers of the Heart:
Right and left chambers separated by partitions of connective tissue and muscle

A
  • interatrial sepetum
  • interventricular sepetum
190
Q

Chambers of the Heart:
_ _ separates atria and ventricles
- two distinct muscle masses that contract separately

A

fibrous skeleton (connective tissue)

191
Q

Chambers of the Heart:
right & left atria contract as _ _

A

one unit

192
Q

Chambers of the Heart:
Right & left ventricles contact as _, after the atrial contraction

A

one

193
Q

Chambers of the Heart:
_ control openings across the atrial-ventricular septum

A

valves

194
Q

Chambers of the Heart: Internal anatomy & organization
Thin walled chambers

A

atria

195
Q

Chambers of the Heart: Internal anatomy & organization
- receive blood from the veins and pump through valves to the ventricles

A

atria

196
Q

Chambers of the Heart: Internal anatomy & organization
- thick walled chambers

A

ventricles

197
Q

Chambers of the Heart: Internal anatomy & organization
- receive blood from atria and pump through valves into arteries

A

ventricles

198
Q

Chambers of the Heart: Internal anatomy & organization
- _ _ is more muscular than the right ventricle

A

left ventricle

199
Q

Chambers of the Heart: Internal anatomy & organization
- Left ventricle needs to generate more _ to pump blood through systemic circuit

A

force

200
Q

Sequence of events in one cardiac cycle:
1. cardiac contraction
- _ contract, push remaining blood into ventricle, then atria relax
- _ contract, push blood into arteries, then ventricles relax
2. cardiac relaxation
- both atria and ventricles are in relaxed state until next heart beat starts

A
  • atria
  • ventricle
201
Q

Blood flow through heart depends on:

A
  1. opening and closing of 4 valves (2 atrioventricular valves, 2 semilunar valves)
  2. contraction and relaxation of myocardium (cardiac muscle) of atria and ventricles
202
Q

Blood types are determined by the presence or absence of specific _ & _ in cell membranes of RBCs

A

glycolipids and glycoproteins

203
Q

Blood types:
cell surface glycolipids and glycoproteins are cell identity factors called _

A

antigens

204
Q

Blood types:
Immune system recognizes _ as “self” (ignores) or “foreign” (attacks)

A

antigens

205
Q

Blood types are _ determined

A

genetically

206
Q

Blood types:
Glycoprotein = _

A

Rh factor (+)

207
Q

Blood types:
Glycolipid = _

A

A, B, AB

208
Q

Blood types:
Antibodies to _ surface antigens circulate in the plasma

A

“foreign”

209
Q

Blood types:
Antibodies to “foreign” surface antigens circulate in the plasma
- antibodies to A or B
- antibodies to Rh factor –> requires _

A

sensitization (exposure)

210
Q

Blood types & cross-reactions:
Antibodies cross-react (bind to) antigens of “foreign” blood cells
- causes _
- causes _

A
  • clumping (agglutination)
  • hemolysis
211
Q

Blood types & cross-reactions:
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur in _ fetus carried by _ mother

A
  • Rh +
  • Rh -
212
Q

Blood types:
You are not born with _ but have to be exposed to it to have a (-) negative

A

Rh factor

213
Q

Blood type A has
- _ antigens
- _ antibodies

A
  • A antigens
  • B antibodies (anti-B)
214
Q

Blood type B has
- _ antigens
- _ antibodies

A
  • B antigens
  • A antibodies (anti-A)
215
Q

Blood type AB has
- _ antigens
- _ antibodies

A
  • A & B antigens
  • No antibodies
216
Q

Blood type O has
- _ antigens
- _ antibodies

A
  • No antigens
  • A & B antibodies (anti-A & anti-B)
217
Q

Hemostasis

A

Blood clotting (cessation of bleeding)

218
Q

3 phases of hemostasis (Blood clotting)

A
  1. vascular phase
  2. platelet phase
  3. coagulation phase
219
Q

Hemostasis phases:
- local blood vessel constriction

A

vascular phase

220
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Vascular phase
- local blood vessel constriction
- contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessel walls
- _ _

A

muscular spasm

221
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Vascular phase
- after spasm, blood vessel releases chemical factors triggering clotting and becomes _

A

sticky

222
Q

Epithelium lining the blood vessels is called _

A

endothelium

223
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Vascular phase

A
  • blood vessel constricts and spasms
  • releases chemical factors and becomes sticky to get ready for platelets
224
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Platelet phase

A
  • platelet adhesion
  • platelets aggregation creates platelet plus (build up)
225
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Activation
- change shape
- release factors stimulating aggregation and vascular spasm
- release clotting factors and calcium ions

A

Platelet phase

226
Q

Hemostasis phases:
clot actually forms

A

Coagulation phase

227
Q

Hemostasis phases:
- begins 30 seconds or more after injury

A

coagulation phase

228
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase depends on

A
  • clotting factors (11 different proteins)
  • calcium
  • proenzymes
229
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase
- Proenzymes are inactive enzymes activated by chemicals from _ _ _ _

A

damaged cells and platelets

230
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase
- Triggering initiates a _ _ chain reaction

A

positive-feedback loop

231
Q

Blood thinners are _

A

anti-coagulations

232
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase - common pathway
- _ and _ pathways are completed first

A

intrinsic & extrinsic

233
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase - common pathway
- After intrinsic & extrinsic pathways

A

Factor X (10)

234
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase - common pathway
- Factor X (10) chain reaction leads to

A

prothrombin activator

235
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase - common pathway
- Prothrombin activator converts _ to _

A

prothrombin (inactive) to _thrombin (active)

236
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase - common pathway
- Thrombin contributes to the conversion of _ to _

A

fibrinogen (inactive) to fibrin (active)

237
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase - common pathway
- Inactive enzyme made in liver, always present in plasma

A

prothrombin

238
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase - common pathway
soluble protein made in liver, always present in plasma

A

fibrinogen

239
Q

Hemostasis phases:
Coagulation phase - common pathway
- insoluble strands of protein, form clot, trapping platelets and RBcs

A

fibrin

240
Q

Hemostasis phases:
- platelets contract
- pull damaged areas together

A

retraction

241
Q

Hemostasis:
- gradual process of dissolving clots

A

Fibrinolysis

242
Q

Blood clot process:
Fibrinolysis
- Thrombin and tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) activate plasminogen, producing _

A

plasmin

243
Q

Blood clot process:
Fibrinolysis
- _ & _ activator (t-PA)

A

Thrombin (inactive) and tissue plasminogen (active with contact)

244
Q

Blood clot process:
Fibrinolysis (retraction)
- plasmin _ fibrin strands

A

digests

245
Q

Clot prevention:
clotting should not occur except in area of _

A

blood vessel damage

246
Q

Clot prevention:
Normal plasma contains several anti-coagulants
- enzymes that inhibit clotting by inhibiting one or more

A
  • Antithrombin III
  • Thrombomodulin
  • Heparin
247
Q

Clot prevention:
Accelerates activation of antithrombin III)

A

heparin

248
Q

Drugs in preventing clotting

A
  • heparin
  • coumadin (warfarin)
  • aspirin
249
Q

Drugs that dissolve existing clots

A
  • Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
  • Streptokinase and urokinase
250
Q

Inadequate blood clotting:
Nutrients deficiencies
- low plasma concentrations of _ impairs blood clotting

A

calcium

251
Q

Inadequate blood clotting:
Nutrients deficiencies
- _ _ deficiency leads to bleeding disorder - needed in liver for synthesis of four of the clotting factors
- produced by intestinal bacteria

A

vitamin K

252
Q

Inadequate blood clotting:
genetic disorder
- inherited, sex-linked

A

hemophilia

253
Q

Excessive blood clotting:
- blood clot attached to blood vessel wall

A

thrombous

254
Q

Excessive blood clotting:
enlarging _ can block blood vessel or pieces can break off becoming embolus

A

thrombus

255
Q

Excessive blood clotting:
A blood clot circulating in blood system

A

embolus

256
Q

Excessive blood clotting:
embolus becomes stuck and blocks a blood vessel

A

embolism

257
Q

Excessive blood clotting types

A
  • thrombus
  • embolus (can become embolism)
258
Q

The heart:
2 types of cardiac muscle cells

A
  1. contractile myocardial cells
  2. myocardial cells of conducting system
259
Q

The heart:
contractile myocardial cells & myocardial cells of conducting system work together to produce a _

A

heartbeat

260
Q

The heart:
The conducting system
- consists of specialized, _, cardiac muscle cells

A

non-contractile

261
Q

The heart:
The conducting system
- _ produce spontaneous action potentials

A

nodal myocardial cells (pacemakers)

262
Q

The heart:
The conducting system
- _ _ _ propagate the electrical signal (action potential) rapidly through out the mass of heart muscle cells

A

conducting myocardial cells

263
Q

The heart:
The conducting system
- 2 types of nodes

A
  1. sinoartial (SA) node
  2. atrioventricular (AV) node
264
Q

The heart:
The conducting system - node
- located in wall of right atrium

A

sinoatrial (SA) node

265
Q

The heart:
The conducting system - SA node
- initiates action potential that _ the cardiac contraction cycle

A

starts

266
Q

The heart:
The conducting system - node
- located at junction between atria and ventricle

A

atrioventricular (AV) node

267
Q

The heart:
The conducting system - AV node
- conducts electrical signal _ atrial ventricular septum

A

across

268
Q

The heart:
The conducting system
- internodal pathways
- rapidly conduct action potential from SA node to atria muscle cells and to AV node

A

atrial conducting cells

269
Q

The heart:
The conducting system
- rapidly conduct action potentials from AV node to ventricle muscle cells
- AV bundle (bundle of His), Bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

A

ventricular conducting cells

270
Q

The heart:
The conducting system - atrial conducting cells
- rapidly conduct action potential from _ _ to _ _ _ and to _ _

A
  • SA node
  • atrial muscle cells
  • AV node
271
Q

The heart:
The conducting system - ventricular conducting cells
- rapidly conduct action potential from _ _ to _ _ _

A
  • AV node
  • ventricle muscle cells
272
Q

Step 1 of the conducting system of the Heart

A

SA node activity and atrial activation begin

273
Q

Step 2 of the conducting system of the Heart

A

stimulus spreads across the atrial surfaces and reaches the AV node

274
Q

Step 3 of the conducting system of the Heart

A
  • there is a 100-msec delay at the AV node
  • atrial contraction begins
275
Q

Step 4 of the conducting system of the Heart

A

impulse travels along the interventricular septum within the AV bundle and the bundle branches to the Purkinje fibers and, via the moderator band, to the papillary muscles of the right ventricle

276
Q

Step 5 of the conducting system of the Heart

A
  • impulse is distributed by Purkinje fibers and relayed throughout the ventricular myocardium
  • atrial contraction is completed, and ventricular contraction begins
277
Q

Electrocardiogram:
Electrical depolarization spreads from SA node through atrial muscle cells

A

P wave

278
Q

Electrocardiogram:
Depolarization spreading from AV bundles and Purkinje fibers through ventricle muscle cells

A

QRS complex

279
Q

Electrocardiogram:
Repolarization of ventricle muscle cells

A

T wave

280
Q

Abnormalities of conducting system:
Slower than normal heart rate

A

Bradycardia

281
Q

Abnormalities of conducting system:
Faster than normal

A

tachycardia

282
Q

Abnormalities of conducting system:
Conducting deficits
- _ node can take over if SA node is lost

A

AV

283
Q

Abnormalities of conducting system:
Conducting deficits
- an area other than SA or AV node is generating action potentials that initiate contractions

A

ectopic pacemaker

284
Q

Abnormalities of conducting system:
abnormal patterns of cardiac electrical activity
- clinically important if pumping efficiency of heart is reduced

A

arrhythmias

285
Q

The heart:
Movements and forces generated during cardiac contractions

A

Cardiodynamics

286
Q

Cardiodynamics:
Amount of blood in each ventricle at the end of ventricular diastole

A

End-diastolic volume (EDV)

287
Q

Cardiodynamics:
Amount of blood remaining in each ventricle at the end of ventricular systole

A

End-systolic volume (ESV)

288
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
Atrial systole
- at start of cardiac cycle, atria, and ventricles have blood received during diastole
- ventricles are _

A

~70% filled

289
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
Atrial systole pushes blood into the ventricle, filling to _

A

100%

290
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
Arterial systole
- 100% filled = _ _ of blood in the ventricles

A

end-diastolic volume (EDV)

291
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
Arterial systole
- end-diastolic volume = _ in resting adult

A

~130 milliliters

292
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
ventricular systole occurs building up pressure on blood until _ _ open

A

semilunar valves

293
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
ventricular systole
- _ _ occurs pushing blood into arteries

A

ventricular ejection

294
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
ventricular systole
- ~70-80 milliliters ejected = _

A

stroke volume

295
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
ventricular systole
- ~60% ejected = _

A

ejection fraction

296
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
ventricular systole
- ~40% remains in ventricle = _

A

end-systolic volume (ESV)

297
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
ventricular systole
- stroke volume

A

~70-80 milliliters

298
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
ventricular systole
- ejection fraction

A

~60%

299
Q

Pressure and volume changes:
ventricular systole
- end-systolic volume (ESV)

A

~40% remains in ventricle

300
Q

Cardiodynamics:
Amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle during a single beat

A

stroke volume (SV)

301
Q

Cardiodynamics:
EDV - ESV = _

A

SV

302
Q

Cardiodynamics:
Percentage of the EDV pumped out of each ventricle during a single beat

A

ejection fraction

303
Q

Cardiodynamics:
SV/EDV = _%

A

EF

304
Q

Cardiodynamics:
Volume pumped by left ventricle in one minute

A

cardiac output (CO)

305
Q

Cardiodynamics:
cardiac output (CO) is measured in _

A

mL/min

306
Q

Cardiodynamics:
Heart rate (HR) is measured in _

A

beats/min

307
Q

Cardiodynamics:
Stroke volume (SV) is measured in _

A

mL/beat

308
Q

Cardiodynamics:
Resting adult has _ liters/min

A

~6 (6000ml/min)

309
Q

Cardiodynamics:
75 beats/min x 80 ml/beat = _

A

6000 ml/min

310
Q

Control of cardiac output:
cardiac output is adjusted to meet circulatory demands
- change in _ (ANS, hormones, stretch receptors)

A

heart rate

311
Q

Control of cardiac output:
cardiac output is adjusted to meet circulatory demands
- change in _ (venous return, blood pressure)

A

stroke volume

312
Q

2 controls of cardiac output

A
  1. change in heart rate
  2. change in stroke volume
313
Q

Valves of the heart:
Between atria and ventricles

A

atrio-ventricular valves

314
Q

Valves of the heart:
atrio-ventricular valves
- right AV valve = _
- Left AV valve = _

A
  • tricuspid
  • bicuspid (mitral)
315
Q

Valves of the heart:
- pulmonary valve
- aortic valve

A

semilunar (ventricular-arterial) valves

316
Q

Valves of the heart:
Semilunar valve
- from right ventricle into pulmonary arterial trunk (to lungs)

A

pulmonary valve

317
Q

Valves of the heart:
Semilunar valve
- from left ventricle into aortic artery (to body tissues)

A

aortic valve

318
Q

Functions of heart valve:
controlled by _ _

A

ventricular contraction

319
Q

Functions of heart valve:
Atrioventricular (AV) valves
- are in _ _ when atria and ventricles are relaxed

A

open position

320
Q

Functions of heart valve:
Atrioventricular (AV) valves
- are in _ when atria are contracting

A

open

321
Q

Functions of heart valve:
Atrioventricular (AV) valves
- are _ _ when ventricles contract to prevent backflow of blood from ventricles to atria

A

forced closed

322
Q

Functions of heart valve:
Semilunar valves
- are in _ _ when atria and ventricles are relaxed, and when atria contract

A

closed position

323
Q

Functions of heart valve:
Semilunar valves
- are _ _ when ventricles contract enough to raise pressure higher than blood pressure in the arteries

A

forced open

324
Q

Functions of heart valve:
Semilunar valves
- are _ again when ventricles stop contracting

A

closed

325
Q

Valvular disorders:
_ side of heart has most disorders

A

left

326
Q

Valvular disorders:
- stenosis
- bicuspid

A

aortic valve

327
Q

Valvular disorders:
- prolapse

A

bicuspid valve

328
Q
  • small
  • single nucleus
  • abundant mitochondria
  • very extensive blood supply
  • interconnected by intercalated discs (gap junctions provide electrical interconnection)
A

myocardial cells (cardiac muscle cells)

329
Q

Contractile myocardial cells:
Action potential
- rapid _ caused by opening of voltage-gated _ ion channels

A
  • depolarization
  • sodium
330
Q

Contractile myocardial cells:
Action potential
- A _ depolarized phase caused by opening of slow voltage-gated _ ion channels

A
  • plateau
  • calcium
331
Q

Contractile myocardial cells:
Action potential
- repolarization caused by opening of _ ion channels

A

potassium

332
Q

Calcium ion & myocardial cell contraction:
- calcium ions bind to _ complex causing it to shift position

A

troponin-tropomyosin

333
Q

Calcium ion & myocardial cell contraction:
- Calcium enters the cell membranes during the _ phase
- affected by interstitial calcium levels

A

plateau

334
Q

Calcium ion & myocardial cell contraction:
- additional calcium is released from reserves in the _

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

335
Q

Calcium ion & myocardial cell contraction:
- calcium comes from _ _ & _ _

A
  • extracellular fluid
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
336
Q

Heart sounds are detected with a _

A

stethoscope

337
Q

Heart sounds:
“lubb” = _

A

closing of the AV valves (tricuspid)

338
Q

Heart sounds:
“dupp” = _

A

closing of the semilunar valves (bicuspid)

339
Q

Heart sounds detected by a _

A

stethoscope

340
Q

Heart sounds:
sound from blood regurgitating through a valve

A

heart murmur

341
Q

Cardiac cycle:
contraction = _

A

systole (120)

342
Q

Cardiac cycle:
relaxation = _

A

diastole (80)

343
Q

Phases of the cardiac cycle:
Normal heart rate = _

A

~ 75 beats per minute

344
Q

Phases of the cardiac cycle:
Each cardiac cycle is _ seconds

A

0.8 seconds (60 sec/75) or 800 milliseconds

345
Q

Phases of the cardiac cycle:
As heart rate increases, all the phases of the cardiac cycle _

A

shorten

346
Q

Phases of the cardiac cycle:
As heart rate increases _ bpm = 0.5 seconds (500 milliseconds)

A

~ 120

347
Q

Phases of the cardiac cycle:
As heart rate increases, all the phases of the cardiac cycle shorten
- greatest reduction is length of time spent in _

A

diastole

348
Q

Factors affecting Heart Rate:
_ - both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervate the SA and AV nodes

A

dual innervation

349
Q

Factors affecting Heart Rate:
Parasympathetic - _

A

Acetyl Choline (ACh)

350
Q

Factors affecting Heart Rate:
Parasympathetic - Acetyl Coline (ACh)
- _ heart rate

A

decreases

351
Q

Factors affecting Heart Rate:
Parasympathetic - Acetyl Coline (ACh)
- reduces rate of depolarization in SA nodal cells by increasing _ _ _

A

potassium ion efflux

352
Q

Factors affecting Heart Rate:
Sympathetic - _ & _

A

Norepinephrine (NE) & Epinephrine (E)

353
Q

Factors affecting Heart Rate:
Sympathetic - Norepinephrine (NE) & Epinephrine (E)
- _ heart rate

A

increases

354
Q

Factors affecting Heart Rate:
Sympathetic - Norepinephrine (NE) & Epinephrine (E)
- increases rate of depolarization in SA node by increasing _ _ _

A

calcium ion influx

355
Q

Blood vessels:
Carry blood away from heart

A

arteries

356
Q

Blood vessels:
3 types of arteries

A
  1. elastic arteries
  2. muscular arteries
  3. arterioles
357
Q

Blood vessels:
Conducting arteries

A

elastic arteries

358
Q

Blood vessels:
distributing arteries

A

muscular arteries

359
Q

Blood vessels:
resistance arteries

A

arterioles

360
Q

Blood vessels:
connect arterioles to venules
- 1 cell layer thick

A

capillaries

361
Q

Blood vessels:
carry blood toward heart

A

veins

362
Q

Blood vessels:
smaller veins = _

A

venules

363
Q

Difference between arteries & veins:
- Arteries have _ walls and higher blood pressure than veins

A

thicker

364
Q

Difference between arteries & veins:
- A constricted artery has a small, round _

A

lumen

365
Q

Difference between arteries & veins:
- a _ has a large, irregular lumen

A

vein

366
Q

Difference between arteries & veins:
- The endothelium of a constricted artery is _

A

folded

367
Q

Difference between arteries & veins:
- Arteries are more _ than veins

A

elastic

368
Q

Difference between arteries & veins:
- veins have _

A

valves

369
Q

Arteries:
Undergo changes in _

A

diameter

370
Q

Arteries:
Undergo changes in diameter
- passive changes due to _

A

elasticity

371
Q

Arteries:
Undergo changes in diameter
- passive changes due to elasticity
- _ _ = high density of elastic fibers

A

elastic arteries

372
Q

Arteries:
Undergo changes in diameter
- active changes due to _

A

contractility

373
Q

Arteries:
Undergo changes in diameter
- active changes due to contractility
- smooth muscles in walls of muscular arteries and _

A

arterioles

374
Q

Arteries:
Undergo changes in diameter
- active changes due to contractility
- _ = decreases the size of the lumen

A

vasocontriction

375
Q

Arteries:
Undergo changes in diameter
- active changes due to contractility
- _ = increases the size of the lumen

A

vasodilation

376
Q

Arteries:
Undergo changes in diameter
- active changes due to contractility
- vasoconstriction and vasodilation is controlled by _ _ and sympathetic ANS control

A

local factors (histamine)

377
Q
  • smallest vessels connecting arteries and veins
  • thins walls: one layer of endothelium with membrane
A

Capillaries

378
Q

Capillaries:
- provide for _ between blood and interstitial fluid of body tissues

A

exchange

379
Q

Capillaries are classified according to _

A

permeability

380
Q

Capillaries classification:
- no pores, only permit diffusion of water, small solutes, and lipids

A

continuous capillary

381
Q

Capillaries classification:
- large gaps allow proteins to move in and out
- mostly in liver

A

sinusoid capillary

382
Q

Capillaries classification:
- pores allow for diffusion of larger solubility

A

fenestrated capillary

383
Q

_ exchange occurs across walls of arteries or veins

A

NO

384
Q

Veins:
Venules & medium-sized veins have _

A

valves

385
Q

Veins:
venules & medium-sized veins have valves
- prevent _
- varicose veins due to valve failure

A

backflow

386
Q

Veins:
Movement of blood through veins of heart dependent on body movement to compress veins

A

venous return

387
Q

Veins:
Venous return
- muscular _
- respiratory pump

A

compression

388
Q

Veins:
sympathetic stimulation of smooth muscles in walls of veins can cause decrease in size of lumen
- emergency only

A

venoconstriction

389
Q

Distribution of blood:
- total blood volume is _ distributed (~5 liters)

A

unevenly

390
Q

Distribution of blood:
- total blood volume is unevenly distributed (~5 liters)
- _ in heart, arteries and capillaries

A

30-35%

391
Q

Distribution of blood:
- total blood volume is unevenly distributed (~5 liters)
- _ in venous system

A

65-70%

392
Q

Distribution of blood:
- total blood volume is unevenly distributed (~5 liters)
- This creates a _ _

A

venous reserve

393
Q

Distribution of blood:
- total blood volume is unevenly distributed (~5 liters)
- venous reserve created in response to blood loss, _ occurs, forcing blood from venous system to arterial system and capillaries
- veins in liver, skin, and lungs

A

venoconstriction

394
Q

Cardiac centers in _

A

brainstem

395
Q

Cardio-acceleratory center controls _ _ of heart

A

sympathetic innervation

396
Q

Cardio-inhibitory center controls _ _ of heart

A

parasympathetic innervation

397
Q

Cardiac centers (in brainstem):
monitor blood pressure

A

baroreceptors

398
Q

Cardiac centers (in brainstem):
monitor oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in blood
- changes causes reflux response

A

chemoreceptors

399
Q

Areas of partial or complete blockage of coronary circulation
- due to plaque or thrombus (clot)

A

coronary artery disease

400
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Rate of blood flow through arteries, capillaries and veins determined by
- _ on blood
- _ to flow that the blood encounters

A
  • pressure
  • resistance
401
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Greater pressure needed to push blood through systemic circuit than pulmonary circuit because _

A

resistance is greater

402
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Opposes the movement of blood

A

resistance

403
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Resistance
- _ between blood and walls of blood vessels

A

friction

404
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Resistance
- _ of blood-more resistance if viscosity of high

A

viscosity

405
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Resistance
- _ (abnormal - due to vessel damage)

A

turbulence

406
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Resistance
- for blood to flow, the _ _ must overcome the peripheral resistance

A

pressure gradient

407
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Resistance - vessel length
- less resistance in _ circuit than _ circuit = less total length of vessels

A
  • pulmonary
  • systemic
408
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Resistance - vessel diameter
- less resistance in _ _ vessels

A

larger diameter

409
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Resistance - vessel diameter
- vasodilation and vasoconstriction change _ _
- so do plaques

A

peripheral resistance

410
Q

Pressures within the systemic cardiovascular system:
Highest in arteries near the heart, where it is _ constant

A

not

411
Q

Pressures within the systemic cardiovascular system:
~ _ mm Hg during systole

A

120

412
Q

Pressures within the systemic cardiovascular system:
~ _ mm Hg during diastole

A

80 (does not drop to 0)

413
Q

Pressures within the systemic cardiovascular system:
Pressure drops as blood moves forward
- blood moves from _ _ _ pressure

A

high to low

414
Q

Average pressures in systemic system:
- aorta = _ mm Hg

A

100

415
Q

Average pressures in systemic system:
- arterioles entering capillaries = _ mm Hg

A

35

416
Q

Average pressures in systemic system:
- venules exiting capillaries = _ mm Hg

A

18

417
Q

Average pressures in systemic system:
- vena cavae = _ mm Hg

A

2

418
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
- abnormally low blood pressure

A

hypotension

419
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
due to hemorrhage or dehydration

A

hypovolemia

420
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Hypotension
- overly aggressive drug treatment for high blood pressure
- orthostatic hypotension
- _ (vasomotor) syncope = “fainting at the sight of blood”

A

vasovagal

421
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Abnormally high blood pressure
- systolic greater than 150 & diastolic greater than 90 at rest

A

hypertension

422
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
causes - smoking, obesity, too much salt, genetic, kidney disease, excessive alcohol

A

hypertension

423
Q

Cardiovascular physiology:
Hypertension adverse effects
- _ of left ventricle due to increased workload
- arteriosclerosis - damaged blood vessels
- aneurysm

A

hypertrophy