Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 core concepts of stress

A

Adaptive
Maladaptive
Stressor

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2
Q

this is a biological, psychological, social, or chemical factors that causes physical or emotional tension and may contribute to the development of certain diseases

A

stressor

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3
Q

this term is used loosely today and still lacks a definitive explanation

A

stress

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4
Q

May be viewed as an individual’s reaction to any change that requires an adjustment or response, which can be physical, mental, or emotional
Responses directed at stabilizing internal biological processes and psychological preservation of self-identity and self-esteem

A

stress

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5
Q

this is behavior that maintains the integrity of the individual and viewed as positive and correlated with a healthy response

A

adaptive response

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6
Q

When behavior disrupts the integrity of the individual

Considered to be negative or unhealthy

A

maladaptive response

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7
Q

This person defines stress as the following “The state manifested by a specific syndrome that consists of all the nonspecifically induced changes within a biologic system.”

A

Hans Selye

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8
Q

Hans Selye definition of stress has come to be known as what

A

fight-or-flight syndrome

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9
Q

during this stage of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome the physiological responses of the fight-or-flight syndrome are initiated

A

alarm reaction stage

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10
Q

during this stage of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome the individual uses the physiological responses of the first stage as a defense in the attempt to adapt to the stressor; if adaption occurs then the third stage is prevented or delayed

A

stage of resistance

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11
Q

during this stage of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome the body responds to prolonged exposure to a stressor, adaptive energy is depleted, diseases of adaption can occur such as headaches and mental disorders

A

stage of exhaustion

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12
Q

True or false: fight-or-flight symptoms occur in response to psychological or emotional stimuli just as they do to physical stimuli

A

True

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13
Q
A 25-year-old man barely avoids a motor vehicle accident. His heart is pounding, his palms are sweaty, and his respirations are increased. This is an example of which stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A .Alarm reaction stage
B. Stage of resistance
C. Stage of exhaustion
D. Stage of biological stress
A

A

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14
Q

Is said to occur when an individual’s physical or behavioral response to any change in his or her internal or external environment results in preservation of individual integrity or timely return to equilibrium

A

adaptation

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15
Q

stress as an environmental event: this concept defines stress as an ___ that triggers and individual’s adaptive physiological and psychological responses

A

event

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16
Q

Stress as an environmental event the even creates change in the life pattern of the individual, requires significant adjustment in lifestyle and taxes available ____
this change can be either positive or negative

A

resources

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17
Q

stress and an environmental event: stress is measured by the Miller and Rahe what

A

Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ)

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18
Q

What does a high score on the RLCQ mean

A

It places the individual at greater susceptibility to physical or psychological illness

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19
Q

The RLCQ can be completed considering life stressors within a 6 month or ___ years period

A

1

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20
Q

True or false: stress overload predisposes a person to illness

A

It is unknown whether stress overload merely predisposes a person to illness or actually precipitates it.
Appears to be a link

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21
Q

Why are life questionnaires like RLCQ criticized

A

Because they don’t consider the individual’s perception of the event

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22
Q

What do life changes questionnaires fail to consider

A

cultural variations
individual’s coping strategies
available support systems at the time when the life change occurs

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23
Q

This concept emphasizes the relationship between internal variables (within an individual) and external variables (within the environment).
Parallels the modern concept of disease etiology

A

stress as a transaction between the individual and the environment

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24
Q

A stimulus arising from the internal or external environment and perceived by the individual in a specific manner

A

precipitating event

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25
Q

determination of an event as stressful depends on the individual/s ___ appraisal of the situation

A

cognitive

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26
Q

this is an individual’s evaluation of the personal significance of the event or occurrence.

A

cognitive appraisal

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27
Q

The cognitive response consists of what two things

A

primary appraisal

secondary appraisal

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28
Q

what are the 3 types of primary appraisal

A

irrelevant
benign-positive
stressful

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29
Q

an event is seen as this type of primary appraisal when the outcome holds no significance for the individual

A

irrelevant

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30
Q

an event is seen as this type of primary appraisal when an outcome is perceived as producing pleasure for the individual

A

benign-positive

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31
Q

___ appraisals include harm/loss, threat, and challenge

A

stresss

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32
Q

Harm or loss appraisals refer to damage or loss already ____ by the individual

A

experienced

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33
Q

Appraisals of ____ nature are perceived as anticipated harms or losses

A

threatening

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34
Q

When an event is appraised as ___ the individual focuses on potential for gain or growth rather than on risks associated with the event

A

challenging

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35
Q

in stress as a transaction between the individual and the environment this is An assessment of skills, resources, and knowledge that the person possesses to deal with the situation

A

secondary appraisal

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36
Q

in a ____ appraisal the individual evaluates their skills that they possess to deal with the situation by considering the following
Which coping strategies are available to me?
Will the option I choose be effective in this situation?
Do I have the ability to use that strategy in an effective manner?

A

secondary

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37
Q

A student with an A average is to take an exam. The student is relaxed and says the exam is not of concern because a failing grade would not affect successful completion of the course. What has contributed to this student’s adaptation response to stress?
A. The student judges the event as irrelevant.
B. The actual precipitating event.
C. The student’s cognitive appraisal of the situation.
D. The event is appraised as challenging.

A

C.

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38
Q

These strongly influence whether the response is adaptive or maladaptive

A

predisposing factors

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39
Q

What are the types of predisposing factors

A

genetic influences
past experiences
existing conditions

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40
Q

These are a type of predisposing factor and are circumstances of an individual’s life that are acquired through heredity

A

genetic influences

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41
Q

These are a type of predisposing factor and are occurrences that result in learned patterns that can influence an individuals adaptation response
includes previous exposure to the stressor, learned coping responses, and degree of adaptation to previous stressors

A

past experiences

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42
Q

these are a type of predisposing factors and incorporate vulnerabilities that influence the adequacy of the individual’s physical, psychological, and social resources for dealing with adaptive demands

A

existing conditions

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43
Q

this theory is ties into predisposing factors of existing condition and adds that as existing conditions (loss or lack of resources) exceed the person’s perception of adaptive capabilities, the individual not only experiences stress in the present but also becomes more vulnerable to the effects of stress in the future because of a “weaker resource reservoir to call on to meet future demands

A

Hobfoll’s conservation of resources theory

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44
Q

Occurs when an individual’s physical or behavioral response to any change in his or her internal or external environment results in disruption of individual integrity or in persistent disequilibrium

A

maladaptation

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45
Q

this involves the use of coping strategies in response to stressful situations

A

stress management

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46
Q

Coping strategies are ___
When they protect the individual from harm (or additional harm)
Strengthen the individual’s ability to meet challenging situations

A

adaptive

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47
Q

Responses are considered ___ when the conflict goes unresolved or intensifies, energy sources become depleted as the body struggles

A

maladaptive

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48
Q

what are some adaptive coping strategies

A
Awareness
Relaxation
Meditation
Interpersonal communication
Problem-solving
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49
Q

this is an adaptive coping strategy that allows you to become aware of the factors that create stress and the feelings associated with a stressful response

A

awareness

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50
Q

this is an adaptive coping strategy that can include breathing exercises or physical exercise

A

relaxation

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51
Q

this is an adaptive coping strategy that has been shown to produce a lasting reduction in BP and other stress-related symptoms when practiced for 20 minutes once or twice a day

A

meditation

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52
Q

This is an adaptive coping strategy that is done by expressing what is concerning to you to someone that you feel comfortable with and allow you to reduce the way stress is escalating

A

interpersonal communication

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53
Q

This is an adaptive coping strategy in which the individual is able to view the situation objectively or seek assistance in doing this and then apply a problem-solving and decision-making model

A

problem-solving

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54
Q

Know the order of these

A

Assessing the facts of the situation
Formulating goals for resolution of the stressful situation
Studying the alternatives for dealing with the situation
Determining the risks and benefits of each alternative
Selecting an alternative
Implementing the alternative selected
Evaluating the outcome of the alternative implemented
If the first choice is ineffective, selecting and implementing a second option

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55
Q

studies have shown that those who care for pets are better able to ___ with stressors in life

A

cope

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56
Q

this studies the biological basis of behavior and several mental illnesses are now considered physical disorders resulting from malfunctions of the brain

A

neuroscientific revolution

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57
Q

The study of the biological foundations of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral processes.

A

psychobiology

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58
Q

this part of the brain is:
Largest part of the brain
Right and left hemispheres separated by corpus callosum
Each hemisphere contains frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes

A

cerebrum

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59
Q

the forebrain can be divided into what

A

cerebrum

diencephalon

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60
Q

the midbrain consists of what

A

mesencephalon

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61
Q

the hindbrain consists of what

A

pons
medulla
cerebellum

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62
Q

Neuroimaging tests suggest there may be decreased activity in the frontal lobes of people with what mental disorder

A

schizophrenia

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63
Q

this connects the cerebrum with the lower structures of the brain
consists of the thalamus and hypothalamus

A

diencephalon

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64
Q

the thalamus and hypothalamus are part of loops structures known as what

A

limbic system

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65
Q

this part of the limbic system Integrates all sensory input (except smell) on its way to the cortex
Involved in temporarily blocking minor sensations, so that an individual can concentrate on one important event when necessary

A

thalamus

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66
Q

the impact of dopamine in the ____ is associated with several neuropsychiatric disorder

A

thalamus

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67
Q

the hypothalamus regulates what

A

the pituitary gland

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68
Q

The pituitary gland can be divided into what

A

posterior and anterior lobes

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69
Q

these are the functions of what part of the brain

  1. Regulation of the pituitary gland
  2. Direct neural control over the actions of the autonomic nervous system
  3. Regulation of appetite, temperature, blood pressure, thirst, and circadian rhythms
  4. Regulation of temperature
A

Hypothalamus

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70
Q

the primary function of this part of the brain is
Consists of portions of the cerebrum and diencephalon
Includes the thalamus and hypothalamus, as well as other minor structures
Called the “emotional brain”
Associated with feelings of fear and anxiety; anger, rage and aggression; love, joy, and hope
Sexuality and social behavior

A

limbic system

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71
Q

this structure of the limbic system seems to be a primary gateway to processing emotional stimuli, particularly responses to fear, anxiety, and panic

A

amygdala

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72
Q

Structures of major importance in the mesencephalon, or midbrain, include nuclei and fiber tracts.
Extends from the pons to the hypothalamus
Responsible for integration of visual (automatically turning away from a dangerous object when it comes into view), auditory (turning toward sounds that is heard), and righting reflexes ( keeping head upright)

A

mesencephalon

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73
Q

Part of the brainstem
Contains centers for respiration
Associated with sleep and dreaming

A

pons

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74
Q

Connects the spinal cord and pons

Responsible for heart rate, respiration, BP, and reflexes such as swallowing, sneezing, coughing and vomiting

A

medulla

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75
Q

this is connected to the brainstem through bundles of fiber tracts and is associated with involuntary aspects of movement such as coordination, muscle tone, and the maintenance of posture and equilibrium

A

cerebellum

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76
Q

the tissue of the CNC consists of nerve cells what what that generate and transmit electrochemical impulses

A

neurons

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77
Q

this contains the nucleus of the neuron and is essential for the continued life of the neuron

A

cell body

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78
Q

these are processes that transmit impulses toward the cell body

A

dendrites

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79
Q

transmits impulses away from the cell body

A

axons

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80
Q

what are the 3 classes of neurons

A

afferent
efferent
interneurons

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81
Q

this class of neurons carry impulses from receptors in the internal and external periphery to the CNS

A

afferent

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82
Q

this class of neurons carry impulses from the CNS to effectors in the periphery such as muscles and glands

A

efferent

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83
Q

this class of neurons exist entirely within the CNS and 99% of all never cells belong to this group

A

interneurons

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84
Q

The junction between two neurons is a

A

synapse

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85
Q

the small space between the axon terminal of one neuron and the cell body or dendrites of another is called what

A

synaptic cleft

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86
Q

Neurons conducting impulses away are called

A

postsynaptic neurons

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87
Q

Neurons conducting impulses toward the synapse are called

A

presynaptic neurons

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88
Q

a lot of medications work in the

A

synaptic cleft

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89
Q

these are chemicals stored in the axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron Many neurotransmitters have implications in the etiology of emotional disorders and in the pharmacological treatment of those disorders.

A

neurotransmitters

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90
Q

the ANS is divided into what

A

SNS

PSNS

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91
Q

what are the major categories of neurotransmitters

A

cholinergics
monoamines
amino acids
neuropeptides

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92
Q

this is a cholinergic and the first chemical to be identified and proven to be a neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

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93
Q

functions at the junction of nerves and muscles, affects sleep, awake arousal, pain, perception, coordination of movements and ability to retain memories
When there’s low levels of acetylcholine levels there’s impaired memory function and decreased motor function

A

acetylcholine

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94
Q

this neurotransmitter is involved in the fight or flight responses, creates activity at the post synaptic nerve terminal
Regulates moods cognition, perception, locomotion, cardiovascular functioning, and sleep and arousal

A

norepinephrine

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95
Q

Disorders associated to this are depression and mania, anxiety, and schizophrenia

A

norepinephrine

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96
Q

what is an example of monoamine transmitters

A

norepinephrine
dopamine
serotonin
histamine

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97
Q

this is a monoamine neurotransmitter that regulates movements and coordination, emotions, and voluntary decision-making ability

A

dopamine

98
Q

increased levels of this neurotransmitter are associated with mania and schizophrenia

A

dopamine

99
Q

this monoamine neurotransmitter has to do with sleep and arousal, libido, appetite, mood, aggression, pain perception, coordination, judgement

A

serotonin

100
Q

decreased levels of serotonin will cause what

A

depression

101
Q

increased levels of serotonin will cause what

A

anxiety

102
Q

Decreased levels of dopamine will cause what

A

Parkinson’s disease and depression

103
Q

this monoamine neurotransmitter has to do with wakefulness, pain sensation, and inflammatory response

A

histamine

104
Q

decreased levels of histamine cause what

A

depression

105
Q

what are the types of amino acid neurotransmitters

A

GABA
Glycine
Glutamate and aspartate
Serine

106
Q

this amino acid neurotransmitter functions by slowing down body activity

A

GABA

107
Q

Decreased levels of GABA can what

A

Huntington’s, anxiety disorder, schizophrenia and epilepsy

108
Q

what are the types of neuropeptide neurotransmitters

A

opioid peptides
substance P
somatostatin

109
Q

The study of the interaction between the nervous system and the endocrine system, and the effects of various hormones on cognitive, emotional, and behavioral functioning.

A

Neuroendocrinology

110
Q

what hormones are stored in the posterior pituitary

A

ADH

Oxytocin

111
Q

what hormones are stored in the anterior pituitary

A
GH 
TSH 
ACTH 
Prolactin 
LSH 
FSH 
MSH
112
Q

Follow a 24-hour cycle and may influence a variety of regulatory functions
The 24-hour rhythms in humans are affected to a large degree by the cycles of lightness and darkness.

A

circadian rhythms

113
Q

there is associated of what with increased secretion of melatonin during darkness hours

A

depression

114
Q

symptoms that occur during the ___ cycle have been linked to disruptions in biological rhythms

A

premenstrual

115
Q

sleep can be measured by types of ___ waves during various stages

A

brain

116
Q

what are the 6 stages of the sleep-wakefulness cycle

A
Stage 0-Alpha Rhythm
Stage 1-Beta Rhythm
Stage 2-Theta Rhythm
Stage 3-Delta Rhythm
Stage 4-Delta Rhythm
REM Sleep-Beta Rhythm
117
Q

this stage of the sleep cycle characterizes the transition into sleep, a period of dozing in which thoughts wander and the person drifts in and out of sleep; brain wave rhythm frequency 18-25

A

stage 1:beta rhythm

118
Q

this stage of the sleep cycle is characterized by relaxed, waking state with eyes closed; brain wave rhythm frequency 8-12

A

stage 0 alpha rhythm

119
Q

this stage of the sleep cycle comprises about half of time spent sleeping, eye movement and muscular activity are minimal; brain wave frequency 4-7

A

stage2: theta rhythm

120
Q

this stage of the sleep cycle is a period of deep and restful sleep, muscles relaxed, HR and BP fall and breathing slows, no eye movement brain wave frequency 1.5-3

A

stage 3: delta rhythm

121
Q

this stage of the sleep cycle is the stage of deepest sleep, individuals who suffer from insomnia or other sleep disorders often don’t experience this stage, eye movement and muscular activity are minimal

A

stage 4: delta rhythm

122
Q

this stage of the sleep cycle is when the dream cycle occurs during the REM sleep, eyes dart about beneath closes eyes, moving more rapidly that when awake, HR and RR increase, BP may increase or decrease, muscles are hypotonic

A

REM sleep- beta rhythm

123
Q

most people experience REM sleep about ___ or five times during the night and the amount of this sleep decreases with age

A

four

124
Q

this is the study of the biological transmission of certain physical and/or behavioral characteristics from parent to offspring

A

genetics

125
Q

these are all examples of what
Schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, major depressive disorder, anorexia nervosa, panic disorder, somatic symptom disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and alcoholism

A

psychiatric illness with familial tendencies

126
Q

this refers to the total set of genes present in an in an individual and coded in the DNA at the time of conception

A

genotype

127
Q

the physical manifestations of a particular genotype are designated by characteristics that specify a

A

phenotype

128
Q

these studies examine the frequency of a disorder in monozygotic and dizygotic twins

A

twin studies

129
Q

monozygotic twins

A

genetically identical twins

130
Q

dizygotic twins

A

not genetically identical twins

131
Q

twins are called this when both members suffer from the disorder in question

A

concordant

132
Q

this is the study of the relationship between immune system, nervous system, and psychological processes such as thinking and behavior

A

psychoneuroimmunology

133
Q

these studies allow researchers to compare the influence of genetics vs. environment on the development of psychiatric disorder

A

adoption studies

134
Q

what are the four types of adoption studies

A

Adopted children whose biological parent(s) had a psychiatric disorder, but adoptive parent(s) did not
Adopted children whose adoptive parent(s) had a psychiatric disorder, but biological parent(s) did not
Study of adoptive and biological relatives of adopted children who developed a psychiatric disorder
Study of monozygotic twins reared apart by different adoptive parents

135
Q

During what time period did psychopharmacology expand to include antipsychotics, antidepressants, antianxiety, mood stabilizers, and sedative/hypnotics

A

post 1950s

136
Q

most states adhere to the patient’s right to ____ treatment except in emergency situations where patient will cause harm to themselves or others

A

refuse

137
Q

many states have adopted laws that allow courts to order outpatient what which may include medication in circumstances where an individual is not seeking treatment and has a history of violent aggressive behavior

A

treatment

138
Q
patient what must include: 
Why the medication has been prescribed
When the medication should be taken
How the medication should be taken
What the patient may expect (side effects/adverse reactions)
Who to contact with questions
When to contact physician
A

education

139
Q

Molecules situated on the cell membrane that are binding sites for neurotransmitters

A

receptor

140
Q

antidepressants block the reuptake of what

A

serotonin and norepinephrine

141
Q

these kinds of antipsychotics focus on blocking specific serotonin receptors

A

atypicals

142
Q

these antipsychotics facilitate transmission of inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA

A

benzodiazepines

143
Q

these antipsychotics increase norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine released

A

psychostimulants

144
Q

Action: depression of the central nervous system (CNS)
Indications: anxiety disorders, anxiety symptoms, acute alcohol withdrawal, skeletal muscle spasms, convulsive disorders, status epilepticus, and preoperative sedation

A

antianxiety agents

145
Q

what is an example of an antianxiety agent

A

buspirone

146
Q

antianxiety drugs are also called what and were historically called what

A

anxiolytics

minor tranquilizers

147
Q

because antianxiety agents depress the CNS they are contraindicated with use of other

A

CNS depressants like alcohol

148
Q

decreased effects of antianxiety medications can be noted with the consumption of what

A

caffeine

smoking

149
Q

what are the nursing diagnoses for antianxiety medications

A

risk for injury
anxiety
risk for activity intolerance
disturbed sleep pattern

150
Q

the action of this medication Increase concentration of norepinephrine, serotonin, or dopamine in the body either by blocking their reuptake by the neurons (tricyclics, tetracyclics, SSRIs, SNRIs)
Inhibiting the release of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

A

antidepressants

151
Q

SSRI interaction with Buspirone (BuSpar), TCAs (especially clomipramine), selegiline (Eldepryl), St. John’s Wort
can cause

A

serotonin syndrome

152
Q

SSRI interaction with MAOIs can cause

A

hypertensive crisis

153
Q

SSRI interactions with warfarin and NSAIDS can cause what

A

increased risk of bleeding

154
Q

SSRI interaction with alcohol and benzos can cause what

A

increased sedation

155
Q

SSRI interaction with antiepileptics can cause what

A

lowered seizure threshold

156
Q

what are the nursing diagnoses for antidepressants

A
risk for suicide 
risk for injury 
social isolation 
risk for constipation 
insomnia
157
Q

what are common side effects of antidepressants

A

dry mouth
sedation
nausea
sexual dysfunction (SSRIs)

158
Q

these are the diagnoses what agents
Risk for injury related to manic hyperactivity
Risk for self-directed or other-directed violence related to unresolved anger
Risk for injury related to lithium toxicity
Risk for injury related to adverse effects of mood-stabilizing drugs
Risk for activity intolerance related to side effects of drowsiness and dizziness

A

mood stabilizing agents

159
Q

TCA interactions with MAOIs can cause what

A

high fever, convulsions, death

160
Q

TCAs interactions with St. johns wort, tramadol can cause what

A

seizures

serotonin syndrome

161
Q

TCA interactions with acetylcholine blockers cause what

A

paralytic ileus

162
Q

TCA interactions with alcohol and carbamazepine cause what

A

blocks antidepressant action

increases sedation

163
Q

TCA interactions with cimetidine and bupropion cause what

A

increased TCA blood levels

increase side effects

164
Q

occurs when you take medications that cause high levels of the chemical serotonin to accumulate in your body.

Serotonin is a chemical your body produces that’s needed for your nerve cells and brain to function. But too much serotonin causes signs and symptoms that can range from mild (shivering and diarrhea) to severe (muscle rigidity, fever and seizures). Severe serotonin syndrome can cause death if not treated.

A

serotonin syndrome

165
Q

MAOIs interaction with SSRIs, TCAs, atomoxetine (Strattera), duloxetine (Cymbalta), dextromethorphan (an ingredient in many cough syrups), venlafaxine (Effexor), St. John’s Wort, ginkgo
can cause what

A

serotonin syndrome

166
Q

MAOIs interaction with morphine, other narcotics, antihypertensive can cause what

A

hypotension

167
Q

MAOIs interaction with Buspirone can cause

A

psychosis, agitation, seizures

168
Q

MAOIs interaction with All other antidepressants, pseudoephedrine, amphetamines, cocaine cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril), dopamine, methyldopa, levodopa, epinephrine, buspirone (BuSpar)

A

hypertensive crisis even if stopped MAOI 2 weeks ago

169
Q

MAOIs interaction with antidiabetics cause

A

hypoglycemia

DIABETIC PATIENTS SHOUDN’T BE ON MAOIs

170
Q

MAOIs interaction with tegretol cause

A

fever
hypertension
seizures

171
Q

for years the drug of choice for treatment of bipolar mania was what

A

lithium

172
Q

these drugs are in the class of anticonvulsant medications which are now FDA for what

A

mood stabilization

mood stabilizing agents

173
Q

is characterized by cycles of depression and manic episodes, which may manifest as grandiose thinking and behavior, rapid thoughts, hyperactivity, and/or impulse agitation
The effective medication treatment for this disorder is one that reduces the rollercoaster of ups and downs

A

bipolar disorder

174
Q

lithium is a what so anything that depletes sodium will make more receptor sites available and increase the risk for lithium toxicity

A

salt

175
Q

what is the range for lithium in acute mania

A

1-1.5

176
Q

what are the maintenance lithium levels

A

0.6-1.2

177
Q

what are early signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity

A

what are early signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity

178
Q

lithium >2 will cause

A

tremors
sedation
confusion

179
Q

lithium over 3.5 will cause

A
delirium 
seizures 
coma 
cardiovascular collapse 
death
180
Q

what is another undesirable side effect of lithium

A

weight gain

181
Q

these medications are called neuroleptics

A

antipsychotic agents

182
Q

Given to patients with schizophrenia
This group of medications have been found to have the potential for side effects that interfere with normal movements, include acute dystonia’s (muscle spasms) that can be life threatening, Parkinson-like symptoms and tardive dyskinesia (later-onset involuntary movement disorders primarily in the tongue, lips, and jaw that may also involve other movement disturbances). Some of these can be permanent

A

antipsychotic agents

183
Q

these are a kind of antipsychotics
Block postsynaptic dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia, hypothalamus, limbic system, brainstem, and medulla
Demonstrate varying affinity for cholinergic, alpha-1-adrenergic, and histaminic receptors
Antipsychotic effects may be related to inhibition of dopamine-mediated transmission of neural impulses at the synapses

A

typical antipsychotics

184
Q

these are used for the treatment of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders.
Selected agents are used in the treatment of bipolar mania.
Others are used as antiemetics, in the treatment of intractable hiccoughs, and for the control of tics and vocal utterances in Tourette’s disorder.

A

antipsychotics

185
Q

these kind of antipsychotic medications are:
Weaker dopamine receptor antagonists than the typical antipsychotics
Potent antagonists of the serotonin type 2A (5HT-2A) receptors
Exhibit antagonism for cholinergic, histaminic, and adrenergic receptors

A

atypical antipsychotics

186
Q
these are the diagnoses for what medication
Risk for other-directed violence
Risk for injury
Risk for activity intolerance
Noncompliance
A

antipsychotics

187
Q

this kind of antipsychotic medication can cause agranulocytosis is a potentially fatal blood disorder in which the WBC count can drop to low levels: monitor temperature, onset of cough

A

Clozaril

188
Q

mental health is explained by 2 responses that all humans experience which are what

A

anxiety

grief

189
Q

this person theorized that mental illness was caused by irregularity in the interaction of four body fluids
Blood, black bile, yellow bile, and phlegm
He called these body fluids humors.
He said that these were all mixed up and what was causing mental illness

A

Hippocrates

190
Q

often called the father of American psychiatry

A

Benjamin Rush

191
Q

The first hospital in America to admit patients with mental illness was established in Philadelphia in the middle of what century

A

18th

192
Q

Former New England schoolteacher who lobbied tirelessly on behalf of the mentally ill population

A

Dorothea Dix

193
Q

The __ century brought the establishment of a system of state asylums, a result from the work of who

A

19th

Dorothea Dix

194
Q

emergence of psychiatric nursing began what year

A

1873

195
Q

emergence of psychiatric nursing began when this person graduated from the nursing program at New England Hospital for Women and Children and became the first psychiatric nurse

A

Linda Richards

196
Q

this is fulfillment of one’s highest potential

A

self-actualization

197
Q

Maslow’s “___ _ ___” requires that the most basic needs be fulfilled before those at higher levels can be achieved

A

hierarchy of needs

198
Q

these are Jahoda’s six indicators that are a reflection of what
Positive attitude toward self
Growth, development, and the ability to achieve self-actualization
Integration
Autonomy
Perception of reality
Environmental mastery

A

mental health

199
Q

in this stage of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs the basic fundamental needs include food, water, air, sleep, exercise, elimination, shelter, and sexual expression

A

physiological needs

200
Q

the needs at this level are for avoiding harm, maintaining comfort, order, structure, physical safety, freedom from fear, and protection

A

safety and security

201
Q

needs at this level are for giving and receiving affection, companionship, satisfactory interpersonal relationships, and identification with a group

A

love and belonging

202
Q

this person defined mental health as the following
“The successful adaptation to stressors from the internal or external environment, evidenced by thoughts, feelings and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with local and cultural norms.”

A

Robinson

203
Q

The inability of the general population to understand the motivation behind the behavior

A

incomprehensibility

204
Q

The “normality” of behavior is determined by the culture.

A

cultural relativity

205
Q

characterized as “maladaptive responses to stressors from the internal or external environment, evidenced by thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are incongruent with the local and cultural norms and that interfere with the individual’s social, occupational, and/or physical functioning”

A

mental illness

206
Q

A feeling of discomfort and apprehension related to fear of impending danger. The individual may be unaware of the source of his or her anxiety, but it is often accompanied by feelings of uncertainty and helplessness.

A

anxiety

207
Q

low levels of ___ are adaptive and can provide the motivation required for survival

A

anxiety

208
Q

when does anxiety become problematic

A

when the individual is unable to prevent their response from escalating to a level that interferes with the ability to meet basic needs.

209
Q

who came up with the four levels of anxiety

A

Peplau

210
Q

this level of anxiety is seldom a problem
Mild anxiety is associated with the tension experienced in response to the events of day-to-day living
It sharpens the senses, increases motivation for productivity, results in a heightened awareness

A

mild anxiety

211
Q

with this level of anxiety the perceptual field begins to diminish
The ability to being able to be aware of what is around us diminishes
Don’t understand what is going on around us
Causes us to become tired and have muscle tension

A

moderate anxiety

212
Q

with this level of anxiety the perceptual field is greatly diminished that concentration centers on one particular detail only
Have trouble performing simple tasks
Physical symptoms such as
Confusion or dead or horror
All behavior that we have going is aimed at trying to reduce anxiety

A

severe anxiety

213
Q

this level of anxiety is the most intense state
Person can’t even focus on what is going on at all
May not perceive situations correctly
Hallucinations
This is when someone may act erratically
They feel like they’re losing control of themselves and are emotionally weak
Can be life threatening if not treated correctly

A

panic anxiety

214
Q

identified the ego as the reality component of the personality, governing problem solving and rational thinking.
As the level of anxiety increases, the strength of the ego is tested, and energy is mobilized to confront the threat.

A

Sigmund Freud

215
Q

identified a number of defense mechanisms employed by the ego in the face of threat to biological or psychological integrity

A

Anna Freud

216
Q

these mechanisms are used either consciously or unconsciously as protective devices for the ego in an effort to relieve mild to moderate anxiety

A

defense mechanisms

217
Q

with this defense mechanism they create a rational reason to justify why they behave the way they do; attempting to make excuses or formulate logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors

A

rationalization

218
Q

with this defense mechanism they prevent unacceptable or undesirable thoughts or behaviors from being expressed by exaggerating opposite thoughts or types of behaviors

A

reaction formation

219
Q

with this defense mechanism they retreat in response to stress to an earlier level of development and the comfort measures associated with that level of functioning

A

regression

220
Q

with this defense mechanism they are involuntarily blocking unpleasant feelings and experience from one’s awareness

A

repression

221
Q

with this defense mechanism they are rechanneling of drives and impulses that are personally unacceptable into activities that are constructive

A

sublimation

222
Q

with this defense mechanism they are voluntarily blocking unpleasant feelings and experiences from one’s awareness

A

suppression

223
Q

with this defense mechanism they are symbolically negating or cancelling out an experience that one find intolerable

A

undoing

224
Q

anxiety at this level that remains unresolved over an extended period of time can contribute to a number of physiological disorders

A

moderate to severe anxiety

225
Q

extended periods of this level of anxiety can result in psychoneurotic behavior patterns

A

severe anxiety

226
Q

No longer considered a separate category of mental disorder
Psychiatric disturbances characterized by excessive anxiety that is expressed directly or altered through defense mechanisms
Appears as a symptom, such as obsession, compulsion, phobia, or sexual dysfunction

A

neurosis

227
Q

these are all characteristics of people with what
They are aware that they are experiencing distress
They are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive
They are unaware of any possible psychological causes of the distress
They feel helpless to change their situation
They experience no loss of contact with reality

A

neuroses

228
Q

what disorders are examples of psychoneurotic responses to anxiety

A

anxiety disorders
somatic symptom disorders
dissociative disorders

229
Q

Disorders in which the characteristic features are symptoms of anxiety and avoidance behavior
phobias, panic disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and separation anxiety disorder

A

anxiety disorders

230
Q

The characteristic features are physical symptoms for which there is no evident organic pathology.
illness anxiety disorder, conversion disorder, and factitious disorder

A

somatic symptom disorders

231
Q

The characteristic feature is a disruption in the usually integrated functions of consciousness, memory, identify, or perception of the environment.
dissociative amnesia, dissociative identity disorder, and depersonalization-derealization disorder (look up)

A

dissociative disorders

232
Q

defined as a significant thought disturbance in which reality testing is impaired, resulting in delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior.

A

psychosis

233
Q

common characteristics of people with what will
Exhibit minimal distress
Unaware their behavior is maladaptive
Unaware of a psychological problem (anosognosia)
Exhibiting a flight from reality into a less stressful world or one in which they are attempting to adapt

A

psychoses

234
Q

subjective feeling of sorrow and sadness accompanied by emotional, physical, and social responses to the loss of a loved person or thing.

A

grief

235
Q

this lengthens the grief reaction by promoting feelings of anger toward oneself for having committed a wrongdoing toward a lost loved one

A

guilt

236
Q

the mourning process is ___ if Individual is able to regain a sense of organization.
Redefine his or her life in the absence of lost person or object.
Pursue new interests and relationships.

A

resolved

237
Q

maladaptive grief responses usually occur when an individual becomes fixed in what stages of the grief process

A

denial

anger

238
Q

Characterized by an intense preoccupation with memories of the lost entity for many years after the loss has occurred

A

prolonged grief response

239
Q

Individual becomes fixed in denial stage of grieving process

A

delayed or inhibited grief response

240
Q

The individual is fixed in the anger stage of grieving

May culminate in pathological depression

A

distorted grief response