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MCB-L > Epidemic Simulation <3 > Flashcards

Epidemic Simulation <3 Flashcards

1
Q

Epidemiology

A

study of causes, occurrence, transmission, distribution, and prevention of diseases in a population

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2
Q

Occurrence of disease

A

Common source epidemic & Propagated source epidemic

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3
Q

Common source epidemic

A

when the source of an outbreak is contaminated water, food, heating or cooling system of a building, and infects many people at one time

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4
Q

Propagated source epidemic

A

a disease transmitted from person-to-person

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5
Q

Index case (first case reported)

A

applies to propagated transmission only

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6
Q

Point prevalence

A

the fraction of the population that has the disease at a point in time

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7
Q

Incidence rate

A

the fraction of the population that contracts the disease over a specific period of time

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8
Q

Infectious diseases - transmissible (communicable) diseases

A

caused by entrance, growth, and multiplication of micro-organisms in the body

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9
Q

Infectious diseases include…

A

some viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, multicellular parasites, and aberrant proteins known as prions

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10
Q

3 types of disease transmission

A

direct contact, indirect contact via formite or vector, vehicle, and droplet transmission

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11
Q

Direct contact transmission

A

person-to-person; physical contact like touching, kissing, sexual intercourse

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12
Q

Indirect contact transmission

A

fomite - inanimate objects like:
-surgical instruments
-respiratory ventilators
-contaminated syringes

vectors - organisms that transmit, but do not cause disease

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13
Q

Classification of vectors:

A

Mechanical: housefly

Biological: mosquitoes, ticks, fleas, and lice

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14
Q

Vehicle transmission

A

infectious agent transferred to a person by ways other than physical contact (food, water, or air)

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15
Q

Examples of food-borne diseases

A

contaminated foods: H. pylori, hepatitis A

improperly cooked foods: parasitic infections

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16
Q

Droplet transmission:

A

a type of vehicle transmission; air-borne or microbial aerosol

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17
Q

Examples of droplet transmission

A

small residues that remain after the evaporation of liquid droplets released from an infected host

dust particles that may originate from floor, clothing, bed sheets, or contaminated floors

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18
Q

Most effective way to prevent spread of infectious disease

A

washing one’s hands

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19
Q

Patterns of infection

A

systemic (general), primary, secondary, nosocomial, and subclinical

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20
Q

Systemic (general) infections

A

spread throughout the body via the blood and/or lymph system

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21
Q

Primary infection

A

an acute infection that causes the disease

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22
Q

Secondary infection

A

occurs when an opportunistic pathogen is able to infect the host due to its weakened condition

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23
Q

AIDS patients offen suffer…

A

secondary infections such as Pneumocystitis pneumonia and tuberculosis

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24
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

hospital-acquired infection

25
Q

Subclinical (unapparent) infection

A

does not have any noticeable clinical symptoms or signs

26
Q

Symptoms are…

A

subjective changes in body function:
-pain
-headache
-heartburn

27
Q

Signs are…

A

objective changes that a physician can observe, feel, or measure

28
Q

Syndrome

A

a particular group of symptoms and signs associated with a certain disease

29
Q

Communicable diseases

A

can be spread from one person to the next

30
Q

Examples of communicable diseases

A

chicken pox (varicella), measles, genital herpes, tuberculosis etc.

31
Q

Contagious diseases are…

A

easily transmitted (highly communicable) from one person to the next

32
Q

Non-communicable diseases

A

do not spread from one person to the next

ex. tetanus (clostridium tetani) & anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)

33
Q

Morbidity (sickness)

A

number of susceptible people who have the disease with a defined population during a specific time period

34
Q

Mortality (death)

A

number of people who die from a specific disease out of the total population affected with that disease in a specific time period

35
Q

Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR) by the CDC

A

a publication about the occurrence of 26 notifiable diseases from U.S. and its territories

36
Q

Aerobic

A

Organisms that require oxygen to thrive

37
Q

Aerotolerant organisms

A

can survive in presence of oxygen but are anaerobic bc they don’t use it as a terminal electron acceptor

38
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

can grow w or wo oxygen

39
Q

Microaerophiles

A

Require low levels of oxygen to survive (i.e., are poisoned by high concentrations of oxygen)

40
Q

Superoxid dismutase (SOD) enzyme and catalase enzyme

A

released by bacteria that possess an ETC

capable of breaking down the superoxidate radical (O2) and hydrogen perioxide (H2O2)

41
Q

Antigen (Ag)

A

a substance capable of eliciting an immune response

42
Q

Antibody (Ab)

A

immunoglobulin; a protein molecule produced by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen

43
Q

Agglutination

A

clumping of particles; serves as evidence of antigen-antibody reaction

highly sensitive & may be used to detect presence of antibody or antigen in a sample

44
Q

Direct agglutination

A

relies on the combination of antibodies and naturally particulate antigens

e.g., slide agglutination (samples of antigen and antiserum are mixed pm a microscope slide and allowed to react

45
Q

Direct agglutination is used to…

A

diagnose some diseases, determine if pt has been exposed to a certain pathogen, and in determining the blood type

46
Q

Indirect agglutination

A

relies on artificially constructive systems in which agglutination will occur

e.g., coating particles (such as RBCs or latex microspheres) with either Ab or Ag

47
Q

Indirect agglutination is used…

A

in some pregnancy tests as well as in diagnosing diseases like HIV

48
Q

Slide agglutination

A

A direct agglutination test that shows visible clumps (agglutinates) are formed when particulate antigens bind with antibodies

49
Q

Slide agglutination kits…

A

diff kits provide for testing of different bacterial species

50
Q

Slide agglutination results

A

Kit: Staphylococcus aureus

Clumping - presence of black particles - indicates a (+) result of S. aureus

No clumping indicates a (-) results of Staphylococcus epidermidis

51
Q

Catalase test

A

differentiates bacteria based upon their ability to use aerobic or anaerobic respiration, specifically whether or not there is an ETC (electron transport chain)

52
Q

The ETC is composed of…

A

molecules capable of accepting and donate electrons which alternate between the oxidized and reduced forms, passing electrons down the chain to the final electron acceptor (O2)

53
Q

The energy lost by electrons in the sequential transfer is used to…

A

perform oxidative phosphorylation

54
Q

Flavoprotein

A

is an ETC carrier molecule that can pass electrons directly to oxygen, creating two highly potent cellular toxins - hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and superoxide radical (O2)

55
Q

Organisms that produce the toxins, H2O2 and O2, also

A

produce enzymes capable of breaking them down. Catalase converts hydrogen peroxide into water and gaseous oxygen. Superoxide dsimutase catalyzes conversion of superoxide radicals to hydrogen peroxide

56
Q

Superoxide Dismutase (SOD)

A

an enzyme produced by aerobic bacteria to deal with the more toxic superoxide radical (O2)

                    SOD 2O2 + 2H ---------------> H202 + O2
57
Q

Catalase

A

an enzyme produced by aerobes, micro-aerophiles, and facultative anaerobes to deal toxic hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
CATALSE
2H2O2 ——————–> 2H2O + O2

58
Q

Catalase Test

A

Add H2O2 and check for bubbles

means oxygen is produced bc catalase worked upon the hydrogen peroxide

59
Q

Catalase Test Results

A

Staphylococcus (catalase +)

Enterococcus & Streptococcus (catalpe -)

MCB-L (12 decks)

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