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EPPP > EPPP- Biological Basis of Behavior > Flashcards

EPPP- Biological Basis of Behavior Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following may occur following damage to the basal ganglia EXCEPT:

a. Bradykinesia
b. Rigidity
c. Paralysis
d. Tremor

A

C. Paralysis

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2
Q

The primary function of the myelin sheath is to:

a. Increase the strength of the nerve impulse
b. Determine whether the postsynaptic neuronal response is excitation or inhibition
c. Determine whether the postsynaptic nerve will fire an action potential
d. Increase the speed of neuronal firing

A

D. Increase the speed of neuronal firing

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3
Q

An acute intracranial hemorrhage will appear _____ on a CT scan, which is often referred to as a _____.

a. White/hyperdensity
b. White/hypodensity
c. Black/hyperdensity
d. Black/hypodensity

A

A. White/hyperdensity

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4
Q

Your patent is a 7 year old child. His mother reports that he frequently exhibits staring spells during which time he is unresponsive. These spells last several second, and he subsequently appears lethargic. The first diagnostic tool you should recommend is:

a. A WADA test
b. The Glasgow Coma Scale
c. An EEG
d. A neuroangiogram

A

C. An EEG

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5
Q

The person who spontaneously utters the following phrase, “window… break… ball” but who cannot repeat the phrase, “The ball broke the glass window” most likely has which of the following disorders of speech:

a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. Conduction aphasia
c. Transcortical motor aphasia
d. Broca’s aphasia

A

D. Broca’s aphasia

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6
Q

The primary site of brain deterioration in Alzheimer’s dementia is usually the:

a. Medial temporal lobe
b. Medial parietal lobe
c. Frontal-temporal lobes
d. Temporal-parietal lobes

A

A. Medial temporal lobe

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7
Q

Which of the following answers correctly pairs the stage of Alzheimer’s disease with the corresponding symptom presentation?

a. Stage 1: aphasia, apraxia, and/or acalculia
Stage 2: agnosia
Stage 3: declines in memory, visuospatial functioning, and
language
b. Stage 1: declines in memory, visuospatial functioning, and
language
Stage 2: apraxia, aphasia and/or acalculia
Stage 3: impaired intellecutal functioning and minimal
verbal output
c. Stage 1: declines in memory and intellectual functioning
Stage 2: emergence of apraxia, aphasia, and/or acalculia
Stage 3: agnosia
d. Stage 1: impaired intellectual functioning, memory
problems, and apraxia
Stage 2: minimal verbal output
Stage 3: declines in visuospatial functioning and language

A

B. Stage 1: declines in memory, visuospatial
functioning, and language
Stage 2: apraxia, aphasia and/or acalculia
Stage 3: impaired intellecutal functioning and
minimal verbal output

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8
Q

Personality changes and executive dysfunction are primary features of which of the following diseases?

a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Huntington’s disease
d. Pick’s disease

A

D. Pick’s disease

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9
Q

The primary brain region affected in Huntington’s disease is the:

a. Caudate nucleus
b. Putamen
c. Substantia nigra
d. Globus pallidus

A

A. Caudate nucleus

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10
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Delirium is marked by an abrupt onset and fluctuating course
b. The hallmark feature of a delirium state is impaired attention
c. Delirium is relatively uncommon among patients hospitalized for non-neurological conditions
d. Delirium can be caused by prescription medications, toxin exposure, or metabolic disturbance

A

C. Delirium is relatively uncommon among patients hospitalized for non-neurological conditions

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11
Q

A seizure that is due to abnormal electrical activity in the left temporal lobe and is characterized by an alteration in consciousness and repetitive movements such as lip smacking or undoing a button would most likely be referred to as what type of seizure?

a. Absence seizure
b. Generalized tonic-clonic seizure
c. Complex partial seizure
d. Simple partial seizure

A

C. Complex partial seizure

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a protective covering of the brain?

a. Arachnoid
b. Sphenoid
c. Dura
d. Pia
e. C and B

A

B. Sphenoid

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13
Q

Which of the following are regions of primary sensory processing?

a. Occipital lobe
b. thalamus
c. Temporal lobe
d. A and B
e. A and C

A

E. A and C

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14
Q

Which of the following structure is NOT considered part of the basal ganglia?

a. Globus pallidus
b. Pineal
c. Subthalamic nucleus
d. Putamen

A

B. Pineal

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15
Q

An impulse traveling away from the cell body of the neuron travels along the _____.

a. Axon
b. Dendrite
c. Soma
d. Terminal button

A

A. Axon

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16
Q

The process by which incoming stimuli cross over and are transmitted to the contralateral hemisphere is known as:

a. Myelination
b. Differentiation
c. Propagation
d. Decussation

A

D. Decussation

17
Q

The lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus _____

a. Maintains balance and coordination
b. Relays visual information to the occipital lobe
c. Processes auditory information
d. Secretes cerebral spinal fluid

A

b. Relays visual information to the occipital lobe

18
Q

The telecephalon, or cerebrum, includes which of the following structures?

a. Frontal lobes
b. Occupital lobes
c. Pons
d. A, B, and C
e. A and B

A

E. A and B

19
Q

The role of mirror neurons has been associated with:

a. Empathy
b. Primary visual processing
c. Hand-eye coordination
d. Imitation
e. A and D

A

E. A and D

20
Q

As part of the limbic system, the hippocampus is most often associated with what?

a. Memory formation and transfer to long-term storage
b. The regulation of emotional responses to the environment
c. Relaying of sensory information to primary processing regions
d. Hunger

A

A. Memory formation and transfer to long-term storage

21
Q

Multiple sensory modalities are integrated in cortical regions known as:

a. Parietal lobes
b. Midbrain
c. Heteromodal cortex
d. Falx cerebri

A

C. Heteromodal cortex

22
Q

Typically located in the language-dominant hemisphere, _____ is a secondary processing region dedicated to the comprehension of language.

a. Parastriate region
b. Broca’s area
c. Orbitofrontal cortex
d. Wernicke’s area

A

D. Wernicke’s area

23
Q

_____ has/have increasingly replaced _____ for the first-line treatment of chronic anxiety.

a. Barbituates, SSRIs
b. Benzodiazepines, SSRIs
c. SSRIs, benzodiazepines
d. Alcohol, barbituates

A

C. SSRIs, benzodiazepines

24
Q

Cardiac/autonomic, severe anticholinergic, and neurobehavioral are types of side effects of _____

a. TCAs
b. Anticonvulsants
c. SSRIs
d. Anxiolytics

A

A. TCAs

25
Q

A drug known for having a narrow therapeutic index is:

a. Lithium
b. Ambien
c. Cymbalta
d. Concerta

A

A. Lithium

26
Q

Fatal agranulocytosis is a side effect of:

a. Clozapine (Clozaril)
b. Alprazolam (Xanax)
c. Dextroamphetamine (Adderall)
d. Buspirone (BuSpar

A

A. Clozapine (Clozaril)

27
Q

SAMe is _____

a. An alternative remedy for depression
b. An antipsychotic
c. A stimulant
d. A cognitive enhancing drug

A

A. An alternative remedy for depression

28
Q

SSRIs are used to treat:

a. Anxiety
b. Depression
c. Anxiety and Depression
d. Psychosis

A

C. Anxiety and Depression

29
Q

Barbituates are:

a. Essentially replaced by other psychotropic medications, including benzodiazepines
b. Sleep medication
c. Antidepressants
d. Cognitive enhancing drugs

A

A. Essentially replaced by other psychotropic medications, including benzodiazepines

30
Q

Pharmacokinetics refers to _____

a. How the body handles a drug, including absorption, distribution, and elimination and metabolism
b. A drug’s mechanism of action
c. Amino acids, biogenic amines, and peptides
d. How a drug brings about unwanted side effects

A

a. How the body handles a drug, including absorption, distribution, and elimination and metabolism

EPPP (9 decks)

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