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esws supply > ESWS SECURITY > Flashcards

ESWS SECURITY Flashcards

1
Q

Define Deadly Force:

A

Force that is likely to cause or that a porson knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing death, serious bodily harm or iniury

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2
Q

What is the Deadly Force Triangle?

A
  • Opportunity
  • Capability
  • Intent
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3
Q

What are the 7 circumstances of deadly force?

A
  • Self-defense and defense of other DOD personnel.
  • Defense of others
  • Protecting assets vital to national security
  • Protecting inherently dangerous property
  • Protecting National Critical infrastructure
  • Performing an arrest or apprehension, or preventing escape
  • Defense against vicious animals
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4
Q

Who is SECO?

A

LCDR McMahon (Pronounced McMann)

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5
Q

Who is ASECO?

A

LT. Garcia

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6
Q

Who is the CMAA?

A

MACM Sewell

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7
Q

What year was the MA rate Established?

A

According to Naval History and Heritage Command, the Master-at-Arms Rating was officially established in 1797, than disestablished in 1921 only to be reestablished by Chief of Naval Personnel on August 1, 1973.

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8
Q

What significant event took place on March 13, 1893?

A

On March 13, 1893, U.S. Navy Regulation Cicular No. 1 established the classification of Chief Petty Officer. Initially, only eight ratings were included in this classification, Master-at Arms
being one of them

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9
Q

Who was the first MCPON that was a Master At Arms?

A

MCPON John Whittet

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10
Q

What does RAM stand for?

A

Random Anti-terrorism Measures

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11
Q

Define Contra band:

A

Any substance that is unlawfully possessed by the person exercising immediate or direct control

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12
Q

What are the Punitive Articles?

A

77–134

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13
Q

When is a Security Alert called away?

A

Security Alert is announced during incidents within the skin of the ship considered to endanger the integrity and safety of the ship and its personnel. (Active Shooter/Barricaded Hostage Taker/ Internal Disturbance or Unrest)

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14
Q

When is a Force Protection Alert called away?

A

Force Protection Alert is called during incidents outside the skin of the ship considered to endanger the integrity and safety of the ship and it’s personnel. (Small Boat Attack, Floating Objects, Vehicle Bourne IED)

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15
Q

How many Patrolmen does SRF consist of and what is their response time?

A

6 personnel with a 5 minute response time

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16
Q

How many Patrolmen does BRF consist of and what is their response time?

A

6 personnel with a 10 minute response time

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17
Q

What is RF?

A

Reserve Force

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18
Q

How many Patrolmen does RF consist of and what is their response time?

A

6 or more personnel ready to assist as directed, with 20 minute response time

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19
Q

What is ISF and their role in Security?

A

In-Port Security Force - temporarily assigned for 1 year In-Port only

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20
Q

Where is the authority of a Sentry derived from?

A

Derived from US Naval Regulations Article 1038

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21
Q

What are the duties of the sentry?

A

Detect, track, assess potential threats, and take immediate action to protect personnel and DOD assets. (BE A HARD TARGET!!)

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22
Q

What is the responsibility of the sentry?

A

Control Access utilizing 11 General Orders

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23
Q

What is the COG?

A

Chief of the Guard

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24
Q

Define post

A

Area of responsibility of the sentry

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25
Q

1st General Order

A

To take charge of this post and all goverment property in view.

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26
Q

2nd General Order

A

To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on the alert, and observing everything that takes place within sight or hearing

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27
Q

3rd General Order

A

To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce

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28
Q

4th General Order

A

To repeat all calls from posts more distant from the guard house than my own

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29
Q

5th General Order

A

To quit my post only when properly relieved

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30
Q

6th General Order

A

To receive, obey, and pass on to the sentry who relieves me all orders from the Commanding Officer, Command Duty Officer, Officer of the Deck, and Officers and Petty Officers of the
Watch only

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31
Q

7th General Order

A

To talk to no one except in the line of duty

32
Q

8th General Order

A

To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder

33
Q

9th General Order

A

To call the Officer of the Deck in any case not covered by instructions

34
Q

10th General Order

A

To salute all officers and colors and standards not cased

35
Q

11th General Order

A

To be especially watchful at night and during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post, and to allow no one to pass without proper authority

36
Q

What does PPR stand for?

A

Pre-Planned Responses

37
Q

What is a PPR used for?

A

Developed, exercised actions and measures that are implemented to Identify, track, assess, and neutralize terrorist attacks

38
Q

What are the Pier Sentries and Waterborne Patrols Duties?

A

Fixed and mobile sentries to detect deter and defend against waterborne and land based terrorist attacks

39
Q

Five Levels of Mindset

A
  • White - Oblivious
  • Yellow - Non specific alert
  • Orange - Specific alert
  • Red - Use of deadly force
  • Black - Shutdown
40
Q

What is SROE?

A

Standing Rules of Engagement

41
Q

What Instruction Governs SROE and what is the purpose of SROE?

A

⁃ CJCSI 3121.01B

⁃ Purpose is to establish guidance or set of rules to be followed when engaging in any situation pertaining to antiterrorism and the use of force.

42
Q

Terms to Know (Watch Standards):

A
  • ATO - Anti-terrorism Officer
  • ATTWO - Anti-terrorism Tactical Watch Officer
  • CDO - Command Duty Officer
  • FPO - Force Protection Officer
  • TAO- Tactical Action Officer
43
Q

Where is the Brig located?

A

3-175-3-L

44
Q

What is the goal of the Corrections Program?

A

The goal of the corrections program is to restore the maximum number of prisoners to constructive duty as soon as possible, better prepared to perform useful offense-free service, and thus salvage in-part the money and effort spent in recruiting, training, and disciplining them.
Prisoners not being restored to duty should be transferred to a shore brig.

45
Q

Define Confinement

A

Confinement is the physical restraint of a person

46
Q

Define Prisoner

A

Person held in confinement by sentence of court-martial or imposition of NJP

47
Q

Define Pretrial Prisoner:

A

Person held to the UCMJ who has been legally ordered into confinement and who is accused of committing an offense against the UCMJ and is awaiting trial or rehearing

48
Q

What are Warning Shots?

A

Shots fired in 5-10 round bursts from a crew served weapon or rifle to determine the intent of an approaching vessel. Correct employment of warning shots is to Aim, Offset 50 yards to either side of the vessel, and Depress the muzzle. LEAD THE TARGET!

49
Q

Who Authorizes the Use of Warning Shots Underway?

A
  • ATTWO
  • TAO
  • CO
50
Q

What does FPCON stand for?

A

Force Protection Conditions

51
Q

How many FPCONS do we have?

A

5

52
Q

What are the three type of terrorist cells?

A

⁃ Operations
⁃ Intelligence
⁃ Auxiliary

53
Q

What are the 5 levels of FPCONS?

A

⁃ Normal
⁃ Alpha
⁃ Bravo
⁃ Charlie
⁃ Delta

54
Q

What is FPCON Alpha?

A

Possible terrorist activity with no indications

55
Q

What is FPCON Bravo?

A

More predictable terrorist threat exist, installations not targeted

56
Q

What is FPCON Charlie?

A

When an incident occurs or Intel indicates an attack is being planned (On installations or personnel)

57
Q

WHAT IS FPCON DELTA?

A

When an incident has occurred or Intel indicates imminent terrorist actions against specific locations

58
Q

How many types of terrorists attacks are there?

A

(4)
• DYNAMIC- Occurs quickly, results are immediately felt.
• SIMPLE- Easy to carry out, no extensive military style.
• OFFENSIVE BY DESIGN - Directed towards a more powerful force or political organization.
• DESIGNED FOR IMPACT- Bold targets like twin towers.

59
Q

What task does the terrorist Operations Cell perform?

A

They are the ones that carry out the attack for the mission

60
Q

What task does the terrorist Intelligence Cell perform?

A

Conduct surveillance and obtain orders and other communications from higher up in the terrorist organizations

61
Q

What task does the terrorist Auxiliary Cell perform?

A

Collecting money, obtaining supplies, and providing info on the local area.

62
Q

What are the phases of terrorist planning cycle?

A

⁃ Initial Surveillance
⁃ Target Selection
⁃ Detailed Surveillance
⁃ Training Preparation
⁃ The Attack

63
Q

What are some terrorist attacks?

A

Bombing, Suicide, Arson, Kidnapping, Hijacking, Skyjacking, Ambush, Hostage taking,
Maiming, Armed assaults, Assassination Define

64
Q

Terrorism:

A

Calculated use of violence or threat of violence to INCULCATE fear

65
Q

Define Counter Terrorism

A

Offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, and respond to terrorism

66
Q

Describe the following zone used in Defense in Depth:
In-port:

A

Assessment - 100 yards or greater

Warning -50-100 yards

Threat - 50 yards to ship
At Sea (Will be dictated by AOR and SROE)

Assessment - 2000m or greater

Warning -1000-2000 yards

Threat - 1000 yards to ship.
Naval Vessel Protection Zone - While in the navigable waters of the United States (out to 3 nautical miles) to include territories and possessions. Divert zone (within 500 yards), Exclusion zone (within 100 yards).

67
Q

How will a terrorist choose you?

A

Being a “soft target” makes it easy for the terrorist, or displaying a
“weak profile”

68
Q

What motivates terrorists?

A

Being able to coerce or intimidate using:
⁃ Politics
⁃ Religion
⁃ Ideologies

69
Q

What is a terrorist cell?

A

Independent Organizations each with a different mission, but ultimately operating together for the big attack

70
Q

What does DOD AT Standards protect for you?

A

⁃ Personnel
⁃ Families
⁃ Installations
⁃ Facilities
⁃ Information

71
Q

How many Shipboard FPCONS does USS George H. W. Bush utilize?

A

4

72
Q

What are the Anti-Terrorism Teams?

A

Threat Working Group - AT Committee - AT Working Group

73
Q

Who is responsible for evaluating the effectiveness of Security Departments Standard
Operating Procedures (SOPs) & Pre- Planned Responses (PPRs)?

A

The Anti-Terrorism Training Team (ATTT)

74
Q

Who is authorized to break the security perimeter?

A

CO, XO, CMC, Security Forces or Authorized persons as deemed by the Security COC.

75
Q

What is the fill range required while conducting urinalysis?

A

30-60 mL but 45 mL is preferred

esws supply (10 decks)

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