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11th Semester > Equine 4 > Flashcards

Equine 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of narcotic system is appropriate for equine anaesthesia?

A

closed circle

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2
Q

what is the normal range of etco2 measured by a capnograph?

A

35-45mmHg

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3
Q

which drug is suitable for raising mean arterial blood pressure (ABP) intraoperatively?

A

Dobutamine 5-10microgran/kg/min IV

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4
Q

it can happen in case of an accidental intraarterial injection of alpha 2 receptor agonist?

A

collapse, reversible central blindness

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5
Q

what sig could indicate that the horse is anaesthetised superficially?

A

increased blood pressure

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6
Q

how do we admin phenylbutazone as premed for a horse?

A

IV

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7
Q

most common complication after anaesthesia of a horse wuth laryngeal hemiplegia?

A

laryngospasm

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8
Q

True for half limb cast, when using light casting as a cast material?

A

quick application possible, no fluid permeability, it is light

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9
Q

most imp when placing a high bandage on the front limb

A

protect the accessory carpal bone against pressure sores

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10
Q

fluid used for joint lavage?

A

sterile, isotonic fluid infusion

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11
Q

time dept antimicrobials are?

A

beta lactam and macrolides

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12
Q

3 main steps for preparing foot for radiological exam?

A

remove the shoes and pare the foot, brush foot with brush wire, pack the sulci of the frog with play doh

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13
Q

1st step in case of puncture wound on the sole of a hoof by a nail?

A

xray from 2 views to localise the nail, therapy depends on nail position and injured structures

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14
Q

phases of would healing in correct order?

A

acute inflammation, proliferation, resorption, remodelling

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15
Q

when do you have to remove skin sutures?

A

12-14 days postop

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16
Q

2 parameters evaluated during distal exam?

A

SIZE, CONFORMATION, BODY CONDITION, POSTURE, GAIT, BEHAVIOUR AND DEMEANOR, OBVIOUS PATHOLOGICAL CHANGES

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17
Q

It poses the greatest risk when anaestheyising a newborn foal?

A

induction with inhalational anaesthetic without premedication

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18
Q

normal percussion findings in lung of healthy adult horse?

A

strong/sharp, low, resonant, short

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19
Q

point of max intensity of a cardiac murmur originating from the aortic valve area?

A

Left 4th ICS below point of shoulder

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20
Q

2 reflexes for exam of trigeminal nerve in horses?

A

evaluation of facial cutaneous sensation, plapebral reflex, corneal reflex, ability to chew, movements of the jaw

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21
Q

anatomical location of a neurological lesion in a recumbent horse if it can raise its head and neck?

A

caudal cervical region

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22
Q

meaning of urinary tenesmus?

A

excessive straining during urination

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23
Q

3 indications of abdominal ultrasonography in horses?

A

colic, weight loss, anorexia, pyrexia, abnormal xray findings etc

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24
Q

normal percussion sound in the medium third of the abdomenon the right side?

A

dulled tympanic

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25
Q

define dysmetria?

A

an error in trajectory due to abnormal range, rate and/or force of motion

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26
Q

list 2 unique characteristica of the mandibular lymph nodes in horses?

A

Y-Shaped and lobulated

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27
Q

list 2 primary skin lesions?

A

macule, papule/plaque, vesicle, pustule, urticaria, nodule, tumor, cysts

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28
Q

3 most imp vital parameters?

A

temperature, pulse rate, resp rate

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29
Q

2 lymph nodes which are palpable only when they are enlarged in adult horse?

A

lateral retropharyngeal and superficial cervical

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30
Q

2 radiological findings that may appear in a joint with osteoarthritis

A

perioarticular osteophyte formation
subchondral bone lysis and/or sclerosis
lucent zones in the subchondral bone
narrowing of the joint space
osseous cyst like lesions
joint capsule distension
periarticular soft tissue swelling

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31
Q

2 non musical adventitious resp sounds

A

clicking
rattling
cracking noises

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32
Q

what is the physical cause of the 4th heart sound(S4) in horses?

A

Atrial contraction and sudden arrest of the distended ventricle

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33
Q

what is the most frequently used electrocardiographic lead system in horses?

A

base apex lead

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34
Q

which greek prefix is used to describe the longest cardiac murmur?

A

Pan-/Holo-

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35
Q

List 2 main advantages of digital(direct) radiography over computed radiography?

A

image seen in a few seconds
faster examination
lower radiation dose
can produce better quality images

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36
Q

what is the interval of isothenuric urine specific gravity in horses?

A

1008-1014g/L (hyposthenuria<1008g/L;Hyperthenuria>10014g/L

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37
Q

True?

A

Tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

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38
Q

what is the first thing to do in a tendon injury?

A

removal of the injured parts(clean up)
rest, bandage immobilisation, cold therapy

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39
Q

The medial aspect of the stifle joint is easily recognisable in this way:
● The medial eminence of the tibia is larger
● The medial eminence of the tibia is smaller
● The fibula is on the medial aspect
● The radius is placed laterally

A

A

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40
Q

Which statement is correct
● Parts of the supporting phase of the stride are: landing, loading, stance, breakover
● Parts of the supporting phase of the stride are: landing, stance, breakover, flexion,
extention
● Phases of the breakover are: heel lift, solar lift, toe pivot
● None

A

A

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41
Q

Which statement is correct
● The cranial phase of the stride is longer in supporting limb lameness
● The origin of the pain is usually located in the proximal area in supporting limb lameness
● Both
● None

A

a

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42
Q

Supportive limb lameness symptoms?

A

cranial phase of stride is longer, neck and head movement lower problem: worse inside circle

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43
Q

Which statement is correct
● stride is shortening in horses with navicular disease
● navicular disease is really uncommon in frisian horse
● none
● both

A

D

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44
Q

Which statement is true for navicular disease?
● It can cause supporting limb lameness
● Worse in inside circle
● Both
● None

A

c

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45
Q

Swinging limb lameness
● Cranial phase of stride is shorter, worse in outside circle, problem is higher
● Cranial phase shorter, evident during motion, higher problem, worse in outside
circle
● Non-weightbearing leg lameness

A

A

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46
Q

The uneven distribution of weight to another healthy limb in compulsatory lameness can be possible
● From a frontlimb to the contralateral front limb
● From a hindlimb to the ipsilateral frontlimb
● From a frontlimb to the contralateral hindlimb
● All of them can be possible

A

A

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47
Q

What to watch in hip in lameness diagnostics?

A

Tuber sacrale

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48
Q

most common site of sub chondral bone cysts in equine is
● Medial femoral condyle
● Lateral femoral condyle
● Medial trochlea
● Lateral trochlea

A

A

Distal MC III/ MT III (medial or lateral condyles or crista sagittalis), Medial proximal radius epiphysis, distal phalanx, scapulum cavum glenoidale too

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49
Q

Typical for ulnar fractures in horses?
● Often becomes opened
● It can be cured with plate osteosynthesis, with good prognosis
● Always present with slight lameness
● The fracture never enters the elbow joint

A

b

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50
Q

Which statement is correct
● Mepivicain is less irritant than lidocaine
● Bupivacain has longer duration than mepivacaine
● Bupivacain has approx. 4 hours of duration
● All of them are correct

A

D

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51
Q

Which statement is correct
● The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part of the major tubercle of the humerus, behind the infraspinatus muscle insertion
● The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part of the major tubercle of the humerus, in front of infraspinatus muscle insertion
● Intraarticular analgesia of the shoulder needs min 40 ml anesthesia solution
● A and C are correct

A

B

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52
Q

Which protocol is used for stifle joint anesthesia in the horse
● Medial and lateral femorotibial joints, and femoropatellar joint, 20 ml in each
● Medial and lateral femorotibial joints, 20 ml in each
● Medial and lateral femoropatellar, and femorotibial joints, 20 ml in each
● Medial and lateral femoropatellar joints, 20 ml in each

A

A

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53
Q

The advised surgical treatment in case of P1 communicating fractures is:
● Lag screw fixation
● Transfixation cast
● Plate osteosynthesis

A

A

54
Q

Treatment on P1 fracture?

A

using a lag screw or light cast if its only a partial fracture
P1= Pasture

55
Q

True?

A

The site of the low palmar nerve block is at the level of the proximal sesamoids

56
Q

Low palmar block

A

palmar nerves(late&med)
palmar metacarpal nerves (lat &med)
fetlock anaesthesia

57
Q

what is blocked by the palmar block?

A

back of the foot including:
heel bulbs,
frog,
bars,
navicular bone and bursa,
palmar aspect of the coffin bone and joint,
part of the second phalanx(short pastern bone)

58
Q

Which statement is correct
● The sites of the low palmar nerve block are at the level of the proximal sesamoids
● Low palmar block anesthetizes the navicular region and the DIPJ as well
● Low palmar block anesthetizes the distal (in the hoof capsule) DDFT lesions
● All of them are correct

A

c

59
Q

Which amount of drug is used for tibial nerve block in the horse
● 3ml mepivacaine
● 5ml mepivacaine
● 10 ml mepivacaine
● 20 ml mepivacaine

A

d

60
Q

Advised tx for an injured podotrochlear bursa after ‘street nail’ pucture is:
● Bursoscopy through the distal tendon sheath
● Bursoscopy through the coffin joint

A

B

61
Q

in nail trip(streetnail) the treatment is:
● Removal of the nail quickly, antibiotic therapy, hoof bandage
● Removal of the nail quickly, antibiotics, tetanus antitoxin, hoof bandage
● LM X-ray to localise the nail, the therapy depends on the nail position and injured structures
● Every case needs tenoscopy

A

c

62
Q

what structures affected in streetnail procedure?
● Bursa podotrochlearis, digital flexor tendon sheet
● Bursa podotrochlearis, digital flexor tendon sheet, distal interphalangeal joint
● Bursa podotrochlearis, digital flexor tendon sheet, distal interphalangeal joint,
navicular bone
● Bursa podotrochlearis, digital flexor tendon sheet, distal interphalangeal joint, navicular bone, proximal interphalangeal joint

A

C

63
Q

What is the advised treatment for an injured podotrochlear bursa after ‚street nail’ puncture in a horse
● Bursoscopy through the distal tendon sheet
● Bursoscopy through the coffin joint
● Approach from the solar surface of the hoof
● Conservative treatment

A

B

64
Q

Horse open fracture, what can you do?

A

very poor prognosis for open fracture on long bone and the use of modern and expensive antibiotics does not change this situation significantly
can be treated surgically with poor prognosis in a low percentage of the cases

Prognosis of open fracture in horses, surgery possible?
Bad, surgery: plate osteosynthesis

65
Q

Which Statement is correct regarding screw osteosynthesis?
● Good for humeral condyle fractures
● Good for tibial oblique fractures
● Good for antebracial fractures
● Never good as a sole method

A

B

66
Q

What to do in case of long bone fracture in horse?

A

shock tx, stabilize, transport to hospital
stabilize, immobilise and refer to clinic

67
Q

lameness due to podotrochleosis-what is true(navicular dx)
●worse when horse is walking in circles
●cause opposite disease
● Hoof should be elevated 12-18° (F)
● Cool down hoof might be beneficial (F)

A

A

68
Q

horse steps in nail

A

dont remove , xray

69
Q

open fracture heal?

A

very rarely

70
Q

fracture you cant splint?
● Tibial greenstick fracture
● humeral spinal fracture
● Individual ulnar fracture
● MC3 multiple fracture

A

B

71
Q

In which case the conservative fracture treatment is not contraindicated
● Intraarticular fracture
● Salter-harris fracture
● Oblique fracture
● Fracture with massive dislocation

A

C

72
Q

Which is the correct fixation method of radial fracture in horses
● A lateral fixation up to the shoulder joint
● A palmar light cast fixation
● Full limb light cast
● It doesnt need any special fixation

A

A

73
Q

When do you have to perform surgery on a pelvic fracture?
● Less than 1/3rd is narrowed
● Fractured behind the acetabulum
● Acetabulum is involved in the fracture
● Extensive soft tissue surgery

A

C

74
Q

how do you correcr pastern fractures
● Surgery – screws with or without a plate Midsagittal simple fracture – lag screw

Little polster, but even surface (about 1 cm cotton-wool) up to carpus-tarsus
􏱁 Elastic or „Gaze“ bandage strongly pulled
● Fieberglas-cat

A
75
Q

what is the skyline angle if you want to xray the 3rd carpal bone?

A

● 35°

76
Q

skyline view of equine hock, when do you want to see what?

A

calcaneous osteophytes etc

77
Q

goal of the skyline view from the hock?
● To examine the lateral trochlea of the talus
● To examine the calcaneous and sustentaculum tail
● To examine the medial malleolus
● To examine the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia

A

B

78
Q

WHAT FRACTURE CANT YOU STABILISE WITH A SPLINT?

A

above elbow or stifle

79
Q

in upwards deviation of the equine patella, how do you correct it surgically?

A

medial patellar lig desmotomy

● performed in case of acute tendinitis, navicular disease

80
Q

which ligamet is required in case of patellar luxation?

● Cranial cruciate ligament
● Patellar straight ligament
● Both of them
● None of them

A

D

81
Q

true for distal palmar nerve block
● 23G needle, 1.5ml anaesthetic at level of collateral cartilages
● Structures anaesthetised: palmar foot, toe, DIP joint

A

?

82
Q

Which statement is correct
● Palmar digital nerve block needs min. 2,5 ml anesthetic solution per side
● The dorsal wall of the hoof capsule will be anesthetized wit palmar digital
● block
● The sites of the palmar digital nerve block are medially from the hoof cartilages
● All of them are true

A

D

83
Q

Bilateral forelimb periosteal reaction, xray what is the next move?

A

thoracic xray

84
Q

proximal phalanc commuited fracture, what to do?

A

lag screw and cast

85
Q

fixation of comminuted p3?

A

lag screw technique’screfixation’

86
Q

􏰞what statement is correct regarding acute laminitis in horses?
● in the category’obel’ there are 4 grades to classify acute laminitis
● The acute laminitis is more common in the hindlimbs
● The corrective trimming and shoeing have great importance in the treatment of
peracute laminitis
● To trot on hard ground with a patient with acute laminitis is really useful

A

A

87
Q

Grades of laminitis according to obel:
GRADE 1:
Horses shift weight from one foot to the other or incessantly lift feet. Lameness is not evident at a walk, but at the trot horses will have a shortened stride.
GRADE 2:
Horses move willingly at a walk and trot but with a noticeably shortened and stabbing stride. A foot can be lifted off the ground without difficulty.
GRADE 3:
Horses move reluctantly and resist attempts to lift affected or contralateral feet.
GRADE 4:
Horses express marked reluctance or absolute refusal to move.

A
88
Q

GRADES OF LAMINITIS:
1: Mild
2: Moderate (still bearing weight)
3: Severe (occasionally not bearing weight)
4: Non-weight bearing

A
89
Q

Which statement is correct
● Acute laminitis is always a secondary disease
● Acute laminitis is a common issue of endotoxemia in horses
● Both
● None

A

C

90
Q

Which characteristics are typical of the hoof capsule in chronic laminitis

A

● High heels, concave front wall, convex solar surface, widened white line (ORDER!)

91
Q

peracute laminitis, treatment?

A

trimming and corrective shoeing

92
Q

In peracute/acute laminitis what would you do?
● Ice shoes
● Correct shoes
● Both
● Neither

A

C

93
Q

Laminitis:
1st step: determine cause, correct if possible
IV fluid therapy, systemic antimicrobials, DMSO, antiinflam drugs, admin of mineral oil with gastric tube
maintain frog support to prevent furthur rotation, special shoes and sand bedding
deep digital flexor tenotomy/inferior check lig desmotomy
drilling of several holes in dorsal hoof capsule to allow serum and other fluids to escape
cast on hoof
ice on hooves

A
94
Q

Grades of Salter Harris
SH-I: complete separation between epiphysis and metaphysis
SH-II: fracture starts IN the metaphysis
SH-III: intra-articular fracture of epiphysis only
SH-IV: intra-articular fracture of epiphysis and metaphysis SH-V: just pain ?

A
95
Q

True about osteochondrosis?

If cartilage ruptures it is called osteochndritis dissecans Thickening of cartilage causes… Etc.
osteochondrosis is a deg disorder of the endochondrol ossification when the ossification ceases and the cartilage gets thicker the deeper layers necrotise

aetiology: unknown, maybe nurtitional high e intake
cs: lameness, young/large/giant breeds (4-10m old)
freq presents in >1 joint
affected: shoulder>elbow>stifle>tarsus

A
96
Q

Which statement is correct
● The blowout crack is a serious vertical hoof crack
● The blowout crack is causing serious lameness in most of the cases
● The blowout crack is a horizontal hoof crack
● None

A

C

97
Q

Which is not characteristic of the OCD in equine stifle
● It can occur on the lateral trochlear ridge of the femur in the femoro-patellar joint
● It can occur on the medial trochlear ridge of the femur in the femoro- patellar joint
● It is associated with joint effusion
● It is usually manifested in young animals

A

B

98
Q

In carpal valgus deformity the hoof location to the carpus is
● Abaxial
● Axial
● Cranial
● Caudal

A

A

99
Q

Which part of the metacarpo/metatarsophalangeal joint is visible clearly on the dorsal 45 degree lateral-palmaromedial oblique (45 degree) view in the horse
● Medial proximal sesamoid bone
● Lateral proximal sesamoid bone
● Statumen
● A and C together

A

A

100
Q

What kind of external coaptation should be used for transporting a horse with an ulna fracture?

A

robert jones bandage from elbow to splint bone

101
Q

a three year old standardbred colt was presented with acute severe lameness. What is the prognosis of this disorder is racehorses ( fracture ph.1)

A

Reasonable prognosis, just over 40%

102
Q

What is the previous step before measuring depth with a depth gauge, while you are performing fracture repair with a cortical screw inserting it in lag fashion

A

You counter sink screw

103
Q

A three year old standardbred cold was presented with acute severe lameness. What is the diagnosis of this disorder is racehorses

A

( fracture ph.1, fracture of sagittal edge on mc3)

104
Q

A three year old standardbred cold was presented with acute severe lameness. Describe this radiographic view ( fracture ph.1)

A

Dorsopalmar view

105
Q

Name of disease and how do you call foot, diverging rings on hoof wall and concave dorsal hoof wall, while looking at from the side

A

chronic laminitis

106
Q

Cranial phase of stride, while having swinging limb lameness of the front limb

A

shortened cranial phase

107
Q

Septic distal interphalangeal joint with regional limb perfusion. What AB, what dosage, how many ml

A

40-60 ml of gentamicin

108
Q

3 most important points to recognising lameness on hind limbs

A

Visual ,Palpation, ,provocation exam

109
Q

Describe digital flexion test on front limb

A

You keep hoof flexed for a minute and you immediately jog the horse off to evaluate changes in lameness. Do not have a joint of proximal and medial phalanx joint in hand.

110
Q

Extending hock passively, the achilles tendon becomes loosened, can also flex stifle. Diagnosis?

A

peroneus tertius rupture?

111
Q

Toeing in, how does the arc look from the top

A

inside hoof wall is lowered

112
Q

Hyperextension bad quality picture

A

pointing in

113
Q

Swollen fetlock and cannon bone, p1 horizontal, fetlock in hyperextension, what structure in ruptured

A

SDF

114
Q

Swinging limb lameness, what happens with the degree of lameness while the affected limb is on outside of circl

A

The degree of lameness is worse

115
Q

3 parameters with limiting values and appropriate units for a septic joint synovial fluid

A

· Leukocytes (cell /μl): 20-200x10^3 (20- 200 G/l)
· Neutrophils (%): >80-90
· TP (g/dl): 4-8

116
Q

Most irritative local anaesthetic

A

Lidocaine

117
Q

Major n. above carpus, innervates supf and deep digital flexor tendon

A

medial palmar nerve

118
Q

Max amount local anaesthetics for deep digital nerve block on fl

A

1.5ml

119
Q

Joint communicating with prox intertarsal joint?

A

talocalcaneal joint/taocrural joint

120
Q

2 nerves must be blocked to anaesthetise hock

A

tibial , peroneal nerve?

121
Q

Ligament to insert needle for intrasynovial block of dig common sheath tendon

A

Annular Lig

122
Q

First most dist perineural block, block entire hoof

A

Abaxial seasomoid nerve block

123
Q

Usual abnormality in bronchoalveolar lavage fluid cytology in horses with exercise induced pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Hemosiderin Containing macrophages

124
Q

2 viruses causing rhinitis in horses

A

equine influenza
ehv 1-4
equine rhinovirus and adenovirus

125
Q

Ancillary diagnostic methods for diagnosis of deep pulmonary abscesses

A

endoscopy radiograohy and US

126
Q

Drug only parenterally in horses

A

amphotericin B
sodium iodine

127
Q

4 m. suitable for IM injections

A

gluteus, lower half of sm and sm
pectoral
trapezius

128
Q

What is the exact amount of local anaesthetics, which should be injected for dist interphalangeal anaesthesia in a 500kg horse

A

6-20ml

129
Q

here do you insert the needle diagnostic perineural anaesthesia of the lat palmar nerve in order to block out the suspensory lig (m. interosseous medius) origin

A

from lateral
palmar/plantar to m.interosseus medius

130
Q

One example of congenital lameness disorder in horses (Ruptured common digital extensor tendon?)

A

navicular dx

131
Q

Horse with 365 degree of lameness on the right hind limb. On which leg are you going to have an appearing limb lameness in trot?

A

same limb, right hind limb

11th Semester (7 decks)

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