Equine 5 Flashcards by Laura O'Donoghue

Describe 3 different provocation tests on the hind limb

Stifle flexion
Hock flexion
Fetlock flexion
Navicular wedge test

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Describe 4 different provocation tests on the front limb

Shoulder flexion test
Carpal flexion
Elbow flexion
Fetlock region
Navicular wedge test

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Lame horse with worsening lameness during training. The effected hock is cooler, saphenous vein is empty in contrast to the opposite vein. Following 30min rest the lameness is improving again. Diagnosis

Aortoiliac thrombosis

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Horse with severe lameness. He can’t flex the hock and stifle, however he can flex the digits. He can support the limb and put full weight on it, while having the digits in extension. Diagnosis

upward fixation of patella

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2 possible complications of IM drug administration

muscle soreness
abscess formation

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How would you administer 1L of milk replacer to a 2 week old foal

nasogastric tube

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A three year old standard bred cold was presented with acute severe lameness. What further radiographic views are needed to describe this disorder properly

lateromedial
dorsopalmar
DPrPaDio-(of pedal phalanx and navicular bone)
PaPraDio - (skyline of navicular bone)
D60LPaMo
S60MPaLO

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3 most important points, which help you recognise which is the lame front limb

head and neck movement
hyperextension of fetlock
cranial phase longer

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3 most important points, which help you recognise lameness on the hind limb

pelvis
fetlock
cranial phase is short

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List 3 apical bony points above the carpus on the limb, which can be candidates for fracture

elbow joint
radius fracture?

Hoof – dist. Mc III.)
II) Dist. Mc III. - dist. Radius
III) Dist. Radius - Elbow joint
IV) Elbow joint - dist. Scapula

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MCIII closed middiaphyseal fracture in a 300kg sport pony. List 3 things you must do, once you arrive

stabilise the phalanx Technique - Little padding, but even surface (about 1 cm cotton-wool) up to carpus –
tarsus -Elastic or „Gaze” bandage strongly pulled - 3. Fiberglass-cast on Carpus needs to be able to flex,
align dorsal aspect & elevate heel, use enough gauze

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What kind of external coaptation should be used for transporting a horse with a distal radius fracture

long splint?

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Which branch of which nerve is innervating the suspensory lig (m interrosesus medius) origin on the hind limb

lateral plantar nerve which branches into med and lat plantar metatarsal nerves

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What type of nerve fibres are anaesthetised during perineural blocks

Alpha, delta and C fibres

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What kind of nerves are you blocking during low 4 point block of the front limbs. Name the nerves

N. digit palm (med+lat), N. metacarpals(med+lat) (branches of N.ulnaris. MUD!!!!!

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What happens with the cranial phase of the stride during hind limb lameness

Cranial phase is shorter

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Which during has a prokinetic effect.
Lidocaine,
butyl scopolamine,
meloxicam,
ranitidine

Lidocaine
Metoclopramide also

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Predilection site of the fungal plaques in guttaral pouch mycosis

dorsal aspect of medial compartment

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Against which forces is the bone least resistant

Shear force

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nstrument to examine the sensitivity of the hoof and inside linening structures

hoof tester?

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What size in g needle is used on the dist extremity for the perineural blocks

18-25G

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Inbetween which 2 muscle bellies do you have to insert your needle in order to anaesthetise the deep branch of the peroneal nerve

long and lateral digital extensor muscle

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Antimicrobial therapy in horses with strangles that are otherwise stable, abscesses present. Can be contradicted. Why

Abscess can act as a place of resistance for bacteria, it can result in prolonged abscess formation

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Serious injury at midcannon level, palmar. The horse is lifting up the toe during the stance. Which tendon is ruptured

DDFT

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Which statement is correct Testosterone <40pg/mlr Which statement is correct Testicle descends into inguinal canal at 300days Which statement is correct The vaginal tunic visceral wall is adhered to the epididymis Which statement is correct Distal axonopathy of recurrent nerve Which of the following statements is correct Mainly indirect bilirubin

Sand forceps

crush the spermatic cord and castration

Castration method 2yr 550kg

closed

Palpated during rectal exam

Ventral taenia of the caecum

Small intestinal distension above 25cm H20

intraabdominal adhesions

Important artery branch

deep circumflex a

Intestine first explored from abdomen during midline laparotomy

caecum basis

ultrasounds

Stenostenotic small intestine transverse section

Grade III

dynamic endoscopic diagnosis

Surgery for dorsal displacement of the soft palate

tie forward

Brown epiglottis, fallen over

left laryngeal hemiplegia

x-ray teeth

Sagittal fracture of tooth 109

Tooth 104 in geldings

right maxillary canine teeth

Buccal surface ,, tooth dorsal view

right side

Sand accumulation sand impaction

behing the xiphoid cartilage

number 8 intestinal section

small colon

development of pain in colic

fluid sequestration

grade of ulceration

substance that inhibits HCL

Somatostatin

9 year old, acute depression

salmonella can be ruled out

proximal enteritis treatment

repeated nasogastric tubing, decompression and IV fluid

instruments intermediate level, intestive care unit

IV fluid pump

500kg horse 8% dehydration

100-110L

Diseases known etiology

Proliferative enteropathy

Drugs suitable for proliferative enteropathy

Azithromycin

If the indirect PLR (pupil light reflex) is present in the right eye (OD) this means:

Retina is functional in OS

To give a subconjunctival injection in a sedated horse

Topical?

surgical procedure can be used to treat an indolent chronic superficial corneal ulcer

Superficial keratectomy or keratotomy

SPL

freq topical

What kind of mydriatics would you use to dilate the pupil at the ophthalmic examination?

2%atropine

If a descemetocele is stained by fluresceien

The stroma has stain uptake, but not Descending membrane

What is a subpalpebral lavage kit used for

To provide long term frequent topical treatment in

Administration of antiproteinases in the topical treament is appropriate in the case of

melting corneal ulcer

Descemtetocele

The stroma has stain uptake but the dec memb not

Pars plana vitrectomy

ERU

Clinical signs of rabies

Head tilt, not Hyperaesthesia??

Treat EMS

METFORMIN

blood transfusion collect

citrate(na)

Coronary Band dysplasia

shire

vit e def

equine motor neuron disease

18 y/o halodiastolic left side

aortic valve def

Most common autoimmune skin disorder

?? either systemic lupus or pemphigus foliaceus

horse mouth pic

papillomatosis

common congenital heart disease

ventric septal defect

congestive heart failure

valvular heart disease

effect of tetanospasmin

inhibition of GABA? glycine

180 degree torsion

mild colic symptoms and apathy

perineal conformation

1/3 above the arch

When do you use the surgical procedure “segmental postthectomy”

paramphymosis

What is the caslick procedure for

surgical treatment in pneumovagina

5 ye Holstein

End of carrrier(because of 12 hours?its to late i think) stallion getting a hard one will ruin surgery. ?? do it within the first 24h better even in the first 12 The injured penis must be put back into the prepuce and fixed there for a couple of days.

Spinal cord compression

myelography

18 yo horse

aortic valvie insuf

Which blood parameters is suitable for the examination of the liver in horse? - Ammonia - Creatinine - Creatinine kinase - Lipase

Which of the following lymph nodes can be palpated in any normal horse? - Superficial cervical - Parotid - Superficial inguinal - Lateral retropharyngeal

What is the percussion sound of a normal guttural pouch? - Dull - Bone-like - Dulled tympanic - Resonant

Which one of the following arteries is suitable for the palpation of the pulse in normal adult horses? - External thoracic - Femoral artery - Transverse facial - Median artery

What is the normal percussion sound in the dorsal third of the abdomen on the right side of an adult horse? - Resonant - Tympanic - Dull - Sonorous

Which cardiac murmurs are physiologic in horses? - There is no physiological murmur in horses - Grade 2. Pandiastolic murmur - Grade 3. Early diastolic murmur - Grade 3. Holosystolic murmur

What is the location of the mitral valve in a normal horse? - Left 3rd intercostal space - Left 4th intercostal space - Left 5th intercostal space - Left 6th inercostal space

The heart rate of a 24 hour old healthy foal is? - 40-60 b/min - 60-80 b/min - 80-100 b/min - 100-120 b/min

Which one of the following cardiac murmurs causes a precordial thrill (fremitus)? - Grade 2 early systolic - Grade 3 late diastolic - Grade 4 pansystolic - Grade 5 holodiastolic

What is the anatomical location of a neurological lesion in a horse if it shows tetraparesis and decreased thoracic limb spinal reflexes? - Between the first and fifth cervical vertebrae - Between the sixth cervical and second thoracic vertebrae - Between the third thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae - Between the fourth lumbar and third sacral vertebrae

Which part of the cervical system is affected when a horse shows intention tremor? - Brain stem - Cerebrum - Cerebellum - Cervical spinal cord

Which paranasal sinus is affected most frequently by sinusitis in horses? - Maxillary - Frontal - Conchal - Sphenopalatine

How many laterolateral views would be appropriate/ enough to see properly one side of the equine thorax? -1 -2 -3 - 4

D dorsocaudal, ventrocaudal, dorsocranial, ventrocranial)

Which statement is true? - Above 50 mA always death - Above 100 mA always death - Both - None

The number of the left maxillary permanent first molar tooth in the Triadan system? - 109 - 209 - 309 - 409

Which advantage does the CT have when compared to MRI - It provides more detailed information of osseous structures - It does not involve ionizing radiation - It provides more detailed information of soft tissue structures - Image interpretation doesn’t require specialist knowledge

How does the amount of x-rays change with distance? - It does not change - It decreases according to the inverse square law - It decreases exponentially - It decreases linearly

Scintigraphy is particularly useful for diagnosing which injuries - Stress fracture - Tendon injuries - Laminitis - Osteochondrosis dissecans

Which projection is the best to highlight the dorsomedial aspect of the carpus? - Dorsopalmar - Dorsolatero-palmomaedial oblique - Palmarolatero-dorsomedial oblique - Flexed lateromedial

What kind of diagnostic procedure should be performed in case of a deep melting ulcer? a. Cytology from cornea b. Microbiological sampling from the cornea c. Fluoresceine staining d. All listed above

Which statement is false regarding the slip lamp biomicroscope? a. Aqueous humour transparency or turbidity can be distinguished b. In a normal eye light bean is not visible crossing the anterior chamber c. Tydall effect can be noticed in acute uveitis d. Width of the anterior chamber cannot be estimated

Which answer is correct? The shape of a mid wide pupil is􏰾 a. Round in dogs and cats – (only dogs is round) b. Vertical oval in horses and pigs c. Round in cats – (perpendicular rhomboid) d. Horizontal oval in horses and cattle

The most significant way of drainage of the aqueous humour in horses: a. Uveoscleral outflow b. Through globet cells of the conjunctiva c. Iridocorneal outflow d. Through the process of ciliary body

Which is not an acute sign of uveitis? a. Blepharospasm b. Mydriasis c. Epiphora d. Blood aqueous barrier breakdown

Which statement is true regarding atropine? a. Effectivity gives information about the severity of the uveitis b. Induces constricted pupil for a couple of days in a healthy eye c. Can be used for pupil dilation at the eye exam d. It has a stronger effect on eyes with blue iris

Administration of corticosteroids is contraindicated when: a. The pupil is miotic b. Hyphema is present c. Intraocular pressure is reduced d. The cornea has fluoresceine stain uptake

Dazzle reflex is a􏰾 a. Cortical reflex b. Subcortical reflex c. Cerebellar reflex d. Spinal reflex

Which muscle should be biopsied for the diagnosis of equine motor neuron disease

Sacrococcygeal dorsalis muscle

List two commonly used drugs for the treatment of congestive heart failure

FUROSEMIDE DIGOXIN POTASSIUM CHLORIDE ACE INHIBITORS

What is the cause of pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction in horses?

Adenoma of the pars intermedia

List three clinical signs of heart failure in horses

Exercise intolerance, weight loss, cough, tachycardia, tachypnea, ventral edema + distal limb edema, pulmonary congestion, pulmonary edema, white foamy discharge from lungs, colic like signs, slow return to resting values

What kind of hypersensitivity reaction does play a role in the pathogenesis of drug allergy in horses?

Type I, II, III, IV hypersensitivity (1,2,3, 4)

List the abnormalities which physically contribute to the development of spinal cord compression in cervical static stenosis

Thickening of the dorsal lamina, enlargement of the ligamentum flavum, degenerative articular process, thickened joint capsule

What is the most important pathological feature of post exercise myopathy in horses?

Cardiac muscle myopathy, tubulonephrosis, myoglobinuria?

What is the main effect of tetanospasmin, and where does it act?

Inhibition of glycine and GABA release, acts in motor neurons in ventral horn

How do you have to treat paraphimosis in an acute case? Please give a short answer, what to be done

Mechanical compression (hard), treat edema and injury, prevent infection and further injuries, in case of no success -surgery

Describe the location of spinal needle insertion, when performing epidural anesthesia in the mare

2nd intercoccygeal space (sacrococcygel space), 30 degree angle into the subarachnoideal space

Describe briefly, how surgery should be performed in a mare with an 8 cm in diameter ovarian theca granulosa cell tumor! You have all equipment available, what you need

Ovariectomy laparotomy: Standing position from flank approach, with grid technique we open the abd cavity, use local anesthesia and put on double ligature before removing the ovary Laparoscopy through the umbilicus with double ligature. We only use plastic bag technique if the tumor is over 15 cm in diameter

Describe three clinical signs of uterus rupture in the post-partum mare

Fever, tachycardia, depression, hemorrhagic shock (long tear), mild colic signs (smaller tear)

Describe the definition of paraphimosis

= inability to retract the penis back into the prepuce