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T-6A 23-12AU > Combined Check Ride GK Guide / Smartbook > Flashcards

Combined Check Ride GK Guide / Smartbook Flashcards

1
Q

What does a red X mean in the 781?

A

Grounding symbol. Indicated aircraft is unsafe or unserviceable and will not be flown until the respective condition is cleared.

Grounding

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2
Q

What does a red dash mean in the 781?

A

Non-grounding symbol. Specific equipment or system is unknown and may indicate a serious condition. Usually indicates overdue inspection.

Non-grounding

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3
Q

What does a red slash mean in the 781?

A

Indicates a discrepancy exists with one or more pieces of equipment but is not significantly urgent or dangerous enough to warrant grounding the aircraft.

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4
Q

How long are exceptional releases valid?

A

Valid for the entire day unless aircraft status changes. (When a rated PIC signs off his/her ER, it is only valid for their flight)

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5
Q

Who can sign off exceptional releases?

A

Generally senior NCOs, maintenance officers, their civilian counterparts, and a rated PIC.

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6
Q

How long is a pre-flight inspection valid?

A

PR is valid for 72 hrs (if not flown) per AETC or the flying operations day if flown

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7
Q

How long is a tire pressure check good for?

A

24 hours

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8
Q

When should an overdue inspection be signed off?

A

ASAP (overfly by only 10%)

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9
Q

What does an FDR “maint” light indicate? FDR “fail” light?

A
  • FDR Maint: IDARS memory approx. 80% full and an aircraft over-G (any type)
  • FDR Fail: The recorder has failed and requires maintenance
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10
Q

What are acceptable taxi speeds?

A
  • Walking pace in congested areas, A/C discretion outside congested areas.
  • Per 11-248: 5-7 Kts in congested areas, 15 kts outside congested areas
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11
Q

Who has the right of way?

A
  • The aircraft on the others right
  • Aircraft taxiing out have priority over those returning.
    ▪ Fuel limited: T-38s, T-6s, T-1s
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12
Q

Typical conflict points when taxiing on the airfield?

A
  • Leaving the parking row (aircraft taxiing in vs. aircraft leaving)
  • EOR
  • Taxiway Alpha, Alpha/Juliet, Alpha/Lima, and Echo/Hotel
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13
Q

Wingtip clearance with and without wing walkers?

A

25 ft w/o and 10 ft with

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14
Q

Taxi spacing during day/night? Various weather conditions?

A
  • Normal 150’ on centerline, 75’ offset
  • 300’ on centerline at night/wet/icy
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15
Q

Starting malfunction: Bat Bus Annunciator

A

Bus lose power below 16.0 Volts

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16
Q

Starting malfunction: PMU status/fail

A

PMU is not monitoring the start

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17
Q

Starting malfunction: Hot Start

A

High ITT getting near to or exceeding starting limits
- 871 to 1000 for 5 sec

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18
Q

Starting malfunction: No start

A

No ITT or N1 indication for 10 seconds of FF

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19
Q

Starting malfunction: Hung Start

A

ITT rises but slows down significantly around 25% N1

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20
Q

Racetrack procedures

A

Left/right turn to 090, for 2 miles, direct racetrack; 1,200’ MSL; 200 kts; Squawk 0300; report “C/S, Racetrack,” CH4; need 1500-3 for WX (restricted ovhd or better at KCBM)

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21
Q

Unrestricted status

A

Weather and facilities permit full use of all training areas for both dual and solo missions.

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22
Q

Wing Solo status

A
  • (2500-3)
  • min in flight vis (5 miles)
  • form solos remain clear of clouds
  • contact solos must remain in the FISH.
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23
Q

Pattern Solo status

A
  • (2500-3)
  • min in flight vis (5 miles)
  • Solo students must remain in the FISH
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24
Q

Dual status

A
  • (2500-3)
  • no student solos period
  • all VFR pattern ops available (except maybe highkey).
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25
Q

Restricted Overhead status

A
  • (1500-3) (2000-3 required for Low key)
  • min ceiling and vis to enter pattern from radar term (2100-3)
  • pattern entry via straight-in from radar term
  • 8 aircraft max in pattern
  • no breakouts (squawk emergency if required to breakout).
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26
Q

Contact Recoveries status

A
  • (1500-3) (1600-3 over radar term)
  • call initial w/ Tower
  • Cancel IFR no later than radar term
  • 4 aircraft max
  • no breakouts or ELPs
  • 3 VFR patterns max.
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27
Q

VFR Straight-In status

A
  • (1500-3) (2100-3 to enter via radar term)
  • pattern entry made via straight-in
  • must be to a full stop (no complete patterns)
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28
Q

IFR Recoveries status

A
  • Must have circling mins for the inside runway (600-1)
  • fly published approach (RNAV E or F).
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29
Q

Slots status

A
  • Lowest compatible approach mins (ILS: 200-1/2)
  • Plan all approaches to a full stop.
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30
Q

Recall/Area Hold status

A
  • Solo students recover first
  • SOF will coordinate launches and recoveries

For area hold, all airborne aircraft not in the pattern will reference IFG pg. 57.

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31
Q

Gunshy Ops

A
  • (2500-3)
  • max of 6 aircraft in the pattern
  • must be able to maintain VFR entering DAVSN and picking up IFR clearance leaving on desired
    recovery.
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32
Q

Sunfish ops: Remain outside of ____ ft and ____ DME unless entering at Radar Termination.

A

3,500; 7

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33
Q

Sunfish ops: When breaking out, start turn at ____ DME and remain within ____ DME.

A

4.5; 6

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34
Q

Sunfish ops: Max of ____ Aircraft in the pattern unless status restricts otherwise.

A

12

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35
Q

Pattern alts

A
  • High Pattern: 3200
  • Highkey: 2700 - 3200 MSL
  • Breakout (norm): 2200 MSL
  • Lowkey: 1700 MSL
  • Breakout (VFR entry): 1700 MSL
  • Breakout (Perch): 1700 then 2200 MSL.
  • Pattern alt: 1200 MSL
  • Breakout (Straight-in): 700 MSL
  • Straight-in: 700 MSL
36
Q

DD Form ____ should be emailed to ____ NLT ____ prior to planned takeoff time. Call base ops within ____ of sending to ensure receipt of flight plan.

A

1801s; Base Ops; 1+15. 10 minutes

37
Q

Solo students will takeoff after ____ and land prior to ____.

A

official sunrise; official sunset

38
Q

Cross Country Procedures: Submit a ____ and DTS orders NLT ____ workdays prior to date of
departure.

A

4327A; 2

39
Q

Call the command post after each sortie and provide:

A
  • call sign
  • crew members
  • tail number
  • contact info
  • location and time departed (Zulu)
  • current location
  • maintenance code
  • estimated time of departure from current location (Zulu)
  • eta of arrival at next destination
  • next destination
40
Q

only place outside of the EOR where you are allowed to stagger (only in formation).

A

Taxiway A

41
Q

Highly recommended to remain IFR to the max extent practical when outside of ____ DME from CBM.

A

20

42
Q

Local squawk codes

A

Sunfish: 0000
Established in GTR pattern: 0200
Racetrack recovery: 0300
Gunshy: 1200

43
Q

Sunfish airspace

A
  • 3,500 MSL
  • 7 DME arc to 13R/31L (only 3NM past departure end)
44
Q

What is prioritized at sunfish

A

Overheads emphasized over straight-ins and ELPs

45
Q

Conflict points

A
  • Initial
  • VFR entry
  • inside downwind
  • Final turn
  • 90-to-initial
46
Q

Low Approach vs. Restricted Low Approach

A
  • Restricted low approach includes offsetting and no lower than 500’ AGL
  • A normal low approach just precludes touching down
47
Q

Single Rwy Ops

A

T6 Bingo fuel changes to 350 lbs. Solos will land ASAP

48
Q

Runway Change Procedures

A
  • 15 mins: solos w/less than 600# directed to full stop
  • 10 mins: A/C w/ less than 300# (or 500# if GTR open) full stop or depart pattern
  • 05 mins: No RADAR entries to VFR pattern, No pitchouts except for full stops, no high key.
  • 00 mins: Sunfish directs A/C in pattern to climb to 2,200 MSL, depart pattern on turn to downwind, and reenter pattern at VFR entry for the new runway
49
Q

Who to talk to in the event of a problem in the chocks?

A
  • Texan Ops (VHF Ch. 20)
  • Crew chief
50
Q

Aerobatic/Stalls/Spins restrictions (WX, ALT, etc)

A

WX
- Greater than 6,000 AGL
- Clear of clouds
- discernible horizon
- 3SM inflight vis

ALT
- Start spin above 13,500’ MSL + 7,000’ above cloud tops
- Ensure spin stops before 10,000’ PA + 3,000’ above the clouds

  • Don’t start spin above 22,000’ MSL PA
51
Q

Generator

A
  • 28 Volts
  • 300 amp hr
  • Provides power for both busses
  • Charges battery with greater than 25V
  • In flight voltage of 28.0-28.5V
  • In flight amps of -2 to +50
52
Q

Battery

A
  • 24 Volts
  • 42 amp hr
  • Powers everything but the Air Conditioning
  • 30 minutes of power to BAT bus items
53
Q

Aux Battery

A
  • 24 Volts
  • 5 amp hr
  • Powers Standby instruments, standby lights, UHF backup and fire 1 light (no audible warning)
54
Q

Hot Bat Bus

A
  • Bat Switch, ELT, FDR light, OBOGS, RAM Air, Emergency Flap extension, Clocks
  • BEFORE Time memory jogger
  • Flap position indicators will be inoperable
55
Q

BAT BUS (red) CWS light

A

Battery Bus failure

56
Q

GEN BUS (red) CWS light

A

Generator Bus failure

57
Q

PMU FAIL (red) CWS light

A
  • IOAT exceeds 121 degrees Celsius
  • PMU failure
  • PMU off (PMU STATUS)
58
Q

GEN (red) CWS light

A

Generator failure

59
Q

CKPT PX (red) CWS light

A

Cockpit pressure exceeds a differential of 3.9 - 4.0 psi

60
Q

CANOPY (red) CWS light

A
  • Canopy is not down and or indicating locked
  • Canopy micro-switches do not indicate the canopy is in the closed and locked position
61
Q

FUEL PX (red) CWS light

A
  • Less than 10 psi detected in the motive flow/return flow supply line
62
Q

OIL PX (red) CWS light

A
  • Oil pressure below 40 psi with PCL above idle
  • Oil pressure below 15 psi with PCL below idle
  • Oil pressure 15-40 psi for 5 seconds
63
Q

OBOGS FAIL (red) CWS light

A
  • Low bleed air pressure upstream of the concentrator
  • Low oxygen concentration leaving the concentrator
  • Internal failure detected by the BIT
64
Q

CHIP (red) CWS light

A
  • Ferrous material has been detected in the oil in the reduction gearbox
  • Indicates oil contamination
65
Q

FUEL BAL (amber) CWS light

A
  • Fuel imbalance is greater than 30lbs for 2 minutes, also turns off the automatic fuel balance system. Cycle fuel balance switch to turn back on and reset.
66
Q

PMU STATUS (amber) CWS light

A
  • PMU off (FAIL)
  • 1 minute after landing if fault
    conditions are not serious enough to
    revert to manual mode during flight.
  • Illumination in flight indicates a fault or mismatch between WOW, and notifies the
    pilot that the PMU will not revert to
    ground mode upon landing (N1 will
    not go to ground idle)
67
Q

EHYD PX LO (amber) CWS light

A

Pressure in emergency accumulator drops below 2400+/-150

68
Q

TAD FAIL (amber) CWS light

A

TAD fail

69
Q

OBOGS TEMP (amber) CWS light

A

OBOGS ducting temperature exceeds 200 degrees F

70
Q

L/R FUEL LO (amber) CWS light

A

Wing tank below 110lbs

71
Q

DUCT TEMP (amber) CWS light

A

Bleed Air temperature above 300 degrees F

72
Q

CKPT ALT (amber) CWS light

A

Cockpit pressure altitude rises above 19,000 ft

73
Q

HYDR FL LO (amber) CWS light

A

Hydraulic fluid below 1 quart

74
Q

OIL PX (amber) CWS light

A
  • Oil pressure between 15-40 psi with PCL at idle
  • Oil pressure between 40-90 psi with PCL above idle for 10 seconds
75
Q

BUS TIE (amber) CWS light

A

Bus tie connecting bat and gen busses is open

76
Q

IGN SEL (green) CWS light

A
  • Ignition switch is on
  • Engine start sequence initiated
  • Indicates firing of the ignitors
77
Q

M FUEL BAL (green) CWS light

A

Manual fuel balance has been initiated

78
Q

TRIM OFF (green) CWS light

A

Trim disconnect switch set to off

79
Q

BOOST PUMP (green) CWS light

A

Boost pump is on, either by switch or automatically on engine start or less than 10 psi is detected in the motive flow line

80
Q

ST READY (green) CWS light

A

PCL is in the start ready position, will remain illuminated for 3 seconds even if PCL is moved out of position

81
Q

Dual only maneuvers

A
  • Stalls
  • Stability Demonstration
  • Nose high/ Nose Low/ Inverted/ OCF Recoveries
  • Uncontrolled Airfield Operations
  • ELPs or engine out procedures
  • Flaps up Patterns and landings
  • Straight ins
  • Slow Flight
  • Rolling Takeoffs
  • Low Closed
  • Low level Navigation
82
Q

Primary pitot static location

A

right side

83
Q

Final Airspeeds

A

Clean: 110
Flaps TO: 105
Flaps LDG: 100

84
Q

Final turn airspeeds

A

Clean: 120
Flaps TO: 115
Flaps LDG: 110

85
Q

Common conflict points

A
  • initial
  • 2 miles
  • perch point
  • radar termination point
  • VFR entry
  • radar initial
  • 90/45 to initial
  • crosswind
  • closed/downwind

T-6A 23-12AU (18 decks)

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