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11th Semester > Equine 5 > Flashcards

Equine 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe 3 different provocation tests on the hind limb

A

Stifle flexion
Hock flexion
Fetlock flexion
Navicular wedge test

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2
Q

Describe 4 different provocation tests on the front limb

A

Shoulder flexion test
Carpal flexion
Elbow flexion
Fetlock region
Navicular wedge test

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3
Q

Lame horse with worsening lameness during training. The effected hock is cooler, saphenous vein is empty in contrast to the opposite vein. Following 30min rest the lameness is improving again. Diagnosis

A

Aortoiliac thrombosis

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4
Q

Horse with severe lameness. He can’t flex the hock and stifle, however he can flex the digits. He can support the limb and put full weight on it, while having the digits in extension. Diagnosis

A

upward fixation of patella

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5
Q

2 possible complications of IM drug administration

A

muscle soreness
abscess formation

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6
Q

How would you administer 1L of milk replacer to a 2 week old foal

A

nasogastric tube

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7
Q

A three year old standard bred cold was presented with acute severe lameness. What further radiographic views are needed to describe this disorder properly

A

lateromedial
dorsopalmar
DPrPaDio-(of pedal phalanx and navicular bone)
PaPraDio - (skyline of navicular bone)
D60LPaMo
S60MPaLO

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8
Q

3 most important points, which help you recognise which is the lame front limb

A

head and neck movement
hyperextension of fetlock
cranial phase longer

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9
Q

3 most important points, which help you recognise lameness on the hind limb

A

pelvis
fetlock
cranial phase is short

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10
Q

List 3 apical bony points above the carpus on the limb, which can be candidates for fracture

A

elbow joint
radius fracture?

Hoof – dist. Mc III.)
II) Dist. Mc III. - dist. Radius
III) Dist. Radius - Elbow joint
IV) Elbow joint - dist. Scapula

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11
Q

MCIII closed middiaphyseal fracture in a 300kg sport pony. List 3 things you must do, once you arrive

A
  1. stabilise the phalanx Technique - Little padding, but even surface (about 1 cm cotton-wool) up to carpus –
  2. tarsus -Elastic or „Gaze” bandage strongly pulled - 3. Fiberglass-cast on Carpus needs to be able to flex,
  3. align dorsal aspect & elevate heel, use enough gauze
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12
Q

What kind of external coaptation should be used for transporting a horse with a distal radius fracture

A

long splint?

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13
Q

Which branch of which nerve is innervating the suspensory lig (m interrosesus medius) origin on the hind limb

A

lateral plantar nerve which branches into med and lat plantar metatarsal nerves

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14
Q

What type of nerve fibres are anaesthetised during perineural blocks

A

Alpha, delta and C fibres

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15
Q

What kind of nerves are you blocking during low 4 point block of the front limbs. Name the nerves

A

N. digit palm (med+lat), N. metacarpals(med+lat) (branches of N.ulnaris. MUD!!!!!

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16
Q

What happens with the cranial phase of the stride during hind limb lameness

A

Cranial phase is shorter

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17
Q

Which during has a prokinetic effect.
Lidocaine,
butyl scopolamine,
meloxicam,
ranitidine

A

Lidocaine
Metoclopramide also

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18
Q

Predilection site of the fungal plaques in guttaral pouch mycosis

A

dorsal aspect of medial compartment

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19
Q

Against which forces is the bone least resistant

A

Shear force

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20
Q

nstrument to examine the sensitivity of the hoof and inside linening structures

A

hoof tester?

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21
Q

What size in g needle is used on the dist extremity for the perineural blocks

A

18-25G

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22
Q

Inbetween which 2 muscle bellies do you have to insert your needle in order to anaesthetise the deep branch of the peroneal nerve

A

long and lateral digital extensor muscle

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23
Q

Antimicrobial therapy in horses with strangles that are otherwise stable, abscesses present. Can be contradicted. Why

A

Abscess can act as a place of resistance for bacteria, it can result in prolonged abscess formation

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24
Q

Serious injury at midcannon level, palmar. The horse is lifting up the toe during the stance. Which tendon is ruptured

A

DDFT

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25
Q

Which statement is correct
Testosterone <40pg/mlr

Which statement is correct
Testicle descends into inguinal canal at 300days

Which statement is correct
The vaginal tunic visceral wall is adhered to the epididymis

Which statement is correct
Distal axonopathy of recurrent nerve

Which of the following statements is correct
Mainly indirect bilirubin

A
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26
Q

Sand forceps

A

crush the spermatic cord and castration

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27
Q

Castration method 2yr 550kg

A

closed

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28
Q

Palpated during rectal exam

A

Ventral taenia of the caecum

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29
Q

Small intestinal distension above 25cm H20

A

intraabdominal adhesions

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30
Q

Important artery branch

A

deep circumflex a

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31
Q

Intestine first explored from abdomen during midline laparotomy

A

caecum basis

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32
Q

ultrasounds

A

Stenostenotic small intestine transverse section

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33
Q

Grade III

A

dynamic endoscopic diagnosis

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34
Q

Surgery for dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

tie forward

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35
Q

Brown epiglottis, fallen over

A

left laryngeal hemiplegia

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36
Q

x-ray teeth

A

Sagittal fracture of tooth 109

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37
Q

Tooth 104 in geldings

A

right maxillary canine teeth

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38
Q

Buccal surface ,, tooth dorsal view

A

right side

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39
Q

Sand accumulation sand impaction

A

behing the xiphoid cartilage

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40
Q

number 8 intestinal section

A

small colon

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41
Q

development of pain in colic

A

fluid sequestration

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42
Q

grade of ulceration

A

3

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43
Q

substance that inhibits HCL

A

Somatostatin

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44
Q

9 year old, acute depression

A

salmonella can be ruled out

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45
Q

proximal enteritis treatment

A

repeated nasogastric tubing, decompression and IV fluid

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46
Q

instruments intermediate level, intestive care unit

A

IV fluid pump

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47
Q

500kg horse 8% dehydration

A

100-110L

48
Q

Diseases known etiology

A

Proliferative enteropathy

49
Q

Drugs suitable for proliferative enteropathy

A

Azithromycin

50
Q

If the indirect PLR (pupil light reflex) is present in the right eye (OD) this means:

A

Retina is functional in OS

51
Q

To give a subconjunctival injection in a sedated horse

A

Topical?

52
Q

surgical procedure can be used to treat an indolent chronic superficial corneal ulcer

A

Superficial keratectomy or keratotomy

53
Q

SPL

A

freq topical

54
Q

What kind of mydriatics would you use to dilate the pupil at the ophthalmic examination?

A

2%atropine

55
Q

If a descemetocele is stained by fluresceien

A

The stroma has stain uptake, but not Descending membrane

56
Q

What is a subpalpebral lavage kit used for

A

To provide long term frequent topical treatment in

57
Q

Administration of antiproteinases in the topical treament is appropriate in the case of

A

melting corneal ulcer

58
Q

Descemtetocele

A

The stroma has stain uptake but the dec memb not

59
Q

Pars plana vitrectomy

A

ERU

60
Q

Clinical signs of rabies

A

Head tilt, not Hyperaesthesia??

61
Q

Treat EMS

A

METFORMIN

62
Q

blood transfusion collect

A

citrate(na)

63
Q

Coronary Band dysplasia

A

shire

64
Q

vit e def

A

equine motor neuron disease

65
Q

18 y/o halodiastolic left side

A

aortic valve def

66
Q

Most common autoimmune skin disorder

A

?? either systemic lupus or pemphigus foliaceus

67
Q

horse mouth pic

A

papillomatosis

68
Q

common congenital heart disease

A

ventric septal defect

69
Q

congestive heart failure

A

valvular heart disease

70
Q

effect of tetanospasmin

A

inhibition of GABA?
glycine

71
Q

180 degree torsion

A

mild colic symptoms and apathy

72
Q

perineal conformation

A

1/3 above the arch

73
Q

When do you use the surgical procedure “segmental postthectomy”

A

paramphymosis

74
Q

What is the caslick procedure for

A

surgical treatment in pneumovagina

75
Q

5 ye Holstein

A

End of carrrier(because of 12 hours?its to late i think) stallion getting a hard one will ruin
surgery. ??
do it within the first 24h better even in the first 12
The injured penis must be put back into the prepuce and fixed there for a couple of days.

76
Q

Spinal cord compression

A

myelography

77
Q

18 yo horse

A

aortic valvie insuf

78
Q

Which blood parameters is suitable for the examination of the liver in horse?
- Ammonia
- Creatinine
- Creatinine kinase
- Lipase

A

A

79
Q

Which of the following lymph nodes can be palpated in any normal horse?
- Superficial cervical
- Parotid
- Superficial inguinal
- Lateral retropharyngeal

A

C

80
Q

What is the percussion sound of a normal guttural pouch?
- Dull
- Bone-like
- Dulled tympanic
- Resonant

A

D

81
Q

Which one of the following arteries is suitable for the palpation of the pulse in normal adult horses?
- External thoracic
- Femoral artery
- Transverse facial
- Median artery

A

C

82
Q

What is the normal percussion sound in the dorsal third of the abdomen on the right side of an adult horse?
- Resonant
- Tympanic
- Dull
- Sonorous

A

B

83
Q

Which cardiac murmurs are physiologic in horses?
- There is no physiological murmur in horses
- Grade 2. Pandiastolic murmur
- Grade 3. Early diastolic murmur
- Grade 3. Holosystolic murmur

A

B

84
Q

What is the location of the mitral valve in a normal horse?
- Left 3rd intercostal space
- Left 4th intercostal space
- Left 5th intercostal space
- Left 6th inercostal space

A

C

85
Q

The heart rate of a 24 hour old healthy foal is?
- 40-60 b/min
- 60-80 b/min
- 80-100 b/min
- 100-120 b/min

A

C

86
Q

Which one of the following cardiac murmurs causes a precordial thrill (fremitus)?
- Grade 2 early systolic
- Grade 3 late diastolic
- Grade 4 pansystolic
- Grade 5 holodiastolic

A

D

87
Q

What is the anatomical location of a neurological lesion in a horse if it shows tetraparesis and decreased thoracic limb spinal reflexes?
- Between the first and fifth cervical vertebrae
- Between the sixth cervical and second thoracic vertebrae
- Between the third thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae
- Between the fourth lumbar and third sacral vertebrae

A

B

88
Q

Which part of the cervical system is affected when a horse shows intention tremor?
- Brain stem
- Cerebrum
- Cerebellum
- Cervical spinal cord

A

C

89
Q

Which paranasal sinus is affected most frequently by sinusitis in horses?
- Maxillary
- Frontal
- Conchal
- Sphenopalatine

A

A

90
Q

How many laterolateral views would be appropriate/ enough to see properly one side of the equine thorax?
-1
-2
-3
- 4

A

D dorsocaudal, ventrocaudal, dorsocranial, ventrocranial)

91
Q

Which statement is true?
- Above 50 mA always death
- Above 100 mA always death
- Both
- None

A

B

92
Q

The number of the left maxillary permanent first molar tooth in the Triadan system?
- 109
- 209
- 309
- 409

A

B

93
Q

Which advantage does the CT have when compared to MRI
- It provides more detailed information of osseous structures
- It does not involve ionizing radiation
- It provides more detailed information of soft tissue structures
- Image interpretation doesn’t require specialist knowledge

A

A

94
Q

How does the amount of x-rays change with distance?
- It does not change
- It decreases according to the inverse square law
- It decreases exponentially
- It decreases linearly

A

B

95
Q

Scintigraphy is particularly useful for diagnosing which injuries
- Stress fracture
- Tendon injuries
- Laminitis
- Osteochondrosis dissecans

A

A

96
Q

Which projection is the best to highlight the dorsomedial aspect of the carpus?
- Dorsopalmar
- Dorsolatero-palmomaedial oblique
- Palmarolatero-dorsomedial oblique
- Flexed lateromedial

A

D

97
Q

What kind of diagnostic procedure should be performed in case of a deep melting ulcer?
a. Cytology from cornea
b. Microbiological sampling from the cornea
c. Fluoresceine staining
d. All listed above

A

D

98
Q

Which statement is false regarding the slip lamp biomicroscope?
a. Aqueous humour transparency or turbidity can be distinguished
b. In a normal eye light bean is not visible crossing the anterior chamber
c. Tydall effect can be noticed in acute uveitis
d. Width of the anterior chamber cannot be estimated

A

D

99
Q

Which answer is correct? The shape of a mid wide pupil is􏰾
a. Round in dogs and cats – (only dogs is round)
b. Vertical oval in horses and pigs
c. Round in cats – (perpendicular rhomboid)
d. Horizontal oval in horses and cattle

A

D

100
Q

The most significant way of drainage of the aqueous humour in horses:
a. Uveoscleral outflow
b. Through globet cells of the conjunctiva
c. Iridocorneal outflow
d. Through the process of ciliary body

A

A

101
Q

Which is not an acute sign of uveitis?
a. Blepharospasm
b. Mydriasis
c. Epiphora
d. Blood aqueous barrier breakdown

A

B

102
Q

Which statement is true regarding atropine?
a. Effectivity gives information about the severity of the uveitis
b. Induces constricted pupil for a couple of days in a healthy eye
c. Can be used for pupil dilation at the eye exam
d. It has a stronger effect on eyes with blue iris

A

a

103
Q

Administration of corticosteroids is contraindicated when:
a. The pupil is miotic
b. Hyphema is present
c. Intraocular pressure is reduced
d. The cornea has fluoresceine stain uptake

A

d

104
Q

Dazzle reflex is a􏰾
a. Cortical reflex
b. Subcortical reflex
c. Cerebellar reflex
d. Spinal reflex

A

B

105
Q

Which muscle should be biopsied for the diagnosis of equine motor neuron disease

A

Sacrococcygeal dorsalis muscle

106
Q

List two commonly used drugs for the treatment of congestive heart failure

A

FUROSEMIDE
DIGOXIN
POTASSIUM CHLORIDE
ACE INHIBITORS

107
Q

What is the cause of pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction in horses?

A

Adenoma of the pars intermedia

108
Q

List three clinical signs of heart failure in horses

A

Exercise intolerance, weight loss, cough, tachycardia, tachypnea, ventral edema + distal limb edema, pulmonary congestion, pulmonary edema, white foamy discharge from lungs, colic like signs, slow return to resting values

109
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity reaction does play a role in the pathogenesis of drug allergy in horses?

A

Type I, II, III, IV hypersensitivity (1,2,3, 4)

110
Q

List the abnormalities which physically contribute to the development of spinal cord compression in cervical static stenosis

A

Thickening of the dorsal lamina, enlargement of the ligamentum flavum, degenerative articular process, thickened joint capsule

111
Q

What is the most important pathological feature of post exercise myopathy in horses?

A

Cardiac muscle myopathy, tubulonephrosis, myoglobinuria?

112
Q

What is the main effect of tetanospasmin, and where does it act?

A

Inhibition of glycine and GABA release, acts in motor neurons in ventral horn

113
Q

How do you have to treat paraphimosis in an acute case? Please give a short answer, what to be done

A

Mechanical compression (hard), treat edema and injury, prevent infection and further injuries, in case of no success -surgery

114
Q

Describe the location of spinal needle insertion, when performing epidural anesthesia in the mare

A

2nd intercoccygeal space (sacrococcygel space), 30 degree angle into the subarachnoideal space

115
Q

Describe briefly, how surgery should be performed in a mare with an 8 cm in diameter ovarian theca granulosa cell tumor! You have all equipment available, what you need

A

Ovariectomy laparotomy: Standing position from flank approach, with grid technique we open the abd cavity, use local anesthesia and put on double ligature before removing the ovary
Laparoscopy through the umbilicus with double ligature. We only use plastic bag technique if the tumor is over 15 cm in diameter

116
Q

Describe three clinical signs of uterus rupture in the post-partum mare

A

Fever, tachycardia, depression, hemorrhagic shock (long tear), mild colic signs (smaller tear)

117
Q

Describe the definition of paraphimosis

A

= inability to retract the penis back into the prepuce

11th Semester (7 decks)

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