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T-6A 23-12AU > EPQ Study > Flashcards

EPQ Study Flashcards

1
Q

The lower (______) and upper (______) chevrons indicate the AOA is too low (fast approach speed) or too high (slow approach speed) for landing.

A

red ; green

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2
Q

Illumination of both PMU Fail and PMU Status annuciators indicates what condition?

A

Faults prevent the PMU from setting the requested power or respecting engine limits

Pilot switched PMU off

PMU system is in the manual mode

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3
Q

If aircraft are approaching each other head on or approaching so, each shall alter course _______.

A

to the right

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4
Q

Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds _____ft MSL

A

10,000 FT

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5
Q

Max flying time in 7 consecutive days is how many hours?

A

56

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6
Q

T or F
Aircrew my only use tobacco in flight if delievered by an electronic nicotine system.

A

False

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7
Q

Crew Rest
This time must include an opportunity for at least ____hrs of uniterrupted sleep

A

8

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8
Q

T or F
Pilots und IFR or VFR, whether or not under radar control, are not responsible for avoiding traffic, terrain/obstacles, and environmental hazards.

A

False

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9
Q

When mission essential trained aircrew may operate aircraft unpressurized up to ______.

A

FL 250

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10
Q

Primary air data info, provided through the air data system (ADS) is presented by which electronic instrument display in each cockpit?
A) Airspeed ind. B) Altimeter
C) VSI D) All
E) None

A

All

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11
Q

The RGB is a 2 stage planetary reduction drive to reduce turbine shaft speed of over ____RPM to the prop operating speed of ____RPM,

A

30,000 ; 2,000

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12
Q

The PMU Status light will illuminate 1 minute after landing (weight on wheel activation) if ______.

A

There is a fault condition that is not serious enough to revert the system to manual mode

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13
Q

The ejection seat is capable of providing safe escape from zero altitude, zero airspeed up to 35,000 ft at speeds up to approximately ____KIAS

A

370

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14
Q

Once hydraulic pressure exceeds ____PSI the system can power the landing gear flaps speed brake and nose wheel steering.

A

1800

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15
Q

The standby attitude indicator operates from the aux bat during main bat electrical failure, and retains sufficient energy in the gyro to provide accurate pitch/roll within ___degrees for a period of ____mins

A

6 ; 9

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16
Q

The EDM will activate the Red OIL PX annunciator of the CWS if oil pressure is below _____ when engine is above idle or when below _____ at idle

A

40 ; 15

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17
Q

The aircraft key set can be used to lock and unlock.
A) ground egress door B) baggage compartment
C) Canopy D) All

A

All

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18
Q

T or F
When cleared for Takeoff the pilot must clear final prior to crossing runway hold short lines.

A

True

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19
Q

T or F
Landing on an unprepared surface should only be attempted if ejection is not possible.

A

True

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20
Q

Pulling the emergency gear extension handle in the front cockpit does what?

A
  1. Allows emergency extension of gear
  2. isolates main hydro system at power pack slide assembly
  3. releases emergency accumulator pressure through independent lines
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21
Q

T or F
When at initial and intending to full stop out of an ELP add fuel to both the high key request and the high key call.

A

True

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22
Q

When demonstrating the slow flight coordination exercise conduct a series of left and right turns, using _____degrees of bank

A

15-20

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23
Q

Perform all aerobatic maneuvers, unusual attitudes, abnormal flight recoveries, practice lost wingman, extended trail exercise, stalls, slow flight, and OCF recoveries above ____.

A

6000 ft AGL

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24
Q

Standby Mag compass accuracy errors may be introduced by ______

A

accelerating, decelerating, and turning

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25
Q

Aircrew shall ensure ______prior to actuating the CFS to prevent injury from shards and hot fragments.

A

visor down and mask on

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26
Q

T or F
Any official business conducted after crew rest begins interrupts the crew rest period

A

True

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27
Q

T or F
If cabin altitude exceeds 18,000 ft MSL following the unintended loss of cabin pressure, aircrew and passengers must be evaluated by a flight surgeon or other aviation medical authority.

A

True

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28
Q

When do you intiate the recovery from a traffic pattern stall?

A

When an approach to stall indication is recognized.

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29
Q

Bleed air from the _____ is used for canopy seal, anti-g, heating/defogging, and pressuriazation

A

Right side P3

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30
Q

T or F
When landing at an uncontrolled airfield in the NAS the flight plan should close automatically

A

False

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31
Q

What are the cloud clearance mins for VFR in class C airspace

A

3 SM, 500 Below, 1000 Above, and 2000 Horizontal

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32
Q

T or F
If it is necessary to maneuver at a speed exceeding the upper limit of the speed range for an aircraft category, pilots will use the mins for the higher category unless otherwise authorized by AFI or MAJCOM

A

True

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33
Q

Do no depart IFR unless the weather conditions at the destination, from one hour before to one hour after ETA is forecast to be at or above ________

A

Lowest compatible published approach mins (not including TEMPO conditions)

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34
Q

T or F
When conditions prevent the mission under VFR, alter route and continue VFR until reaching the destination, obtain an IFR clearance, or land at a suitable location.

A

True

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35
Q

Within RVSM airspace ATC seperates aircraft by a min of 1,000 feet verticall between _____ and ______ inclusive

A

FL290 to FL410

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36
Q

Carry enough usable fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by ____percent (up to a max 45 mins for fixed wing or 30 mins for Helis) or _____mins whichever is greater.

A

10% ; 20

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37
Q

T or F
Pilots may use the sight glass or the dipstick for checking oil level when determining the correct indication of the oil level in the tank

A

False

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38
Q

The TAD computes a desired rudder tim tab position by sensing all of the following except:
A) Pilot rudder input B) Engine torque
C) Altitude & airspeed D) Pitch rate

A

A) pilot rudder input

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39
Q

Which of the following components is not protected from icing by the PROBES ANTI-ICE heating elements:
A) Static ports B) Pitot probes C) AOA vane
D) A & C E) None

A

A) Static ports

40
Q

With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor modulates oil pressure to the prop pitch change piston to limit Np below ______

A

106%

41
Q

T.O. indicates the TO flap setting and corresponds with ____degree deflection. LDG indicates the landing flap setting and corresponds with ______degree deflection

A

23 ; 50

42
Q

When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, use fuel consumption rates that provide ______.

A

Best endurance at 10,000 ft MSL

43
Q

_________ means of navigation refers to using a sutable RNAV system in lieu of out of service conventional NAVIADS or non-installed or non-operable avionics.

A

Substitute

44
Q

In what document are explanations given for NOTAM abbreviations?

A

FIH

45
Q

The approach speed range for Cat B is _______

A

91-120

46
Q

All of the following should be obtained during mission planning except:
A) weather observations B) NOTAMS
C) Fuel requirements D) Bird Condition
E) All

A

E) All

47
Q

When does the red CANOPY annunciator illuminate?

A

Canopy latch mechanism and micro switches do not indicate the canopy is in the closed and locked position

48
Q

The hydro pump pressurizes the normal system and emergency accumulator to ________PSI

A

3000 +/- 120

49
Q

If the generator fails while the BUS TIE annuncator is illuminated, items on the gen bus will not be powered. Expect a min of _____ of bat power to the bat bus items.

A

30 Mins

50
Q

If the red GEN light illuminates, what equipment is automatically shed?

A

air conditioning

51
Q

Which of the following is most true about when to confirm aircraft configuration during overhead patterns:
A) Prior to crossing threshold
B) Prior to perch
C) Prior to rolling out on final
D) When the PF gets around to it

A

B) Prior to perch

52
Q

When a Chandelle is complete (180 degrees of turn)….

A

Lower the nose and perform a nose high recovery

53
Q

T or F
If equipped, turn anti collision or strobe lights on from just prior to engine start until engine shutdown

A

True

54
Q

Declare “min fuel” or “emergency fuel” to appropriate controlling agency when….

A

The aircraft may land at the intended destination with less than the MDS-Specific min or emergency fuel reserves

55
Q

T or F
Joker fuel is a prebriefed fuel state that allows aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or an alternate if required using pre planned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel.

A

False

56
Q

Base Key altitude is _______ft MSL

A

600-800

57
Q

When practicing ELP stalls, recovery from the “glide to high key” stall is accomplished by:

A

Lowering pitch attitude slightly below the normal glide picture and re-establish glide once airspeed reaches 125 KIAS

58
Q

Landing lights should be turned on when TO clearance is received, when commencing TO at an airport without an operating control tower or when operating below _______ft MSL within normal MDS-Specific procedures.

A

10,000

59
Q

Descent gradients in excess of ____degrees (_____feet per nautical mile) in IMC may induce spatial disorientation.

A

10 ; 1000ft

60
Q

When a restricted ow approach is directed, do not descend below ____ or below the altitude specified by the controller

A

500 ft AGL

61
Q

ATC issues speed adjustments to pilots o RADAR conrolled aircraft to achieve or maintain required or desired spacing. Pilots complying with speed adjustments must maintain a speed within how many knots of specified speed?

A

10 knots

62
Q

If official post flight duties are anticipated to exceed _____hrs commanders should consider reducing FDP to snure safle completion.

A

2 hrs

63
Q

T or F
Aircrew may perform an unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstration, manuever, or flyover if approved by ATC.

A

False

64
Q

The Stick shaker provides stall warning and is activate at approximately ______knots above stall speed (_____units AOA)

A

5-10 ; 15.5

65
Q

When ISS is set to both which seat will eject first regardless of who pulls the handle?

A

Rear seat

66
Q

An amber EHYD PX LO annunciator is illuminated when…

A

Emer hydro accumulator pressure drops below 2400 +/- 150 PSI

67
Q

If your winds are 10 gusting 20 knots what is your rotate speed?

A

90

68
Q

T or F
Aircrew must include pattern position when breaking out.

A

True

69
Q

When accomplishing the G Ex the G onset rate should be _____ allowing sufficient time to evaluate the effectiveness of the AGSM.

A

Slow and smooth

70
Q

T or F
A joint-use airfield is a type “P-Coded” civil airfield

A

False

71
Q

When the GPS is in approach active mode the CDI scale changes from the approach arm mode scale of _______NM to _________NM

A

+/- 1 NM ; +/- 0.3 NM

72
Q

Oil level must be serviced within ____ minutes of engine shutdown. For most accurate results check oil level _____ to ______minutes after shutdown.

A

30 ; 15 to 20

73
Q

The electric boost pump:
A) provides fuel for start
B) Serves as a backup to engine driven low pressure pump
C) Should be switched ON immediately prior to engine start
D) A & B
E) All

A

D) A & B

74
Q

What is true regarding flap operation when the aux bat is only source of power:
A) Normal flap operation is unavailable
B) Flap position indication is unavailable
C) Emergency flap operation is not available
D) All

A

D) All

75
Q

If bleed air temp at either sensor in the environmental system duct exceeds ______at any time, the amber DUCT TEMP annunciator will illuminate.

A

300

76
Q

If you get a traffic alert (TA) when VFR or IFR you should

A

Attempt to attain visual contact and maintain safe separation

77
Q

During inverted flight, a weighted rod in the pickup valve closes off the normal fuel pick up, and opens the inverted flight pickup. This provides a min of ______seconds of fuel regardless of orientation, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system

A

15 seconds

78
Q

T or F
Oxymetazdine or phenylephrine nasal sprays may be carried should unexpected ear or sinus block occur during flight.

A

True

79
Q

T or F
The PMU also provides engine protection for airstart capability. During an airstart, automatic N1, ITT, and torque limit protection is available.

A

False

80
Q

The power management unit (PMU) is normailly powered by the ________

A

Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)

81
Q

The process of monitoring and predicting satellite position is known as…

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)

82
Q

Bleed air from the _____ is used for OBOGS

A

Left side P3

83
Q

T or F
Ground Speed and time to are not displayed when DME HOLD is active

A

True

84
Q

The Engine Data Manager (EDM), standby altimeter, and standby airspeed indicators receive static pressure from the ______.

A

secondary pitot static system

85
Q

When the interphone control switch is set to ______the ICS key switch or ICS Key/Mute switch on either PCL must be activated to use the interphone

A

COLD

86
Q

T or F
With the pressurization control switch set to dump or RAM/DUMP bleed air inflow to the cockpit continues.

A

True

87
Q

Trained aircrew are authorized to use a host nation instrument procedure if…
A) Procedure is published in DOD FLIP
B) Host nation is on DOD Accepted Host Nation List and in published in English
C) Has a current FTIP review
D) All of the above

A

All of the above

88
Q

How many types of way points appear in area navigation procedures?

A

2

89
Q

How is a flyover waypoint indicated on an area navigation procedure?

A

Standard flyby waypoint enclosed in a circle

90
Q

T or F
Some instrument procedures are based on a ground track. Obstruction clearance assumes that pilots apply appropriate corrections to maintain the published path across the ground.

A

False

91
Q

T or F
Turn anticipation is allowed for flyover waypoints.

A

False

92
Q

T or F
For holding in the NAS, timing is based on the outbound leg.

A

False

93
Q

What is the standard holding bank angle?

A

3 degrees per second or 25 degrees bank angle, whichever is less bank.

94
Q

T or F
After entering the holding pattern, the pilot is not expected to compensate for known winds to arrive at an outbound position from which a turn places the aircraft on the inbound holding course.

A

False

95
Q

(NAS only) Make all turns during entry and while holding at the lesser of:
A) 3 degrees per second
B) 25 degrees of bank angle using a flight director
C) 30 degrees of bank
D) All of the above

A

All of the above

96
Q

During a go around below 500’ AGL, the gear and flaps should be retracted ________.
A) With a positive climb indication
B) When certain the aircraft will not touch down
C) As soon as power is advanced
D) A & B
E) All of the above

A

D) A & B

T-6A 23-12AU (18 decks)

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