EPPP- Assessment and Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

This domain of practice is typically focused on understanding the relationship between brain and behavior through assessment:

a. Clinical Psychology
b. industrial organizational
c. neuropsychology
d. school psychology

A

c. neuropsychology

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2
Q

Hiltonsmith & Keller’s (1983) framework for organizing data from an ecological assessment include all of the following except:

a. setting operation
b. setting Foundation
c. setting opportunities
d. setting appearance and contents

A

b. setting Foundation

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3
Q

Which of the following is an example of a criterion-referenced test?

a. driving exam
b. mmpi-2
c. GRE
d. wais-iv

A

a. driving exam

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4
Q

The process of defining a target behavior, determining the antecedents of the behavior, and describing the consequence or function of the target behavior is referred to as:

a. direct observation
b. event sampling
c. narrative recording
d. functional behavioral assessment

A

d. functional behavioral assessment

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5
Q

A psychologist is attempting to gather more information regarding the severity and frequency of a patient’s target behavior problems of hitting Piers through a school observation. what is the most appropriate observation method to use?

a. event sampling
b. direct observation
c. interval recording
d. narrative recording

A

a. event sampling

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6
Q

It is helpful to gain information from multiple informants regarding an examinee because informant readings may be influenced by:

a. ethnicity
b. socioeconomic status
c. familiarity with the individual
d. All the Above

A

d. All the Above

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a key component of an assessment center?

a. job analysis
b. single assessor evaluation
c. simulations
d. assessor training

A

b. single assessor evaluation

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8
Q

In item response theory item discrimination refers to:

a. the percentage of test takers who get the answer correct
b. how well the item distinguishes who scores high versus low on a test
c. probability of getting an item correct by chance
d. the proportion of test-takers who fail the exam

A

b. how well the item distinguishes who scores high versus low on a test

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9
Q

According to generalizability theory which of the following constitutes potential sources of error in test measurement?

a. test items
b. rater/examiner
c. time of day test was administered
d. All the Above

A

d. All the Above

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10
Q

Which of the following is not true about reliability and validity?

a. validity of a measure indicates the extent to which it measures what it is supposed to measure
b. in order for a measure to be reliable it must be valid
c. the reliability coefficient reflects the degree of consistency of a measure
d. in order for a measure to be valid it must be reliable

A

b. in order for a measure to be reliable it must be valid

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11
Q

Which of the following is not true about test retest reliability?

a. it refers to the stability of a test over time
b. it is appropriate to use when the trait or ability is thought to be variable across time
c. the interval between test and retest can impact the reliability coefficient
d. it is assessed by administering them to the same group at two time points

A

b. it is appropriate to use when the trait or ability is thought to be variable across time

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12
Q

The Kuder-Richardson formula (20) is used to measure:

a. inter rater reliability
b. parallel form reliability
c. internal consistency reliability
d. test retest reliability

A

c. internal consistency reliability

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13
Q

Kappa measures:

a. inter rater reliability
b. test retest reliability
c. content validity
d. Criterion validity

A

a. inter rater reliability

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14
Q

The trinitarian model of validity includes all of the following except:

a. construct validity
b. concurrent validity
c. content validity
d. Criterion validity

A

b. concurrent validity

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15
Q

This type of validity refers to the extent to which a measure or test is associated with the trait or ability it is intended to measure:

a. construct validity
b. concurrent validity
c. Criterion validity
d. content validity

A

a. construct validity

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16
Q

A decrease in type 2 error leads to:

a. an increase in sensitivity
b. an increase in specificity
c. a decrease in type 1 error
d. none of the above

A

a. an increase in sensitivity

17
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate to use as a broad-based measure of social emotional and behavioral functioning in an assessment with a 10 year old?

a. Beck anxiety inventory
b. child depression inventory- II
c. social responsiveness scale
d. Behavior assessment system for children- 2

A

d. Behavior assessment system for children- 2

18
Q

The cattell-horn-carroll (CHC) theory of intelligence has historically included 9 broad Stratham abilities including all of the following except:

a. Fine motor ability
b. quantitative reasoning
c. long-term storage and retrieval
d. writing ability

A

a. Fine motor ability

19
Q

According to the Cattell-Horn model what were the two types of intelligence?

a. quantitative reasoning and perceptual reasoning
b. fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence
c. crystallized intelligence and perceptual reasoning
d. perceptual reasoning and emotional intelligence

A

b. fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence

20
Q

Which of the following is considered an unstructured personality assessment?

a. Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory-2
b. personality assessment inventory- adolescent
c. millon clinical multiaxial inventory-3
d. Rorschach inkblot test

A

d. Rorschach inkblot test

21
Q

In Holland’s theory of vocational interest which of the following dimensions are listed in the order expected on the hexagon?

a. realistic, artistic
b. conventional, realistic
c. investigative, enterprising
d. social, conventional

A

b. conventional, realistic

22
Q

Which of the following is not true of symptom validity testing (SVT)?

a. it should be used when there is a question of secondary gain
b. it assesses the number and severity of symptoms a patient presents with
c. it is a necessary component of forensic work
d. SVT can include use of the Rey-15 item test and the recognition memory test

A

b. it assesses the number and severity of symptoms a patient presents with

23
Q

Which of the following is appropriate for a defense when a trial involve the patient who claimed mental illness as a reason behind the crime?

a. Not Guilty by reason of insanity
b. guilty but mentally ill
c. mens rea
d. diminished capacity

A

a. Not Guilty by reason of insanity

24
Q

In evaluating risk for future violence which of the following historical factors should be considered in terms of their likelihood of increasing the risk for future violence?

a. history of substance abuse
b. history of aggressive behavior
c. History of school failure
d. both A and B

A

d. both A and B

25
Q

According to Joiner and colleagues work (1999) which of the following risk factors should be assessed when evaluating suicide risk?

a. precipitant stressors
b. protective factors
c. predispositions
d. All the Above

A

d. All the Above

26
Q

Which of the following is not an axis included on the DSM 4 TR?

a. social and occupational functioning assessment scale
b. General medical conditions
c. psychosocial and environmental problems
d. Global assessment of relational functioning scale

A

a. social and occupational functioning assessment scale

27
Q

Continuous monitoring is used to monitor:

a. all of the subjects target behaviors during an interval
b. a subjects behaviors at given intervals
c. the number of occurrences of a specific behavior during an interval
d. whether or not a subject engages in specific behavior

A

a. all of the subjects target behaviors during an interval

28
Q

The dsm-4 uses a _______ approach to diagnosis.

a. homogeneous
b. global
c. continuous
d. polythetic

A

d. polythetic

29
Q

This is the extent to which a test measures what it is meant measure:

a. reliability
b. item response Theory
c. validity
d. generalizability Theory

A

c. validity

30
Q

According to the DSM 4 TR multiaxial assessment format, axis II captures:

a. General medical conditions
b. personality disorders
c. clinical disorders
d. psychosocial and environmental problems

A

b. personality disorders